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FINAL EXAM REVIEW

Total questions: 235

Worksheet time: 3hrs 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Anterior

a)

Near the front

b)

Near the back

c)

Farther from the body core

d)

Nearer the body core

2.
Medial
a)
Situated closer to the surface 
b)
Situated farther from the surface 
c)
Situated closer to the midline of the body
d)
Situated farther from the midline of the body
3.
Located closer to the point of attachment (of a limb)
a)
Distal
b)
Proximal
c)
Medial 
d)
Lateral 
4.
What term means "toward the MIDLINE of the body?
a)
Medial 
b)
Lateral
c)
Intermediate
d)
Ipsilateral
5.
What term means AWAY from the midline of the body?
a)
Medial
b)
Lateral
c)
Contralateral
d)
Ipsilateral
6.

Posterior means:

a)

Closer to the front

b)

Along the front of the vertebral column

c)

Closer to the back

d)

Along the back of the vertebral column

7.
Which of the following best describes anatomical position?
a)
Erect position of the body with the face directed forward, the arms at the side, and the palms of the hands facing forward
b)
erect position of the body with the face directed forward, the arms at the side, and the palms of the hands facing backwards
c)
laying position of the body with the face directed forward, the arms at the side, and the palms of the hands facing forward
d)
laying position of the body with the face directed forward, the arms at the side, and the palms of the hands facing backwards
8.

The midsagittal plane separates the body into...

a)

top and bottom

b)

equal left and right

c)

front and back

9.

The frontal plane/coronal separates the body into...

a)

anterior and posterior

b)

medial and lateral

c)

proximal and distal

d)

cranial and caudal

10.

The transverse plane separates the body into...

a)

anterior/posterior

b)

superior/inferior

c)

medial/lateral

d)

proximal/distal

11.

Which anatomical plane is the ONLY horizontal plane?

a)

sagittal

b)

transverse

c)

frontal

12.

Which anatomical plane divides the body into anterior and posterior

a)

frontal/coronal

b)

transverse

c)

sagittal

d)

midsagittal

13.

The study of the functions of the body

a)

physiology

b)

psychology

c)

physics

d)

anatomy

14.

The study of the structures of the body

a)

biology

b)

physiology

c)

anatomy

d)

geology

15.

Standard reference for describing body locations, positions, and directions

a)

anatomical planes

b)

anatomical position

c)

anatomical terms

d)

anatomical divisions

16.

The vertical plane that divides the body into front and back sections.

a)

frontal/coronal plane

b)

sagittal plane

c)

midsagittal plane

d)

transverse plane

17.

The plane that divides the body vertically into unequal left and right sides.

a)

transverse

b)

sagittal

c)

midsagittal

d)

frontal/coronal

18.

The horizontal plane that divides the body into upper and lower sections

a)

sagittal plane

b)

midsagittal plane

c)

transverse plane

d)

frontal/coronal plane

19.

What are two major body cavities?

a)

thoracic

b)

abdominopelvic

c)

dorsal

d)

ventral

e)

cranial

20.
The thoracic cavity and the abdominopelvic cavity are both contained within the _______ cavity.
a)
dorsal
b)
ventral
c)
cranial
d)
spinal
21.

What is the point of a feedback loop?

a)

To provide the body with more energy

b)

To provide the body with more food

c)

To make sure the conditions in the body are always changing

d)

To make sure the conditions in the body remain stable

22.
When you get cut, your skin cells release hormones that signal platelets to come and stop the bleeding. Platelets then release more hormones that signal even more platelets to help stop bleeding. The hormone signals continue until the cut is closed.
a)
Positive Feedback Response
b)
Negative Feedback Loop 
23.

Loops that cause a response to build up and build up until something big happens are called ____________ loops

a)

positive

b)

negative

24.

The heater kicks on and the house warms up, so it kicks off. Then the house cools a bit and the heater kicks back on. This continues all day. It's a _____________ loop.

a)

positive

b)

negative

25.

Labor during pregnancy is an example of a ____________ feedback loop

a)

positive

b)

negative

26.

Blood sugar regulation is an example of a ______________ loop

a)

positive

b)

negative

27.

