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BANK SOAL AF MULTIPLE 2

Total questions: 84

Worksheet time: 4hrs 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

An FPL must be sent to the following addresses, except:

a)

FIR along the route

b)

ATS unit of alternate aerodrome

c)

Meteorological unit of destination aerodrome

d)

ATS unit of destination aerodrome

2.

A departure (DEP) message shall be addressed to:

a)

Meteorological office of destination aerodrome

b)

The whole FIR even though it doesn't go through

c)

ATFM unit of destination aerodrome

d)

All ATS units that received the previous FPL

3.

WAAFZQZA is AFTN address for ...

a)

Makasar ATS Reporting Office

b)

Makasar ATC System

c)

Makasar Flight Information Region

d)

Makasar Briefing Office

4.

The following are the responsibilities of the ATS Reporting Office (ARO), except:

a)

NOTAM publication

b)

validation Flifght Plan

c)

submitting Flight Plan

d)

submitting ATS message

5.

The following is the conventional route for aircraft that are not PBN-compliant, departing from WAHH to WADD:

a)

JOG DCT SO BA W45 SBR W33 BLI

b)

JOG DCT SO W17N PURWO DCT BA T3 RABOL BLI

c)

JOG DCT SO DCT BA T3 RABOL BLI

d)

JOG DCT PROGO T1 KIDUL BLI

6.

In a Flight Plan, what does 'PBN' stand for?"

a)

Preflight Bulletin Number

b)

Permitted Base Navigation

c)

Pilot Bulletin Number

d)

Performance Base Navigation

7.

What action must be taken if an aircraft change its destination aerodrome (Item 16) before departure?

a)

inform ATC about the change

b)

make reroute message

c)

Cancel existing FPL and advise the aircraft to submit a new FPL

d)

make modification message ( CHG )

8.

An AFTN teletypewriter message format shall comprise the following parts:

a)

Starting pulse, heading, address, origin, text, ending

b)

Heading, address,origin, text, ending.

c)

Address, origin, text, ending

d)

Address, origin, text ending with the exception of the message separation signal

9.

How many categories of messages are handled by the AFTN?

a)

21 messages

b)

10 messages

c)

6 messages

d)

8 messages

10.

Which of the following is a correct PBN route for a flight plan from WAHI to WAAA?

a)

DCT SO PURWO LASEM W52 SIPUT MKS

b)

DCT SO PURWO WAWAN T5 MKS

c)

DCT SO PURWO ANY LASEM W52 SIPUT MKS

d)

DCT SO BA LASEM WAWAN W52 SIPUT MKS

11.

In the Flight Plan format, the letters 'G' and 'R' in Item 10 (Equipment and Capabilities) indicate:

a)

G indicate PBN approved, R indicate RVSM approved

b)

G indicate GNSS approved, R indicate RVSM approved

c)

G indicate GNSS approved, R indicate PBN approved

d)

G indicate GBAS approved, R indicate PBN approved

12.

Which unit is responsible for validating unscheduled flight plan?

a)

ATFM Unit of aerodrome departure

b)

Briefing Office of aerodrome departure

c)

Centralized Flight Plan

d)

ATS Reporting Office of aerodrome departure

13.

The three-letter designator for an ATS Reporting Office is...

a)

ZQZ

b)

ZAZ

c)

YOY

d)

ZPZ

14.

The priority indicator for meteorological advice of immediate concern to an aircraft in flight is...

a)

SS

b)

FF

c)

DD

d)

GG

15.

A telecommunications service between specified fixed points, provided primarily for the safety of air navigation and for the regular, efficient, and economical operation of air services, is called...

a)

Aeronautical Fixed Station

b)

Aeronautical Fixed Telecomunication Network

c)

Aeronautical Fixed Service

d)

Aeronautical Mobile Service

16.

The following location indicators are tributary stations of the Yogyakarta Sub-Communication Centre, except:

a)

WAHL

b)

WARA

c)

WAHU

d)

WAHG

17.

The International Aeronautical Telecommunication Service comprises the following parts, except:

a)

aeronautical fixed service

b)

aeronautical mobile service

c)

aeronautical radio navigation service

d)

aeronautical information service

18.

Which one of the following messages has the highest priority indicator?

a)

DD

b)

FF

c)

KK

d)

SS

19.

B1353/22 NOTAMN

Q) WAAF/QCSAS/I/B/AE/000/999/0747S11026E999

A) WAHH B) 2207300000 C) 2207300500E) RADAR HEAD ON COOR 074707.00S1102633.00E U/S DUE TO MAINTRMK: ADS-B STILL AVBL

Based on the NOTAM above, the location is...

a)

WAAF

b)

WAAA

c)

WARR

d)

WAHH

20.

Look METAR message below!

METAR WAHH 0518S3Z 04011KT 1/2SM VCTS RN SHFG BKN003 OVC010 02/M01 A3006 RMK A02 TSB40 SLP176 P0002 T10171017

In the METAR above, VCTS stands for...

a)

Rain and Thunderstorm

b)

Thunderstorm on Vicinity

c)

Vicinity below minima and thunderstorm

d)

High intensity of thunderstorm

21.

