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APP Midterm Review 2526

Total questions: 142

Worksheet time: 1hrs 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
The condition that exists when the probability that the findings are not due to chance
a)
statistical significance
b)
experimenter bias
c)
confounding variables
2.
each time a study is repeated, the results are consistent.
a)
validity
b)
reliability
c)
sample
3.
Factors that cause differences between the experimental group and control group other than the independent variable. 
a)
control group
b)
population
c)
confounding variables
4.
The factor the researcher manipulates in a controlled experiment
a)
dependent variable
b)
independent variable
c)
confounding variable
5.
The subgroup of the population that participates in the study
a)
sample
b)
assignment
c)
group
6.
A phenomenon that occurs when a researcher's expectations or preferences about the outcome of a study influence the results. 
a)
placebo
b)
case study
c)
experimenter bias
7.
The subgroup of the sample that receives the independent variable.
a)
experimental group
b)
control group
c)
population
8.
The condition that exists when the probability that the findings are not due to chance
a)
statistical significance
b)
experimenter bias
c)
confounding variables
9.
each time a study is repeated, the results are consistent.
a)
validity
b)
reliability
c)
sample
10.
Factors that cause differences between the experimental group and control group other than the independent variable. 
a)
control group
b)
population
c)
confounding variables
11.
The factor the researcher manipulates in a controlled experiment
a)
dependent variable
b)
independent variable
c)
confounding variable
12.
The subgroup of the population that participates in the study
a)
sample
b)
assignment
c)
group
13.
A phenomenon that occurs when a researcher's expectations or preferences about the outcome of a study influence the results. 
a)
placebo
b)
case study
c)
experimenter bias
14.
The subgroup of the sample that receives the independent variable.
a)
experimental group
b)
control group
c)
population
15.
Division of the sample into groups so that every individual has an equal chance of being put in any group or condition.
a)
single blind
b)
double blind
c)
random assignment
d)
random sampling
16.
A psychological or physical treatment given to the control group that resembles the treatment given to the experimental group, but that contains no active ingredient. 
a)
independent variable
b)
placebo
c)
dependent variable
17.
A description of the specific procedure used to determine the presence of a variable.  Created so that the experiment can be replicated by others.
a)
operational definition
b)
independent variable
c)
controlled group
18.
Research design in which neither the experimenter nor the participants know who is in the experimental group and who is in control group.
a)
single blind study
b)
case study
c)
double blind study
19.
The extent to which an instrument measure what it is supposed to measure.
a)
reliability
b)
validity
c)
standardized
20.
Suggested rules for acting responsible and morally when conducting research.
a)
ethics
b)
guidelines
c)
rules
21.
Measures the average difference between each score and the mean of the data set.
a)
median
b)
range
c)
standard deviation
22.
Correlational research where one  specific group of people or person is studied in detail through interviews, file reviews, etc.  Not generalizable. 
a)
case study
b)
naturalistic evaluation
c)
experiment
23.
Research design in which participants don't know whether they are in experimental or control group.
a)
double blind
b)
naturalistic observation
c)
single blind
24.
A response to the belief that the independent variable will have an effect on the subjects when they haven't been given the independent variable. 
a)
placebo effect
b)
case study
c)
experiment
25.
The comparison group, the subgroup of the sample that is similar to the experimental group in every way except for the presence of the independent variable. 
a)
experimental group
b)
control group
c)
population
26.
Prediction of how or more factors are likely to be related.
a)
validity
b)
theory
c)
hypothesis
27.
Organized sets of concepts that explain phenomena
a)
theories
b)
hypothesis
c)
ideas
28.
The behavior or mental process that is measured in an experiment (the effect)
a)
dependent variable
b)
independent variable
c)
random sample
29.
Careful observations of humans or animals in real life situations
a)
case study
b)
survey
c)
naturalistic observation
30.
Obtain large samples of abilities, beliefs or behaviors through written or interview questions.
a)
case study
b)
naturalistic observation
c)
survye
31.
All of the individuals in the gorup to which the study applies
a)
random sample
b)
population
c)
group
32.
Repetition of the methods used in a previous experiment to see whether the same methods will yield the same results.
a)
validity
b)
research
c)
replication
33.