Which of these conditions indicate positive feedback has occurred?

a)

The production of a particular product continues its production

b)

The production of a particular product stops its production

c)

Sweat evaporates from a person's skin

28.

__________________ feedback is the most common type of feedback in living systems because it brings levels back to normal. Counteracting the original stimulus.

a)

Negative

b)

Positive

c)

Neutral

d)

Osmosis

29.
Homeostasis
a)
allows for a wildly fluctuating internal environment
b)
is impossible in vertebrates
c)

The Body’s Attempt to Adjust to a Fluctuating External Environment

d)

is the maintenance of an exact internal environment

30.

The two major body cavities are the _______ and __________.

a)

abdominal /pelvic

b)

ventral/dorsal

c)

cranial/vertebral

d)

thoracic/abdominal

31.

The ventral body cavity consists of

a)

the cranial and spinal cavities

b)

the thoracic cavity

c)

the cranial and abdominopelvic cavity

d)

the abdominopelvic and thoracic cavities

32.

Which body plane divides the body into equal left and right halves?

a)

sagittal

b)

mid sagittal

c)

coronal/frontal

d)

transverse

33.

Which of these is a function of the skeletal system?​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
movement
produce hormones
create sound
delivery of enzymes
34.

A function of the skeletal system is​ ​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
protection
communication
exocrine duct pathways
sweat
35.

A function of the skeletal system

a)

nervous system pathways

b)

exocrine pathways

c)

support

d)

hormone storage

36.

Hematopoiesis occurs in the ______bone marrow.

a)

red

b)

yellow

37.

The ends of a long bone

a)

diaphysis

b)

periosteum

c)

medullary cavity

d)

epiphysis

38.

The ‘shaft’ or middle of a long bone

a)

epiphysis

b)

medullary cavity

c)

diaphysis

d)

periosteum

39.

This structure covers the outside of a long bone

a)

epiphysis

b)

diaphysis

c)

periosteum

d)

yellow bone marrow

40.

Thin layer of cells lining the medullary cavities and the trabeculae of spongy bone inside the bone

a)

epiphysis

b)

diaphysis

c)

endosteum

d)

lacunae

41.

Hollow space within the diaphysis, which contains the yellow marrow

a)

medullary cavity

b)

caniculi

c)

osteons

d)

spongy bone

42.

Where bone increases in length in a long bone

a)

diaphysis

b)

periosteum

c)

epiphyseal plate

43.

Forms the central axis of the body & protects critical organs

a)

axial skeleton

b)

appendicular skeleton

44.

Function of the ______skeleton is movement.

a)

axial

b)

appendicular

45.

Bones are classified by their _____.

a)

size

b)

shape

c)

type of bone they mare made up of

d)

weight

46.
Bone forming cells are called...
a)
osteoblasts
b)
osteocytes
c)
osteoclasts
d)
osteons
47.
A mature bone cell is called a _________.
a)
osteon
b)
osteocyte
c)
osteoclast
d)
osteoblast
48.
What type of bone makes up the diaphysis?
a)
spongy bone
b)
compact bone
c)
rigid bone
d)
soft bone
49.

At which week after conception does ossification begin?

a)

week 3

b)

week 4

c)

week 5

d)

week 6

50.

Step 1 in the endochondral ossification process is:

a)

cartilage becomes bone

b)

bone becomes hardened

c)

blood vessels invade the cartilage cells

d)

cartilage template is formed

51.

During the second step of ossification the perichondrium becomes:

a)

condrocytes

b)

nutrient foramen

c)

periosteum

d)

hard

52.

During step 3 the blood vessels enter at the diaphysis and form the:

a)

cartilage template

b)

secondary ossification center

c)

primary ossification center

d)

nutrition center

53.

During step 4 the osteoclasts form the:

a)

nutrient foramen

b)

medullary cavity

c)

secondary ossification center

d)

growth plate

54.

Step 5 at the time of birth blood vessels enter__________and create the secondary ossification center.

a)

diaphysis

b)

epiphyses

c)

medullary cavity

d)

periosteum

55.

During the final step of ossification the only cartilage remaining in the bone is:

a)

the diaphyseal cartilage

b)

epiphyseal growth plates and the fibrocartilage

c)

the articular cartilage and the epiphyseal growth plates

d)

the epiphyseal growth plates and the endosteum

56.

