wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Revision Infection control and cssd , sterilization

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is the best single action to prevent health care- associated infections?

a)

Wearing gloves at all times

b)

Hand hygiene at appropriate moments

c)

Using masks for all patients

d)

Using antibiotics prophylactically

2.

Standard precautions apply to:

a)

Patients with known infections only.

b)

All patients regardless of diagnosis

c)

Only ICU patients

d)

Only surgical patients

3.

The "chain of infection" link that refers to how an agent leaves the reservoir is:

a)

Mode of transmission

b)

Portal of exit

c)

Susceptible host

d)

Infectious agent

4.

A "fomite" is:

a)

An insect vector

b)

A person with infection.

c)

An inanimate object capable of transmitting microbes

d)

A reservoir animal

5.

Airborne transmission usually involves particles:

a)

> 5 microns

b)

< 5 microns

c)

> 10 microns

d)

5-10 microns

6.

Droplet precautions are required for infections spread by:

a)

Dust particles

b)

Large respiratory droplets from cough/sneeze

c)

Contaminated food

d)

Blood contamination

7.

Which is NOT a correct step for breaking the chain of infection?

a)

Isolation of infectious patients

b)

Adequate sterilization of instruments.

c)

Overprescribing antibiotics routinely

d)

Effective hand hygiene

8.

A sepsis patient's blood culture is positive. The blood acts as:

a)

Portal of exit

b)

Route of transmission

c)

Reservoir

d)

Susceptible host

9.

The best indicator of autoclave effectiveness is:

a)

Autoclave tape only

b)

Chemical indicator only

c)

Biological indicator (spore test)

d)

Visual dryness of load

10.

Color-change indicators on sterilization packs are:

a)

Absolute proof of sterility

b)

Indicators of exposure to sterilization parameters

c)

Indicators of microbial death

d)

Not used in hospitals

11.

The color code for infectious (clinical) waste in many Indian hospitals under BMW rules is:

a)

Yellow

b)

Blue

c)

Red

d)

Green

12.

Sharps should be disposed of in:

a)

Yellow bag

b)

Blue bag

c)

Puncture-proof sharps container (red/white)

d)

Black bag

13.

Which of the following is a common biological indicator organism used to test steam sterilizers?

a)

Bacillus subtilis spores

b)

Staphylococcus aureus

c)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

d)

E. coli

14.

The recommended alcohol concentration for hand rubs is:

a)

20-30%

b)

40-50%

c)

60-80%

d)

90-95%

15.

If hands are visibly soiled, the recommended action is:

a)

Alcohol-based hand rub

b)

Soap and water washing

c)

Only gloves use

d)

Dry wiping

16.

Which PPE is essential for airborne precautions?

a)

Surgical mask

b)

N95 respirator or equivalent

c)

Face shield only

d)

Gloves only

17.

Proper sequence of donning PPE (general) is:

a)

Gloves →Gown→ Mask → Eye protection

b)

Gown→ Mask/Respirator→ Eye protection →Gloves

c)

Mask → Gloves→ Gown →Eye protection

d)

Eye protection →Gloves→ Gown→ Mask

18.

Proper sequence of doffing PPE to minimize contamination is:

a)

Gloves → Eye protection → Gown → Mask

b)

Mask → Gloves → Gown → Eye protection

c)

Gown → Mask → Gloves → Eye protection

d)

Eye protection → Gown → Gloves → Mask

19.

Which waste treatment is suitable for pharmaceutical waste containing cytotoxic drugs?

a)

Incineration at high temperature

b)

Autoclaving

c)

Landfill without treatment

d)

Chemical neutralization in drainage

20.

The "5 moments for hand hygiene" by WHO does NOT include:

a)

Before touching a patient

b)

Before aseptic procedure

c)

After body fluid exposure risk

d)

After administrative paperwork

21.

An outbreak in the OT caused by contaminated surgical instruments most likely results from failure in:

a)

Hand hygiene only

b)

Sterilization process or packaging integrity

c)

PPE selection

d)

Patient pre-op fasting

22.

Which of the following disinfectants is sporicidal?

a)

Phenolics

b)

Quaternary ammonium compounds

c)

Chlorine compounds (sodium hypochlorite) at appropriate concentration

d)

Plain soap

23.

Biohazard symbol on a bag indicates:

a)

Radioactive content

b)

Infectious material

c)

Chemical hazard

d)

Non-hazardous waste

24.