The science of behavior and mental processes

a)

psychology

b)

neurology

c)

sociology

d)

cryptology

34.

The tendency to search for information that supports our preconceptions and to ignore or distort contradictory evidence

a)

hindsight bias

b)

confirmation bias

c)

overconfidence

d)

illusory correlation

35.

The extent to which a test yields consistent results

a)

validity

b)

replication

c)

reliability

d)

The Scientific Method

36.

The tendency to believe, after learning an outcome, that one would have foreseen it

a)

placebo

b)

confirmation bias

c)

overconfidence

d)

hindsight bias

37.

A testable prediction, often implied by a theory

a)

null hypothesis

b)

hypothesis

c)

empirical evidence

d)

reliability

38.

The tendency to be overestimate the accuracy of our beliefs and judgments

a)

overconfidence

b)

hindsight bias

c)

confirmation bias

d)

null hypothesis

39.

The extent to which a test or experiment measures what it is supposed to measure or predicts what it is supposed to

a)

reliability

b)

falsifiable

c)

validity

d)

overconfidence

40.

Bias from people's responding in ways they presume a researcher expects or wishes

a)

wording effect

b)

confirmation bias

c)

social desirability bias

d)

sampling bias

41.

A non-experimental technique of observing and recording behavior in naturally occurring situations without trying to manipulate or control the situation

a)

experimentation

b)

naturalistic observation

c)

case study

d)

structured interview

42.

A non-experimental technique in which one individual or group is studied in depth in the hope of revealing universal principles.

a)

peer review

b)

case study

c)

focus group

d)

naturalistic observation

43.

A non-experimental technique for obtaining the self-reported attitudes or behaviors of a particular group

a)

focus group

b)

case study

c)

interview

d)

survey

44.

A measure of the extent to which 2 factors vary together and thus how well either factor predicts the other

a)

experiment

b)

replication

c)

correlation

d)

causation

45.

A statistical index of the relationship between 2 things (from -1.00 to +1.00)

a)

third variable

b)

correlation coefficient

c)

statistical significance

d)

independent variable

46.

In an experiment, the outcome that is measured; the variable that may change

a)

dependent variable

b)

independent variable

c)

third variable

d)

confounding variable

47.

In an experiment, the factor that is manipulated; the variable whose effect is being studied

a)

null variable

b)

third variable

c)

independent variable

d)

dependent variable

48.

In an experiment, a factor other than the factor being studied that might influence a study's results

a)

third variable

b)

independent variable

c)

dependent variable

d)

confounding variable

49.

A carefully worded statement of the exact procedures used in a research study that allows for replication of the study.

a)

random assignment

b)

operational definition

c)

operant chamber

d)

hypothesis

50.

A sample that fairly represents a population because each member has an equal chance of inclusion

a)

random sample

b)

reciprocity

c)

generalizability

d)

control group

51.

A flawed sampling process that produces an unrepresentative sample

a)

confidence bias

b)

sampling bias

c)

generalizability

d)

inferential bias

52.

Numerical data used to measure and describe characteristics of groups; uses measures of central tendency

a)

standard deviation

b)

descriptive statistics

c)

inferential statistics

d)

percentile rank

53.

A statistical statement of how likely it is that a result occurred by chance.

a)

hypothesis

b)

meta analysis

c)

statistical significance

d)

bimodal distribution

54.

The post-experimental explanation of a study, including its purpose, and any deceptions, to its participants

a)

debriefing

b)

hypothesis

c)

IRB

d)

informed consent

55.

The ________ is the meeting place between neurons; is a gap or cleft.

a)

reuptake

b)

synapse

c)

threshold

d)

axon

56.

_____ are chemical messengers released from a neuron by an action potential.

a)

synapse

b)

glial cells

c)

neurotransmitters

d)

reuptake

57.

This occurs when a sending neuron reabsorbs or takes back its neurotransmitters.

a)

action potential

b)

refractory period

c)

all-or-none

d)

reuptake

58.

These are your body’s natural painkiller.

a)

endorphins

b)

opiates

c)

glial cells

d)

hormones

59.