Ossification of the diaphysis occurs from the:

a)

inside - out

b)

outside - in

57.

The skeletal system provides ___________ for fat, calcium (Ca) and phosphorus (P).

a)

movement

b)

support

c)

storage

d)

formation

58.

What are the two main types of bone tissue?

a)

Thick bone and thin bone

b)

Compact bone and spongy bone

c)

Dense bone and porous bone

d)

Hard bone and soft bone

59.

Where does calcium homeostasis happen?

a)

brain

b)

pancreas

c)

kidney

d)

liver

60.

What is the point of a feedback loop?

a)

To provide the body with more energy

b)

To provide the body with more food

c)

To make sure the conditions in the body are always changing

d)

To make sure the conditions in the body remain stable

61.

What type of feedback loop is the calcium feedback loop?

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

both, depending on what half of the loop you are looking at

62.

Immobile joints:

a)

Amphiarthrosis

b)

Synarthroses

c)

Diarthroses

63.

Limited-mobility joints:

a)

Synarthroses

b)

Amphiarthrosis

c)

Diarthroses 

64.

Freely moveable joints:

a)

Synarthroses

b)

Amphiarthrosis

c)

Diarthroses

65.

Allows rotation and the widest range of motion among all joints

a)

Gliding

b)

Ball and Socket

c)

Saddle

d)

Hingel

66.

A _________joint has surfaces that are flat or slightly curved that slide.

a)

gliding

b)

pivot

c)

ball and socket

d)

hingel

67.

The elbow , knee , and between phalanges joints are examples of _____joints.

a)

pivot

b)

ball and socket

c)

hinge

d)

gliding

68.

The axis/atlas joint is an example of a _____joint.

a)

saddle

b)

pivot

c)

ball and socket

d)

condyloid

69.

The thumb is an example of a _____joint.

a)

pivot

b)

hinge

c)

ball and socket

d)

saddle

70.

The anatomical names of the 3 joints are:

a)

fibrous

b)

cartilaginous

c)

synovial

d)

all of these

71.

There are ______types of synovial joints in the body.

a)

3

b)

8

c)

6

d)

2

72.

Match the following

a)

Fibrous Joint

1.

Immovable

b)

Cartilaginous Joint

2.

Slight movement

c)

Synovial Joint

3.

Freely moveable

73.

Skeletal muscle is:

a)

involuntary

b)

voluntary

74.

Skeletal Muscle has ______nuclei.

a)

No

b)

One

c)

many

75.

Skeletal muscle is:

a)

striated

b)

unstriated

76.

Has a centrally located nucleus

a)

smooth and skeletal

b)

cardiac and skeletal

c)

skeletal and smooth

d)

smooth and cardiac

77.

This muscle contracts slowly

a)

smooth

b)

cardiac

c)

skeletal

78.

Which myofilament shortens when a sarcomere contracts?

a)

Actin

b)

Myosin

c)

Both

d)

Neither

79.

Which myofilament is thick?

a)

Actin

b)

Myosin

c)

Both

d)

Neither

80.

Which myofilament has many heads to grab the other one?

a)

Actin

b)

Myosin

c)

Both

d)

Neither

81.

Which myofilament is attached to the Z line?

a)

Actin

b)

Myosin

c)

Both

d)

Neither

82.

Which myofilament has tropomyosin on it?

a)

Actin

b)

Myosin

c)

Both

d)

Neither

83.

Which myofilament has troponin on it?

a)

Actin

b)

Myosin

c)

Both

d)

Neither

84.

Which myofilament is powered by ATP?

a)

Actin

b)

Myosin

c)

Both

d)

Neither

85.

Which myofilament has two regulatory proteins on it?

a)

Actin

b)

Myosin

c)

Both

d)

Neither

86.

Which regulatory protein blocks myosin-binding sites on actin?

a)

Troponin

b)

Tropomyosin

c)

Neither

87.

Which regulatory protein blocks actin-binding sites on myosin?

a)

Troponin

b)

Tropomyosin

c)

Neither

88.

Which regulatory protein has a binding site for calcium ions?

a)

Troponin

b)

Tropomyosin

c)

Neither

89.