Which agency or guideline is most commonly referenced for infection control standards in hospitals globally?

a)

WHO (World Health Organization)

b)

FIFA

c)

OECD

d)

WIPO

25.

The purpose of an infection control committee in hospitals is to:

a)

Manage hospital finances

b)

Oversee and implement infection prevention policies and audits

c)

Hire nurses

d)

Purchase drugs

26.

Which is the most heat-resistant microbial form commonly considered in sterilization validation?

a)

Vegetative bacteria

b)

Enveloped viruses

c)

Bacterial spores

d)

Fungi

27.

Which of these is an example of engineering control for infection prevention?

a)

Use of gloves

b)

Installation of negative-pressure isolation rooms

c)

Hand hygiene reminders

d)

Education sessions

28.

Pre-operative antibiotic prophylaxis should ideally be administered:

a)

After incision

b)

Within 60 minutes before incision (depending on agent)

c)

12 hours before surgery

d)

After wound closure

29.

Which is TRUE about reprocessing single-use medical devices (SUDs)?

a)

Always allowed without restrictions

b)

Never allowed anywhere

c)

May be allowed under strict regulation and validation in some settings otherwise discard

d)

Can be reprocessed by boiling at home

30.

What is the correct immediate action after a needlestick injury?

a)

Ignore it if the skin looks fine

b)

Squeeze and suck the wound

c)

Wash wound with soap and water, report incident and seek evaluation for PEP if indicated

d)

Apply bleach directly to wound

31.

Which of the following is NOT classified as biomedical waste?

a)

Non-infectious general office paper

b)

Blood-soaked dressings

c)

Cultures and stocks of infectious agents

d)

Used syringes and needles

32.

For effective segregation at source, items should be:

a)

Mixed in any bag for disposal convenience

b)

Separated into appropriate color-coded bins as per BMW rules

c)

Burned in open pits

d)

Sent to municipal garbage

33.

Ethylene oxide sterilization is especially used for:

a)

Heat-stable metal instruments

b)

Heat-sensitive items like some plastics, electronics

c)

Food utensils

d)

Textile linen only

34.

Which of these acts as a reservoir for hospital-acquired MRSA colonization?

a)

Soil

b)

Hospital surfaces and healthcare workers' hands/nasal carriage

c)

Running water

d)

Ozone

35.

"Contact precautions" recommend:

a)

Door sealing with tape

b)

Use of gloves and gown on entering patient area.

c)

Use of N95 respirator only

d)

No visitation allowed ever

36.

Which chemical sterilant requires activation and has a long aeration time due to toxicity?

a)

70% isopropyl alcohol

b)

Glutaraldehyde (high-level disinfectant)/ethylene oxide gas- EO requires aeration

c)

Soap solution

d)

Sterile water

37.

The period during which an infection can be transmitted even before symptoms appear is called:

a)

Incubation period

b)

Latent period

c)

Infectious period (can overlap incubation)

d)

Convalescence only

38.

Which of these is true for standard surgical masks?

a)

Provide full protection from airborne particles <5 microns

b)

Mainly protect against large droplets and sprays, not airborne aerosols

c)

Are reusable for multiple days without change

d)

Are equivalent to respirators for tuberculosis protection

39.

The correct concentration of sodium hypochlorite for general disinfection of surfaces in healthcare (example) is commonly around:

a)

0.05% for routine disinfection (500 ppm) depending on guidance

b)

0.0001%

c)

5% only

d)

50%

40.

Which is recommended for cleaning and disinfection of non-critical items (items contacting intact skin)?

a)

Sterilization only

b)

Low- to intermediate-level disinfection (e.g., detergent + disinfectant)

c)

No cleaning required

d)

Incineration

41.

Waste containing cytotoxic or cytostatic drugs should be:

a)

Treated as general waste

b)

Collected separately and disposed by high-temperature incineration where required

c)

Flushed into drains

d)

Recycled

42.

When sterilized instruments are stored, the best practice includes:

a)

Leaving packs on floor to save space

b)

Storing in a clean, dry area away from moisture and contamination

c)

Opening packs only when needed and re-sterilizing daily

d)

Storing next to chemical storage

43.

Which one is NOT a function of hospital infection control nurse?

a)

Conduct surveillance of HAIS

b)

Provide staff training on infection prevention

c)

Prescribe antibiotics to patients

d)

Audit hand hygiene compliance

44.