The following are the objectives of Air Traffic Service, except

a)

Submitting Flight Plan to ATS Unit

b)

Prevent collision between aircraft

c)

Prevent collision between aircraft on the manouvering area and obstruction on that area

d)

Provide advice and information usefull for the safe and efficient conduct of flight

22.

In cases where the Actual Time of Departure (ATD) passes 0000 UTC (crosses midnight), the Date of Flight (DOF) shall refer to:

a)

FPL

b)

Current Date

c)

Pilot

d)

FOO

23.

The following are correct ATS routes for a Flight Plan from WAHH to WIHH, except:

a)

JOG W17 CLP W17S IMU DCT HLM

b)

JOG LILPO SO PURWO ANY KIDET IMU DCT HLM

c)

JOG W17 CLP W17 BND DCT HLM

d)

JOG SO PURWO ANY KIDET IMU DCT HLM

24.

Refer to the following FPL snippet:

(FPL-SJV936-IS

-A320/M-SDHIRWYZ/LB1

-.... etc.)

The meaning of the letter 'D' in Item 10a is:

a)

the aircraft has DVOR equiped

b)

the aircraft has DME equiped

c)

the aircraft has DVOR and DME equiped

d)

the aircraft has GNSS equiped

25.

The wake turbulence category 'Heavy' (H) indicates an aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off mass of:

a)

136.000 kg or more

b)

< 7000 kg

c)

7000 kg up to 136.000 kg

d)

120.000 kg up to 136.000 kg

26.

Who is responsible for the validity of the submitted flight plan?

a)

The Pilot/FOO who filled the FPL

b)

ATS Reporting Office

c)

Air Traffic Cobtroller on duty

d)

ATFM on duty

27.

The following are parts of the Flight Plan Supplementary Information, except:

a)

Endurance

b)

Pilot In Command

c)

Person on board

d)

Registration

28.

This symbols for Radio AID Navigation in Aeronautical charts indicate ...

a)

NDB

b)

VOR

c)

Compulsory Reporting Point

d)

ILS

29.

The types of flight listed in Field 8 of the Flight Plan include the following, except:

a)

Military

b)

Sceduled

c)

General

d)

Type of Aircraft

30.

What is the priority indicator of SNOWTAM?

a)

FF

b)

GG

c)

DD

d)

KK

31.

What is the priority indicator for a NOTAM?

a)

FF

b)

DD

c)

GG

d)

SS

32.

What is the maximum number of characters for Item 7 (Aircraft Identification)?

a)

5

b)

6

c)

7

d)

8

33.

What is the three-letter designator of a Flight Information Centre (FIC)

a)

ZTZ

b)

ZQZ

c)

ZPZ

d)

YOY

34.

The priority indicator for an urgency message is...

a)

SS

b)

FF

c)

DD

d)

GG

35.

The function of an SVC TRAF message is to...

a)

requesting traffic status

b)

provide some measure of assurance that channel is contuinity maintained

c)

All answer are correct

d)

testing and repairing lines

36.

How many characters shall an AFTN address consist of?

a)

21 Character

b)

10 Character

c)

6 Character

d)

8 Character

37.

Priority indicator for Meteorological Message is:

a)

GG

b)

FF

c)

DD

d)

KK

38.

What is the definition of flight rule 'Y' as specified in a Flight Plan?

a)

Flights initially operated under the IFR, followed by one or more subsequent changes of flight rules

b)

Flights initially operated under the VFR, followed by one or more subsequent changes of flight rules

c)

if it is intended that the entire flight will be operated under IFR

d)

if it is intended that the entire flight will be operated under VFR

39.

In a Flight Plan, what does PBN stand for?

a)

Preflight Bulletin Number

b)

Permited Based Navigation

c)

Pilot Bulletin Number

d)

Performance-Based Navigation

40.

According to Doc 4444-ATM, a flight plan shall be submitted no later than...

a)

120 hours prior to Estimated Of Block Time ( EOBT )

b)

24 hours prior to Estimated Of Block Time ( EOBT )

c)

120 minutes prior to Estimated Of Block Time ( EOBT )

d)

60 minutes prior to Estimated Of Block Time ( EOBT )

41.

AXM349 (WAHH to WMKK) uses the following ATS route : JOG W17N PW DCT CKG G579 REPOV G579 VJB A457 GUPTA DCT .

According to the route above, to which ACCs should the FPL be sent?

a)

WAAFZQZA WIIFZQZA WSSSZQZX WMKKZQZX

b)

WAAFZQZA WIIFZQZA WSJCZQZX WMKKZQZX

c)

WAAFZQZA WIIFZQZA WSJCZQZX WMFCZQZX

d)

WAAFZQZA WIIFZQZA WMKKZQZX

42.

The English Language Proficiency certificate (Level 4) required for an Aeronautical Communication Officer is valid for a maximum of...

a)

three years

b)

four years

c)

five years

d)

six years

43.