Which regulatory protein stiffens actin so that it can resist tension?

a)

Troponin

b)

Tropomyosin

c)

Neither

90.

What happens when calcium binds to troponin?

a)

It moves tropomyosin on top of the myosin-binding sites

b)

It moves tropomyosin off of the myosin-binding sites

c)

It moves tropomyosin to cover the actin-binding sites

d)

It moves tropomyosin off of the actin-binding sites

91.

Once the myosin-binding sites are uncovered, what does myosin need in order to power it to cock up and bind?

a)

Calcium

b)

Acetylcholine

c)

ATP

d)

Actin

92.

With ATP and calcium present, what is able to happen?

a)

Myosin can grab actin, shortening the sarcomere

b)

Actin can grab myosin, shortening the sarcomere

c)

Actin and myosin can shorten

93.

With ATP and calcium absent, what happens?

a)

Actin relaxes

b)

Actin contracts

c)

Myosin relaxes

d)

The sarcomere relaxes

94.

Why does the sarcomere relax when calcium is absent?

a)

The myosin heads release and go back down

b)

The actin heads release

c)

Troponin covers the myosin-binding sites

d)

Tropomyosin covers the myosin-binding sites

95.

What is the smallest unit of a muscle to contract?

a)

Sarcomere

b)

Myofibril

c)

Muscle fiber

d)

Myofilaments

96.

Which myofilament is thick?

a)

Myosin

b)

Collagen

c)

Elastin

d)

Acetylcholine

97.

Which myofilament pulls the other one when a muscle contracts?

a)

Actin pulls myosin

b)

Myosin pulls actin

98.

Connective tissue sheath that surrounds the entire muscle

a)

perimysium

b)

epimysium

c)

endomysium

d)

fascicle

99.

Bundle of muscle fibers

a)

fascicle

b)

epimysium

c)

perimysium

d)

tendon

100.

Connective tissue sheath that surrounds each fascicle

a)

tendon

b)

endomysium

c)

perimysium

d)

ligament

101.

Connective tissue sheath that surrounds each muscle fiber

a)

endomysium

b)

perimysium

c)

ectomysium

d)

sarcolemma

102.

Plasma membrane that around each muscle fiber

a)

actin

b)

myosin

c)

sarcolemma

d)

myofilament

103.

Long proteins that make up each muscle fiber

a)

fascicle

b)

myofibril

c)

tendon

d)

calcium

104.

Contacting unit of the muscle

a)

sarcomere

b)

tendon

c)

sarcolemma

d)

epimysium

105.

What is a crossbridge?

a)

Where myosin binds to actin

b)

Where the calcium crosses into the cytoplasm

c)

Where calcium binds with troponin

d)

Where titin and myosin are connected

106.

What does calcium do to the actin?

a)

Covers myosin binding sites

b)

Uncovers myosin binding sites

c)

Covers actin binding sites

d)

Uncovers actin binding sites

107.

What is the name of the protein that covers the binding sites on actin?

a)

Myosin

b)

Titin

c)

Troponin

d)

Tropomyosin

108.

What is the name of the protein that covers the binding sites on actin?

a)

Myosin

b)

Titin

c)

Troponin

d)

Tropomyosin

109.

What is the name of the place where a nerve meets a muscle fiber

a)

Nerve junction

b)

Neuromuscular junction

c)

Muscle junction

d)

Crossbridge

110.

How does the sarcomere shorten (contract) ?

a)

The myosin filaments contract

b)

The actin filaments contract

c)

The myosin is pulled by the actin

d)

The actin is pulled by the myosin

111.

What two chemicals are necessary for muscle contraction to occur?

a)

Niacin and Potassium

b)

Calcium and ATP

c)

Sodium and Potassium

d)

Acetylcholine and Potassium

112.

The neurotransmitter that signals muscle contraction is...

a)

Calcium

b)

Actin

c)

Myosin

d)

Ach (acetylcholine)

113.

Which of the following statements correctly explains the sliding filament model?

a)

Actin head attaches to a binding site on a myosin filament, forming a cross bridge.

b)

Myosin head attaches to a binding site on an actin filament, forming a neuromuscular junction.

c)

Actin head attaches to a binding site on a myosin filament, forming a neuromuscular junction.

d)

Myosin head attaches to a binding site on an actin filament, forming a cross bridge.