Vaccination of healthcare workers reduces risk of:

a)

Only bacterial infections

b)

Vaccine-preventable infections like Hepatitis B, Influenza, etc.

c)

COVID-19 only

d)

None of the above

45.

The BMW rule that mandates bar-coding and record keeping for waste movement is mainly intended to:

a)

Obfuscate waste origin

b)

Ensure traceability and accountability of biomedical waste management

c)

Increase paperwork only

d)

Save money

46.

Central Sterile Supply Department (CSSD) is primarily responsible for:

a)

Pharmacy inventory

b)

Sterilization, assembly and distribution of sterile supplies and instruments

c)

Patient admissions

d)

Medical record keeping

47.

The primary goal of disinfection is to:

a)

Remove all organic matter only

b)

Reduce the number of viable microorganisms to a level previously specified as safe

c)

Change color of surfaces

d)

Sterilize implants

48.

Which of the following organisms is hardest to kill and thus used to validate sterilization?

a)

Enveloped virus

b)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

c)

Bacterial spores (e.g., Geobacillus stearothermophilus)

d)

Gram-negative coccobacilli

49.

Best immediate disposal for contaminated fluid from an isolation room:

a)

Drain through regular sink without treatment

b)

Follow hospital SOP: contain, neutralize if necessary, and dispose as per BMW rules

c)

Mix with other waste.

d)

Store in ward fridge

50.

The final step in risk assessment for infection prevention is:

a)

Identification of hazards only

b)

Implement controls and monitor outcomes (evaluate effectiveness)

c)

Hiring more staff only

d)

Instituting punitive measures only

51.

Sterilization is defined as:

a)

Reduction of microbial load by 90%

b)

Complete elimination or destruction of all forms of microbial life,including spores

c)

Cleaning only

d)

Disinfection only

52.

Autoclave sterilization typically uses:

a)

Dry heat at 160°C

b)

Pressurized saturated steam (moist heat)

c)

Chemical vapor only

d)

Ethylene oxide only

53.

Typical standard parameters for gravity displacement steam autoclave are:

a)

121°C for 15 minutes at 15 psi (for standard unwrapped loads)

b)

100°C for 30 minutes

c)

200°C for 2 minutes

d)

80°C for 60 minutes

54.

Which test evaluates the ability of autoclave to remove air (vacuum efficiency)?

a)

Bowie-Dick test

b)

Sterility test with Bacillus stearothermophilus

c)

Autoclave tape

d)

Visual inspection

55.

Biological indicator for steam sterilization commonly uses spores of:

a)

Geobacillus stearothermophilus (formerly Bacillus stearothermophilus)

b)

Bacillus subtilis var niger

c)

E. coli

d)

Candida albicans

56.

Dry heat sterilization (hot air oven) is best suited for:

a)

Heat-sensitive plastics

b)

Powders and oils and metal instruments that can tolerate high temperature

c)

Moist materials

d)

Powdered sugars only

57.

Which sterilization method is appropriate for heat- and moisture-sensitive instruments with complex lumens?

a)

Steam autoclave

b)

Ethylene oxide gas sterilization

c)

Boiling water

d)

Dry heat

58.

Ethylene oxide sterilization requires post-sterilization aeration because:

a)

It smells nice

b)

It is toxic and residual gas must be removed from items

c)

To dry items

d)

To sterilize further

59.

Chemical indicators monitor:

a)

Microbial kill directly

b)

Exposure to sterilization conditions (e.g., temperature/time)

c)

Package integrity over time

d)

The color of the instrument

60.

Which is NOT a sterilization indicator?

a)

Biological indicator

b)

Chemical indicator

c)

Mechanical indicator

d)

Visual indicator of sterility (assumes sterility)

61.

Cold sterilization commonly refers to high-level disinfection with agents such as:

a)

70% ethanol only

b)

Glutaraldehyde or 2% alkaline glutaraldehyde (e.g., for endoscopes)

c)

Boiling water

d)

Paper towels

62.

Ultrasonic cleaners in CSSD are used to:

a)

Sterilize items completely

b)

Remove gross debris and soils via cavitation prior to sterilization

c)

Dry instruments

d)

Package instruments

63.

Packaging for sterilization should allow:

a)

No penetration by sterilant

b)

Adequate penetration by sterilant and maintain sterility afterward (sterile barrier system)

c)

Be airtight to prevent sterilant entry

d)

Be colorful

64.