A(n) _______ increases a neurotransmitters actions by mimicking.

a)

antagonist

b)

agonist

c)

dendrite

d)

reuptake

60.

A(n) ________ decreases a neurotransmitters actions by blocking.

a)

antagonist

b)

agonist

c)

endorphin

d)

reuptake

61.

______________ sense the outside world and bring it into your body.

a)

motor neurons

b)

sesnory neurons

c)

interneurons

62.

___________________ carry signals out to your body so you can move.

a)

interneurons

b)

sensory neurons

c)

motor neurons

63.

___________ are found in your brain and spinal cord and process information.

a)

interneurons

b)

sensory neurons

c)

motor neurons

64.

A ___________ is a nerve cell and is the basic building block of the nervous system

a)

dendrite

b)

cell body

c)

endorphin

d)

neuron

65.

The ________________ is the level of stimulation required to trigger a neural impulse

a)

myelin sheath

b)

synapse

c)

threshold

d)

absolute potential

66.

The _________________ is a neuron’s reaction of either firing or not-it can’t fire more or less intensely

a)

threshold

b)

all-or-none response

c)

refractory period

d)

axon

67.

The______________ is a neural impulse-a brief electrical charge that travels down an axon.

a)

threshold

b)

action potential

c)

reuptake

d)

refractory period

68.

The__________ is the part of a neuron that contains the nucleus; the life-support center

a)

dendrites

b)

cell body

c)

synapse

d)

axon

69.

The _______________ is the time in which a neuron cannot fire; a resting pause after an action potential

a)

all-or-none

b)

threshold

c)

action potential

d)

refractory period

70.

________ are the part of a neuron that receives messages; they “listen”

a)

axons

b)

dendrites

c)

cell body

d)

glial cells

71.

The _______________ is part of a neuron that passes messages on to other neurons; it “speaks”

a)

dendrite

b)

axon

c)

action potential

d)

synapse

72.

______________ support, nourish, and protect neurons

a)

nerves

b)

myelin sheath

c)

glial cells

d)

endorphins

73.

_________________ is a fatty tissue layer that surrounds the axon allowing faster neural impulse transmission.

a)

agonist

b)

glial cells

c)

dendrite

d)

myelin sheath

74.

_______________ are bundled axons that form neural cables connecting the CNS with muscles, glands, and sense organs.

a)

dendrites

b)

nerves

c)

synapses

d)

threshold

75.

The _________________ is made up of the brain and spinal cord.

a)

central nervous system

b)

peripheral nervous system

c)

sympathetic nervous system

d)

autonomic nervous system

76.

A(n) __________ is an amplified recording of the waves of electrical activity sweeping across the brain’s surface

a)

EEG

b)

CT Scan

c)

MRI

d)

PET

77.

A(n)__________ is a technique for revealing blood flow and, therefore, brain activity by comparing successive MRI scans-shows function and structure

a)

PET

b)

fMRI

c)

MRI

d)

EEG

78.

The _________________ is the “little brain”. It processes sensory input, coordinates movement output and balance, and enables nonverbal learning and memory

a)

brainstem

b)

reticular formation

c)

medulla

d)

cerebellum

79.

The ___________________ controls heartbeat and breathing; located at base of brainstem

a)

reticular formation

b)

medulla

c)

hypothalamus

d)

limbic system

80.

The ___________________ is part of the peripheral NS that controls the body’s skeletal muscles

a)

sympathetic nervous system

b)

autonomic nervous system

c)

somatic nervous system

d)

parasympathetic nervous system

81.

The ___________________ is the part of the autonomic NS that calms the body to conserve energy. Rest and digest

a)

sympathetic nervous system

b)

parasympathetic nervous system

82.

The ___________________ is the part of the autonomic nervous system that arouses the body, mobilizing its energy. Fight or flight

a)

sympathetic nervous system

b)

parasympathetic nervous system

83.

A ___________________ is tissue destruction

a)

reflex

b)

leison

c)

split brain

84.

The _______________________ are a pair of endocrine glands that sit just above the kidneys and secrete hormones that help arouse the body in times of stress

a)

pituitary glad

b)

adreanal glands

c)

thyroid

85.