114.

Abduction

a)

movement of a limb in a circle

b)

movement of a limb toward the midline

c)

movement of a limb away from the midline

d)

turning a limb upward

115.

Movement of a limb toward the midline

a)

adduction

b)

abduction

c)

circumduction

d)

rotation

116.

Lack of muscle coordination during voluntary movements

a)

ataxia

b)

dyskinesia

c)

atonic

d)

atrophy

117.

Circular movement at the distal end of a limb

a)

dorsiflexion

b)

pronation

c)

circumduction

d)

ataxia

118.

Moving the foot up toward the ankle

a)

plantarflexion

b)

dorsiflexion

c)

rotation

d)

pronation

119.

Limp or without muscle tone

a)

origin

b)

prime mover

c)

flaccid

d)

myalgic

120.

A loss of muscle bulk in one or more muscles

a)

strain

b)

dyskinesia

c)

atrophy

d)

hypertrophy

121.

A general term for muscle disease

a)

strain

b)

myopathy

c)

sprain

d)

flaccid

122.

Cordlike, band of nonelastic fibrous connective tissue that attaches a muscle to a bone

a)

tendon

b)

ligament

c)

neuron

d)

antagonist

123.

Fibrous band that connects bone to bone

a)

prime mover

b)

tendon

c)

synergist

d)

ligament

124.

Sheet of connective tissue that acts as a muscle attachment

a)

neuron

b)

tonus

c)

aponeurosis

d)

synergist

125.

Inflammation of a tendon

a)

synergist

b)

strain

c)

tendinitis

d)

sprain

126.

The most important muscle that causes a movement; prime mover

a)

origin

b)

insertion

c)

agonist

d)

fixator

127.

Muscle attachment at the immovable bone

a)

insertion

b)

origin

128.

Muscle attachment to the movable bone

a)

insertion

b)

origin

129.

Cooperating action of certain muscles

a)

agonist

b)

insertion

c)

synergistic

d)

origin

130.

A lack of coordination of a muscle during movement, particularly gait(how you walk)

a)

synergistic

b)

ataxia

c)

agonist

d)

atagonist

131.

Bending a joint to decrease the angle of a joint

a)

extension

b)

flexion

c)

rotation

d)

adduction

132.

Straightening a joint to increase the angle of a joint

a)

flexion

b)

extension

c)

rotation

d)

circumduction

133.

The rotation is a single spinning movement around a fixed axis

a)

rotation

b)

flexion

c)

extension

d)

abduction

134.

An injury to a muscle

a)

strain

b)

sprain

135.

Which statement best describes one main function of the muscular system?

a)

It allows the body to move.

b)

It makes bones grow faster.

c)

It produces blood cells.

d)

It stores vitamins for later use.

136.

Which of the following is a function of the muscular system?

a)

Movement

b)

Support

c)

Protection

d)

Heat Generation

e)

All of the above

137.

The cortex of the brain is the_______ layer.

a)

inner

b)

outer

138.

The___________ of the brain is where choice making occurs.

a)

cerebellum

b)

cortex

c)

parietal lobe

d)

pons

139.

The structures that make up the CNS:

a)

Brain & Spinal Cord

b)

Cervical plexus & Thoracic Plexus

c)

Lumbar Plexus & Sciatic Nerve

d)

Peripheral Nerves

140.

Sorts out all the sensory impulses from the body

a)

Frontal Lobe

b)

Temporal Lobe

c)

3 Ventrical

d)

Thalamus

141.

Hypothalamus Controls:

a)

blood pressure, heart rate

body temperature, hunger

b)

digestive tract, pupil of the eyes,

thirst, sleep

c)

pain perception, pleasure, fear

d)

All of These

142.

Functions of the Nervous System:

a)

Receive information

b)

Process information

c)

Communicates the information

d)

All of these

143.

The pathways that carry messages to the brain are known as: afferent pathways

a)

efferent pathways

b)

afferent pathways

144.

This pathway carries messages from the brain to the body is the _______pathway.

a)

efferent

b)

afferent

145.

Voluntary movements are called:

a)

somatic

b)

autonomic

146.