Maximum recommended reuse time for sterile pack until re-sterilization depends on

a)

Storage conditions, handling, packaging integrity and policy no fixed time universally

b)

Always 1 day only

c)

Never use more than 2 hours

d)

Forever

65.

Which of the following would be considered a critical item requiring sterilization?

a)

Stethoscope diaphragm

b)

Surgical instruments entering sterile tissue or vascular system

c)

BP cuff

d)

Hospital tray

66.

Which is an advantage of steam sterilization over dry heat?

a)

Faster and more effective at lower temperatures for most items

b)

Cheaper in all cases

c)

No water required

d)

Better for oils

67.

The term "sterility assurance level (SAL)" commonly used in sterilization validation describes :

a)

Probability of survival of viable microorganisms on a sterilized item (e.g., 10^-6)

b)

Color change of indicator

c)

Time of sterilization only

d)

Packaging type

68.

High-level disinfection kills:

a)

All microorganisms including high numbers of bacterial spores

b)

All microorganisms except high numbers of bacterial spores (may not be sporicidal)

c)

Only fungi

d)

Nothing

69.

The most reliable record of autoclave cycles for sterilization monitoring is:

a)

Operator's memory

b)

Mechanical (printout/log), chemical indicators and periodic biological indicators

c)

Visual inspection

d)

Packaging color

70.

A tray with lumened instruments should be:

a)

Sterilized as is without special attention

b)

Disassembled and lumens flushed and cleaned before sterilization

c)

Only wiped with alcohol

d)

Irradiated at all times

71.

CSSD workflow should ideally be:

a)

Dirty zone→ clean zone →sterile storage (unidirectional flow)

b)

Clean →dirty → sterile

c)

Intermixing of dirty and clean is fine

d)

No specific order

72.

Which method is NOT used for terminal sterilization of medical waste?

a)

Incineration

b)

Autoclaving (steam sterilization)

c)

Chemical neutralization for some wastes

d)

Freezing to -20°C

73.

Which is a limitation of ethylene oxide sterilization?

a)

Long cycle time and aeration, potential toxicity and carcinogenicity

b)

Immediate sterilization with no aeration needed

c)

Inexpensive and fast always

d)

No compatibility issues with plastics

74.

The most appropriate sterilization control for heat-sensitive endoscopes is:

a)

Boiling water

b)

High-level disinfection (e.g., glutaraldehyde) or low-temperature sterilization methods per protocol

c)

Dry heat at 180°C

d)

Leaving in sunlight

75.

Which of the following is NOT appropriate to place into an autoclave?

a)

Metal surgical instruments

b)

Some heat-sensitive plastic components (may melt)

c)

Wrapped cloth packs

d)

Glassware (if autoclave rated)

76.

The Bowie-Dick test is performed:

a)

Daily on vacuum autoclaves to test air removal and steam penetration

b)

Once a year only

c)

For ethylene oxide only

d)

On chemical indicators only

77.

Which of the following increases sterilizer load failure risk?

a)

Proper loading per manufacturer's instructions

b)

Overloading and blocking steam penetration

c)

Use of chemical indicators

d)

Performing Bowie-Dick test

78.

Sterilization by radiation (gamma or electron beam) is typically used for:

a)

Hospital reprocessing of instruments daily

b)

Industrial sterilization of single-use medical devices and packaging

c)

Home sterilization of bandages

d)

CSSD routine for instruments

79.

For hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilization, main benefit is:

a)

High temp only

b)

Low temperature sterilization suitable for heat-sensitive devices with relatively short cycles

c)

No compatibility restrictions

d)

Can sterilize liquids

80.

Which physical parameter is least important to monitor in a steam sterilizer cycle?

a)

Temperature

b)

Time

c)

Pressure

d)

Color of room paint

81.

A spore test (biological indicator) for ethylene oxide uses spores of:

a)

Bacillus stearothermophilus

b)

Bacillus subtilis (or other species appropriate for the sterilant)

c)

Candida albicans

d)

Enterococcus faecalis

82.

Which is a true statement about cold sterilants vs. sterilization?

a)

Cold sterilants always achieve SAL of 10^-6

b)

Some chemical sterilants can achieve sterilization under validated conditions; not all high-level disinfectants are sterilants

c)

Cold sterilization means freezing devices

d)

Cold sterilants are always safe for patients without rinsing

83.