The ____________________ is the most influential gland. Controlled by the hypothalamus, it regulates growth and controls the other glands

a)

adrenal glads

b)

thyroid

c)

pituitary glad

d)

amygdala

86.

The _________________ is the brain’s sensory control center located at the top of the brainstem. It directs messages to the sensory receiving areas in the cortex and transmits replies to the cerebellum and medulla

a)

hypothalamus

b)

thalamus

c)

limbic system

d)

reticular formation

87.

The ______________________ is the neural system that is located below the cerebral hemispheres and is associated with emotions and drives

a)

medulla

b)

reticular formation

c)

thalamus

d)

limbic system

88.

The _____________________ is a nerve network that travels through the brainstem and controls arousal

a)

medulla

b)

cerebellum

c)

reticular formation

d)

hippocampus

89.

The _____________________ directs eating, drinking, body temperature, and is linked to rewards

a)

hypothalamus

b)

amygdala

c)

reticular formation

d)

hippocampus

90.

The _____________________ is two lima bean-sized neural clusters in the limbic system that are linked to emotions

a)

amygdala

b)

hypothalamus

c)

limbic system

d)

hippocampus

91.

The _____________________ is a neural center located in the limbic system that helps process for storage explicit memories of facts and events.

a)

cerebellum

b)

reticular formation

c)

hypothalamus

d)

hippocampus

92.
Concepts or frameworks that organize and interpret information.
a)
parallel processing
b)
schemas
c)
folders
93.
The position on the basilar membrane at which waves reach their peak depends on the frequency of a tone.  Accounts for high pitched sounds. 
a)
place theory
b)
frequency theory
c)
binocular depth cues
94.
Proposed theory for color vision with cones that are differentially sensitive to different wavelengths of light. 
a)
opponent process theory
b)
place theory
c)
trichromatic theory
95.
Minimum difference between any two stimuli that a person can detect 50% of the time.
a)
Weber's Law
b)
Absolute threshold
c)
Difference threshold
96.
The weakest level of a stimulus that can be correctly detected at least 50% of the time.
a)
opponent process theory
b)
absolute threshold
c)
perceptual constancy
97.
Focusing conscious awareness on a particular stimulus. 
a)
selective attention
b)
Weber's Law
c)
parallel processing
98.
The study of paranormal events that investigates claims of ESP. 
a)
perceptual constancy
b)
hypnosis
c)
parapsychology
99.
The idea that pain can only be experienced if pain messages can pass through a gate in the spinal cord on their way to the brain.
a)
place theory
b)
gate control theory
c)
opponent process theory
100.
Clues about distance based on the image of one eye.
a)
binocular depth cues
b)
monocular depth cues
c)
subliminal stimulation
101.
Information processing that begins with sensory receptors and works up into the brain.
a)
top down processing
b)
subliminal processing
c)
bottom up processing
102.
The rate of the neural impulses traveling up the auditory nerve matches the frequency of a tone. 
a)
place theory
b)
frequency theory
c)
Weber's law
103.
Receiving messages below one's absolute threshold for conscious awareness.  
a)
Weber's law
b)
difference threshold
c)
subliminal stimulation
104.
Difference thresholds increase in proportion to the size of the stimulus.
a)
Difference threshold
b)
Weber's law
c)
Absolute threshold
105.
Simultaneously analyzing different elements of sensory information such as color, brightness, shape etc. 
a)
sensory adaptation
b)
parallel processing
c)
Weber's law
106.
Proposed theory for color vision with opposing retinal process for red-green, yellow-blue, white-black.
a)
opponent process theory
b)
tri-chromatic theory
c)
frequency theory
107.
Temporary decrease in sensitivity to a stimulus that occurs when stimulation is unchanging. (nose blindness)
a)
absolute threshold
b)
schemas
c)
sensory adaptation
108.
information processing guided by your pre existing knowledge or expectations to construct perceptions.
a)
top down processing
b)
Bottom up processing
c)
parallel processing
109.
Clues about distance requiring two eyes.
a)
monocular depth cues
b)
place theory
c)
binocular depth cues
110.
perceiving an object as unchanging even when the immediate sensation of the object changes.  
a)
parallel processing
b)
perceptual constancy
c)
somatosensation
111.