Autonomic movements are:

a)

involuntary

b)

voluntary

147.

The Autonomic Nervous System is divided into two parts:

a)

sympathetic and parasympathetic

b)

voluntary and somatic

148.

Fight or Flight

a)

sympathetic

b)

parasympathetic

149.

Restores the body to a state of calm after a stressful event.

a)

sympathetic

b)

parasympathetic

150.

The dominate part of the Autonomic Nervous System

a)

sympathetic

b)

parasympathetic

151.

The _________ lobe is the OUTPUT center of the brain

a)

frontal

b)

parietal

c)

temporal

d)

occipital

152.

The _______lobe is the largest part of the brain.

a)

parietal

b)

temporal

c)

occipital

d)

frontal

153.

Our personality, morals and ethics, ability to form words for speaking, and skeletal muscle movements are all controlled by the________lobe.

a)

frontal

b)

parietal

c)

occipital

d)

temporal

154.

Understanding speech, recognition of objects, people, places, and events

and memory of events and outcome of choices are all controlled by the ______lobe.

a)

frontal

b)

occipital

c)

parietal

d)

temporal

155.

Controls coordination:

a)

parietal lobe

b)

cerebellum

c)

frontal lobe

d)

cervical plexus

156.

The brain stem controls:

a)

speech

b)

hearing

c)

heartbeat, breathing and blood pressure

d)

None of these

157.
Connects the left and right hemispheres of the brain
a)
Cerebellum
b)
Hypothalamus
c)
Medulla  Oblongata
d)
Corpus Callosum
158.
Carries messages between the body and the brain:
a)
cerebellum
b)
corpus callosum
c)
spinal cord
d)
special thalamus
159.

The nervous system

a)

detects changes in the internal or external environment

b)

integrates information from several sources and uses it to determine an appropriate response.

c)

controls the movement of muscles.

d)

all of the above.

160.
What is the largest part of the brain?
a)
Thalamus
b)
Cerebellum
c)
Spinal Cord
d)
Cerebrum
161.

Nerve fibers that carry impulses away from the central nervous system organs to effector organs (muscles and glands)

a)

motor

b)

somatic sensory

c)

visceral sensory

162.
Receives sensory information and relays it to the proper part of brain for further processing
a)
Hypothalamus
b)
Reticular Formation
c)
Cerebellum
d)
Thalamus
163.
The Medulla Obolongata controls our ___.
a)
Blood Pressure 
b)
Muscle Memory 
c)
Pain reaction
d)
Memory 
164.
What is this?
a)
Cerebrum
b)
Cerebellum
c)
Brain Stem
d)
Diencephalon
165.

This structure is involved in fear/panic response

a)

Cerebellum

b)

Hippocampus

c)

Amygdala

d)

Parietal Lobe

166.

What is this?

a)

Corpus callosum

b)

Medulla Oblongata

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Hypothalamus

167.
Controls behaviors (hunger, thirst, sleep, body temperature) through the release of hormones.
a)
hypothalamus
b)
thalamus
c)
adrenal glands
d)
pineal gland
168.
The frontal lobe controls
a)
memory, behavior, thinking
b)
memory, touch, movement 
c)
language, personality, thinking, memory
d)
movement, emotion, speech, smell, and personality
169.
The cerebellum controls
a)
breathing, coordination and balance
b)
balance, coordination and temperature
c)
coordination and balance
d)
heart rate and coordination
170.
After Greg's serious motorcycle accident, doctors detected damage to his cerebellum. Greg is most likely to have difficulty: 
a)
EXPERIENCING INTENSE EMOTIONS
b)
READING A BOOK
c)
PLAYING HIS GUITAR
d)
TASTING HIS FAVORITE FOODS
171.
The major part of the brain that controls higher mental activities such as learning and making decisions
a)
cerebellum
b)
cerebrum
c)
thalamus
d)
midbrain
172.

What are the ridges on the cerebrum called?

a)

Gyri

b)

Sulci

c)

Fissure

d)

White matter

173.

The _______ is an almond shaped structure in the brain's limbic system that encodes emotional messages to long-term storage.

a)

Hippocampus

b)

Amygdala

c)

Hypothalamus

d)

Cerebrum

174.