Which CSSD practice reduces cross-contamination risk?

a)

Wearing same gloves in all zones

b)

Clear demarcation of dirty/clean zones and staff separation

c)

Storing sterile packs in wet area

d)

Repackaging contaminated instruments only

84.

Most common cause of failed sterilization cycles is:

a)

Faulty biological indicators only

b)

Operator error, improper loading or inadequate sterilizer maintenance

c)

Using autoclave tape

d)

Lack of color indicators

85.

Low-temperature sterilization options include:

a)

Steam only

b)

Ethylene oxide, hydrogen peroxide plasma, peracetic acid immersion depending on device compatibility

c)

Boiling water

d)

Hot air oven

86.

Which of the following is essential before sterilizing surgical instruments?

a)

Packaging only, no cleaning

b)

Thorough cleaning (removal of bioburden) prior to sterilization

c)

Disinfecting with alcohol only

d)

Coating with oil

87.

The "shelf life" of a properly packaged sterile item depends mainly on:

a)

Type of packaging, storage conditions, handling practices

b)

Sterilizer brand only

c)

Time since purchase of instrument only

d)

Color of pack

88.

Which test should be run weekly for steam autoclaves to verify sterilizing conditions?

a)

Bowie-Dick only once at installation

b)

Routine biological indicator testing at appropriate frequency per policy (often weekly or per load risk)

c)

No tests requiredVisual test only

d)

Visual test only

89.

Sterility indicators in CSSD should be:

a)

Ignored by staff

b)

Documented and acted upon if failure is detected

c)

Removed after sterilization never to be checked.

d)

Only used for training

90.

Best practice for reprocessing single-use devices (if allowed by regulation) includes:

a)

No validation required

b)

Strict regulatory, functional testing, material compatibility verification and traceability before re-use

c)

Reuse without cleaning is fine

d)

Only rinsing with tap water

91.

Which of the following is a limitation of autoclaving for waste treatment?

a)

Effective for most infectious wastes but not suitable for chemical or pharmaceutical wastes that require other disposal

b)

Always solves all waste types including hazardous chemical waste

c)

Never used in hospitals

d)

Only for textiles

92.

In CSSD, color-coded areas usually indicate:

a)

Staff seniority

b)

Dirty/contaminated area, clean assembly area, sterile storage area for workflow control

c)

Emergency exits

d)

Fire hazard levels

93.

Which method would you choose to sterilize a heat-sensitive flexible endoscope?

a)

Steam autoclave at 121°C

b)

High-level disinfection with validated chemical (e.g., glutaraldehyde) or low-temp sterilization method as per device instructions

c)

Place under UV light for 1 minute

d)

Dry heat at 180°C

94.

Sterilization validation documentation should include:

a)

Only operator name

b)

Cycle parameters, indicator results, maintenance records and corrective actions

c)

Only date and time

d)

Only purchase invoice

95.

The main hazard to staff when using ethylene oxide is:

a)

Noise

b)

Chemical toxicity and carcinogenicity if not properly controlled and ventilated

c)

Overheating of items

d)

Increased humidity

96.

Which of the following is FALSE regarding ultrasonic cleaning?

a)

It replaces sterilization

b)

It helps remove debris from instrument crevices prior to sterilization

c)

Requires proper detergents and maintenance

d)

Should not be used as sole sterilization method

97.

A sterilizer printout typically records:

a)

Cycle parameters (time, temperature, pressure) for traceability and QA

b)

Only the date in faint ink

c)

Only operator initials with no data

d)

Color of instruments

98.

Which item requires sterilization rather than high-level disinfection?

a)

Endotracheal tube used once and disposed

b)

Implantable surgical instrument entering bloodstream

c)

External stethoscope earpiece

d)

Non-critical BP cuff

99.

Which is TRUE about steam sterilization of wrapped items?

a)

Wrapping prevents steam penetration entirely

b)

Wrapping must be permeable to sterilant; improper wrapping can prevent sterilization

c)

Wrapping color determines sterility

d)

Wrapping is optional for any item

100.

The ideal storage for sterile packs is:

a)

Open to corridor for easy access

b)

Dry, clean, away from floor and moisture, FIFO principles applied

c)

Near septic tanks for convenience

d)

On the sterile table ready for use indefinitely