Can't remember new information because you keep thinking about old info

a)

proactive interference

b)

retroactive interference

c)

retrograde amnesia

d)

anterograde amnesia

112.

Smallest unit of sound that contain meaning (ed, ing)

a)

phoneme

b)

morpheme

c)

babble

d)

acquisition

113.

The tendency for group members to become more extreme in their original beliefs after a discussion

a)

group think

b)

social loafing

c)

group polarization

d)

social facilitation

114.

Perspective of psychology that focuses on how we think about and interpret our circumstances

a)

social

b)

developmental

c)

evolutionary

d)

cognitive

115.

Perspective of psychology that focuses on understanding childhood traumas, dreams, and relies on free-association therapy techniques

a)

evolutionary

b)

cognitive-behavioral

c)

humanistic

d)

psychoanalytic

116.

Conducting a survey with 10 Dunbar High students would likely lack

a)

validity

b)

reliability

c)

statistical significance

d)

operational definitions

117.
Pablo vainly searches for a screwdriver while failing to recognize that a readily available coin in his pocket would turn the screw. His oversight best illustrates: 
a)
functional fixedness.
b)
the availability heuristic.
c)
belief perseverance.
d)
the representativeness heuristic.
118.
A defense attorney emphasizes to a jury that her client works full-time, supports his family, and enjoys leisure-time hobbies. Although none of this information is relevant to the trial, it is designed to make the defendant appear to be a typical member of the local community. The lawyer is most clearly attempting to take advantage 
a)
confirmation bias.
b)
functional fixedness.
c)
belief perseverance.
d)
the representativeness heuristic.
119.
Advertisers know that a thirty-three percent discount sounds like a better deal than a discount of one third.  This best illustrates:
a)
framing.
b)
belief bias.
c)
representativeness heuristics.
d)
confirmation bias.
120.
Maintaining one's conceptions even after the basis on which they were formed has been discredited is known as: 
a)
the representativeness heuristic.
b)
belief perseverance.
c)
confirmation bias.
d)
functional fixedness.
121.
Which of the following is NOT included as part of today’s general definition of intelligence?
a)
the ability to solve problems
b)
nthe ability to use knowledge to adapt to new situations
c)
the ability to understand people and emotions
d)
the ability to learn from experience
122.
Problem solving is one type of cognitive activity in which we all engage.  Which of the following cognitive tendencies is seen to be an obstacle to problem solving?
a)
availability heuristic
b)
insight
c)
prototype confusion
d)
confirmation bias
123.
To find Tabasco sauce in a large grocery store, you could systematically search every shelf in every store aisle. This best illustrates problem solving by means of: 
a)
the availability heuristic.
b)
functional fixedness.
c)
an algorithm.
d)
the representativeness heuristic.
124.

Michael noticed that whenever he moved his dog’s food dish, his dog would come into the kitchen and act hungry and excited. He reasoned that because he feeds the dog using that dish, the sound of the dish had become a(n)

a)

conditioned response.

b)

unconditioned response.

c)

conditioned stimulus.

d)

unconditioned stimulus.

125.

Ever since she was scared by a dog as a young child, Angelica has been afraid of all dogs. The fact that she is afraid of not only the original dog but all types of dogs is an example of

a)

stimulus generalization.

b)

stimulus discrimination.

c)

spontaneous recovery.

d)

extinction.

126.

In Watson’s experiment with “Little Albert,” the conditioned stimulus was

a)

the fear of the noise.

b)

the fear of the rat.

c)

the loud noise.

d)

the white rat.

127.

Which of the following would be an example of vicarious classical conditioning?

a)

As a young child, Tony frequently observed his older sisters jump around and scream whenever any of them saw a spider, as they were very afraid of them. Subsequently, Tony experiences feelings of fear when he sees a spider.

b)

Tommy is told about a new product by a close friend and decides to buy it for himself.

c)

A cat responds to the sound of a bell because it sounds similar to a bell it hears on the television.

d)

Tonja watches her grandfather check the air pressure in her bike tire and then use a hand pump to add air to the tire. She is later able to check the air pressure and pump up the tire herself.