Which are the three parts of the brainstem?

a)

Midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata

b)

Frontal, parietal, and temporal

c)

Thalamus, hypothalamus, and pineal gland

d)

Cerebrum, cerebellum, and diencephalon

175.

What is the insulating membrane that surrounds parts of the axon that helps to speed up action potential?

a)

Axon

b)

Dendrites

c)

Node of Ranvier

d)

Myelin Sheath

176.
When a neuron is resting, the inside of the axon has a ____________ charge.
a)
positive
b)
negative
177.
A membrane potential becoming less negative is called
a)
hyperpolarization
b)
depolarization
c)
repolarization
d)
polarization
178.

An electrical impulse within a single neuron is called a

a)

synapse

b)

membrane potential

c)

action potential

d)

cell body

179.

What maintains the resting membrane potential in a neuron?

a)

sodium-potassium pumps

b)

sodium channels

c)

potassium channels

d)

gravity

180.

Which part of a neuron TRANSMITS an electrical impulse?

(a)  

181.

The electrical impulse that travels down the axon of a neuron is called

a)

action potential

b)

signal

c)

message

d)

none of these

182.

The difference in charge between the inside and outside of a cell is called:

a)

depolarization

b)

membrane potential

c)

resting state

d)

repolarization

183.

The sodium-potassium pump requires:

a)

water

b)

concentration gradient

c)

ATP

d)

calcium

184.

When an action potential travels down the axon it:

a)

ensures everything is the same

b)

reverses the charge from positive to negative

c)

reverses the charge from negative to positive

d)

none of these

185.

Functions of the Nervous System

a)

sensory input

integration (choice making)

motor output

b)

sensory input

motor output

c)

integration

output

d)

none of these

186.

Myelin sheath is the:

a)

insulating wrap around neurons

b)

covering of the brain

c)

only structure that is on a neuron

d)

all of these

187.

The___________ of the brain is where choice making occurs.

a)

cerebellum

b)

cortex

c)

parietal lobe

d)

pons

188.

There are ______ventricles of the brain.

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

189.

The central canal along with the ventricles are filled with:

a)

synovial fluid

b)

myelin sheath

c)

cerebral spinal fluid

d)

all of these

190.

The layers of protection for the brain are called:

a)

meninges

b)

myelin

c)

schwann

d)

CSF

191.

In order from outside to inside the meninges are:

a)

pia mater

arachnoid

dura mater

b)

arachnoid

pia mater

dura mater

c)

dura mater

arachnoid

pia mater

d)

pia mater

dura mater

arachnoid

192.

Hypothalamus Controls:

a)

blood pressure, heart rate

body temperature, hunger

b)

digestive tract, pupil of the eyes,

thirst, sleep

c)

pain perception, pleasure, fear

d)

All of These

193.

The pathways that carry messages to the brain are known as:

a)

efferent pathways

b)

afferent pathways

194.

Voluntary movements are called:

a)

somatic

b)

autonomic

195.

Autonomic movements are:

a)

involuntary

b)

voluntary

196.

The Autonomic Nervous System is divided into two parts:

a)

sympathetic and parasympathetic

b)

voluntary and somatic

197.

Fight or Flight

a)

sympathetic

b)

parasympathetic

198.

Restores the body to a state of calm after a stressful event.

a)

sympathetic

b)

parasympathetic

199.

Association or interneurons transmit impulses:

a)

outside the CNS

b)

Within the CNS

c)

outside of the spinal cord

200.

Long, slender fiber that transmits signals from the cell

body to the axon terminals in a neuron.

a)

dendrites

b)

cell body

c)

axon

201.
What is the central nervous system (CNS) made of?
a)
brain and spinal cord
b)
brain and cranial nerves
c)
spinal cord and spinal nerves
d)
cranial nerves and spinal nerves
202.

Nerve fibers that carry impulses away from the central nervous system organs to effector organs (muscles and glands)

a)

motor

b)

somatic sensory

c)

visceral sensory

203.

The cortex of the brain is the_______ layer.

a)

inner

b)

outer

204.

The pathways that carry messages to the brain are known as:

a)

efferent pathways

b)

afferent pathways

205.

This pathway carries messages from the brain to the body is the _______pathway.

a)

efferent

b)

afferent

206.