128.

Cindy had cheesy tacos at a local Mexican restaurant. Later she became terribly ill and suffered bouts of nausea and vomiting. What might we predict based on conditioned taste aversion research?

a)

Cindy will probably develop a strong liking for cheesy tacos.

b)

Cindy will probably be able to eat cheesy tacos with no nausea at all.

c)

Cindy will probably get nauseated the next time she tries to eat cheesy tacos.

d)

Cindy will probably continue to eat cheesy tacos except when she feels nauseous.

129.

Students are accustomed to a bell ringing to indicate the end of a class period. The principal decides to substitute popular music for the bell to indicate the end of each class period. Students quickly respond to the music in the same way they did to the bell. What principle does this illustrate?

a)

generalization

b)

habituation

c)

aquisition

d)

stimulus

130.

In classical conditioning, the unconditioned stimulus

a)

naturally triggers a response

b)

is a naturally occurring response.

c)

is initially irrelevant, and then comes to trigger a response.

d)

objectively studies psychology.

e)

is Pavlovian.

131.

Classical conditioning is the type of learning in which a person links two or more stimuli and

a)

forgets about them.

b)

lays them out in sequence.

c)

receives a reward.

d)

anticipates events.

132.

If you have a snake phobia because you once heard a loud noise while looking at a snake, for you a snake is a

a)

Conditioned Stimulus

b)

Unconditioned Stimulus

c)

Unconditioned Response

d)

Conditioned Response

133.

In Pavlov's experiments with dogs, salivation was the

a)

Conditioned Stimulus

b)

Unconditioned Stimulus

c)

Unconditioned Response

d)

Conditioned Response

134.

Lynn is teaching learning. Every time she claps her hands, Charlie turns off the light. When Randy claps in approval of Lynn’s presentation, Charlie does not turn the light off. What concept has Charlie demonstrated?

a)

Habituation

b)

Discrimination

c)

Spontaneous recovery

d)

Extinction

e)

Habituation

135.

After pairing the CS and US in a series of conditioning trials, the organism learns to respond to the CS alone. This response is then called

a)

Conditioned Stimulus

b)

Unconditioned Stimulus

c)

Unconditioned Response

d)

Conditioned Response

136.

In Pavlov's experiments with dogs, food was the

a)

Conditioned Stimulus

b)

Unconditioned Stimulus

c)

Unconditioned Response

d)

Conditioned Response

137.
The technique of strengthening behavior by reinforcing successive approximations is called
a)
positive reinforcement
b)
negative reinforcement
c)
distributed practice
d)
modeling
e)
shaping
138.
Taking a painkiller to relieve a toothache is behavior learned through which of the following processes?
a)
Shaping
b)
Punishment
c)
Positive reinforcement
d)
Negative reinforcement
e)
Omission training
139.
Try as you might, you are unable to teach your dog to do a somersault. He will roll around on the ground, but he refuses to execute the gymnastic move you desire because of
a)
equipotentiality
b)
preparedness
c)
instinctive drift
d)
chaining
e)
shaping
140.
Tina likes to play with slugs, but she can find them by the shed only after it rains. On what kind of reinforcement schedule is Tina's slug hunting?
a)
continuous
b)
fixed-interval
c)
fixed-ratio
d)
variable-interval
e)
variable-ratio
141.
Mariah developed a fear of the water when she fell off a river raft last summer. This year she took swimming lessons and thought she had finally overcome her fear of water. She was eagerly looking forward to an upcoming rafting trip, however, as soon as she stepped onto the raft she was instantly terrified again. 
a)
extinction
b)
generalization
c)
spontaneous recovery
d)
observational learning
142.
When Lindsay was nine years old, the neighbor’s Chihuahua bit her ankle. Today, Lindsay is still terrified of Chihuahuas, but she likes all other types of dogs. Lindsay’s fear illustrates the process of:
a)
Instinctive drift
b)
Stimulus discrimination
c)
Stimulus generalization
d)
Negative avoidance