Our personality, morals and ethics, ability to form words for speaking, and skeletal muscle movements are all controlled by the________lobe.

a)

frontal

b)

parietal

c)

occipital

d)

temporal

207.
The Medulla Obolongata controls our ___.
a)

Breathing, heartbeat, blood pressure and swallowing.

b)
Muscle Memory 
c)
Pain reaction
d)
Memory 
208.
Controls behaviors (hunger, thirst, sleep, body temperature) through the release of hormones.
a)
hypothalamus
b)
thalamus
c)
adrenal glands
d)
pineal gland
209.
The major part of the brain that controls higher mental activities such as learning and making decisions
a)
cerebellum
b)
cerebrum
c)
thalamus
d)
midbrain
210.

When a neuron is at REST,

a)

the inside of the neuron is negatively charged compared to the outside.

b)

the inside of the neuron is positively charged compared to the outside.

c)

there is no charge difference established

d)

none of these is true

211.

_________helps the impulses travel faster down the axon of a neuron.

a)

boutons

b)

dendrites

c)

synaptic terminals

d)

myelin sheath

212.

Transmits impulses within the CNS between the sensory and motor neurons.

a)

bipolar neurons

b)

unipolar neurons

c)

interneurons/

association neurons

d)

none of these

213.

__________nerves ALWAYS go to the CNS

a)

motor

b)

sensory

214.

Outnumber neurons 10:1 and support, insulate, and protect neurons.

a)

neuroglial cells

b)

spinal nerves

c)

cranial nerves

215.

What are reflexes?

a)
Reflexes are voluntary actions that require thought.
b)
Reflexes are conscious decisions made by the brain.
c)
Reflexes are automatic responses to stimuli.
d)
Reflexes are learned behaviors over time.
216.

What is a rapid, predictable and involuntary response to a stimuli known as?

a)

reflex

b)

synapse

c)

neurotransmission

d)

electrochemical

217.

Carries sensory impulses to the brain and then carries the motor impulses to the muscles and glands.

a)

vertebrae

b)

spinal cord

c)

saltatory conduction

d)

none of these

218.

Over 70% of the sensory receptors in our body are in our:

a)

ears

b)

eyes

c)

hands

d)

nose

219.

2 types of photoreceptors:

a)
Rods and Cones
b)
Light and Sound
c)
Rays and Waves
d)
Bats and Mice
220.

Low light levels are produced by the:

a)

rods

b)

cones

221.

High light levels; capable of color vision

a)

rods

b)

cones

222.

Myopia

a)

nearsightedness

b)

farsightedness

223.

Hyperopia

a)

nearsightedness

b)

farsightedness

224.

Causes blurred or distorted vision at any distance

a)

myopia

b)

hyperopia

c)

astigmatism

225.

Receptors for both hearing and equilibrium are found in the:

a)

eye

b)

ear

c)

nose

d)

mouth

226.

Converting soundwaves (vibrations) into impulses the brain is how we:

a)

see

b)

hear

c)

taste

d)

smell

227.

A sense of balance is called:

a)

seeing

b)

hearing

c)

equilibrium

d)

tasting

228.

When sound vibrations can’t be properly conducted through the outer or middle ear it is called_______________hearing loss.

a)

conductive

b)

sensorineural

229.

______________ hearing loss involves damage to the inner ear or auditory nerve, preventing proper signal transmission to the brain

a)

conductive

b)

sensorineural

230.

The __________ apparatus is responsible for equilibrium

a)

vestibular

b)

discord

c)

neural

d)

ocular

231.

How does our vestibular apparatus detect motion?

a)

blood pools when we talk

b)

muscles bounce

c)

fluid & hair cells move as the head moves

232.

Chemical Senses are:

a)

Taste and Smell

b)

Vision and Hearing

c)

Hearing and Taste

d)

Vision and Smell

233.

Taste receptor cells called__________ cells for tasting foods.

a)

chemical

b)

gustatory

c)

beta

234.

On the tongue, taste buds are found within the ___________

a)

Papillae

b)

beta cells

c)

canals

235.

The primary tastes are:

a)

sweet, sour, salty, bitter, umami

b)

sweet, sour, salty,

c)

sweet and salty

d)

sweet and sour

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