The character code used in the AFTN is...

a)

ITA-2 and IA-5

b)

ITA-2 and ITA-5

c)

ITA-5 and IA-3

d)

ITA-5 and ITA-3

44.

The third letter of the circuit identification identified:

a)


channel sequence number

b)

channel identification letter

c)

transmitting circuit

d)

receiving circuit

45.

Referring to the following FPL:

(FPL-CTV779-IS

-A320/M-SDE2E3GHIJ2M1RWY/LB1

-WAHI0830

-N0452F280 CLP W17S IMU

-WIII0057 WILL WIPP

-PBN/A1C1C2D1D2O1S1S2 DOF/251213 REG/PKGLV SEL/FRHQ OPR/CITILINK INDONESIA PER/C)

what is the meaning of the letter 'R' in Item 10a?

a)

a. the aircraft has PBN approved

b)

b. the aircraft has RVSM approved

c)

c. the aircraft has ADSB

d)

d. the aircraft has GNSS

46.

Abbreviated call signs shall be in the following form:

a)

the first character of the registration and at least the last two characters of the call sign

b)

the second character of the registration and at least the last two characters of the call sign

c)

the first and second character of the registration and at least the last two characters of the call sign

d)

the last two letters of the callsign

47.

If an aircraft fails to arrive within thirty minutes of the estimated time of arrival last notified to or estimated by air traffic services unit, the situation is classified as ...

a)

a. ALERFA

b)

b. DETRESFA

c)

c. INCERFA

d)

d. EMERGENCY

48.

Provisions relating to ATS direct speech communications are contained in :

a)

Chapter 6 of Annex 11

b)

Chapter 5 of Annex 11

c)

Chapter 6 of Annex 10.

d)

Chapter 5 of Annex 10.

49.

The international aeronautical telecommunication service shall be divided into four parts :

a)

AFS, AMS, AMHS, ABS

b)

AFS, ARNS, AFTN, AMS

c)

AFS, AMS, ARNS, ABS

d)

AMS, AMHS, AFTN, AFS

50.

Aeronautical administrative messages (priority indicator KK) shall comprise the following, except:

a)

messages regarding the operation or maintenance of facilities provided for the safety or regularity of aircraft operations;

b)

messages concerning the functioning of aeronautical telecommunication services;

c)

messages exchanged between civil aviation authorities relating to aeronautical services.

d)

messages concerning observations and reports, e.g. METAR, SPEC

51.

Flight safety messages (priority indicator FF) shall comprise the following items, except:

a)

messages concerning forecasts, e.g. terminal aerodrome forecasts (TAFs), area and route forecasts;

b)

movement and control messages as defined in PANS-ATM (Doc 4444), Chapter 11;

c)

messages originated by an aircraft operating agency of immediate concern to aircraft in flight or preparing to depart;

d)

meteorological messages restricted to SIGMET information, special air-reports, AIRMET messages, volcanic ash and tropical cyclone advisory information and amended forecasts.

52.

The heading shall comprise the following sequence in ITA-2:

a)

Starting pulse, start-of-message signal, transmission identification, spacing signal

b)

Starting pulse, start-of-message signal, transmission identification.

c)

Start-of-message signal, transmission identification, deversion indicator

d)

Start-of-message signal, transmission identification, additional service information and spacing signal

53.

The channel sequence number consists of three digits, ranging from...

a)

000 to 100

b)

001 to 100 (representing 1000)

c)

000 to 000 (representing 1000)

d)

001 to 100

54.

For the purpose of short-term retention, an AFTN communication center shall retain, a copy of all message, in their entirety (heading, origin, text, and ending) for a period of..... (Annex 10 vol 4.4.1.7)

a)

At last one hour

b)

One hour

c)

At least two hours

d)

Two hours

55.

Based on Civil Aviation Safety Regulation (CASR) Part 69, an applicant for an Aeronautical Communication Officer license shall be not less than ... years old.

a)

18

b)

17

c)

20

d)

25

56.

A publication issued by or with the authority of a State and containing aeronautical information of a lasting character essential to air navigation is defined as:

a)

Aeronautical information service (AIS)

b)

Aeronautical information publication (AIP)

c)

Aeronautical information circular (AIC)

d)

Aeronautical information regulation and control (AIRAC)

57.

What is the primary purpose of aviation safety regulations?

a)

to ensure the safety, security, and efficiency of the aviation

b)

To promote the use of air transport

c)

To increase the number of flights

d)

To reduce the cost of airline operation

58.

The regulations that allow a pilot to fly an aircraft using visual reference to the ground are called :

a)

Visual Flight Rules

b)

Flight Safety Regulation

c)

Instrument Flight Rules

d)

Civil Aviation Regulation

59.

What is the procedure if we receive a garble message?

a)

send SVC QTA RPT to previous station

b)

send SVC QTA RPT ORIGIN to previous station

c)

make correction message

d)

send SVC TRAF to previous station

60.

The priority alarm signal of a received message is shown by the following component of the message:

a)

Heading

b)

Address Line

c)

Origin Line

d)

Text

61.

In the Flight Plan format, the meaning of flight rule 'Z' is...

a)

if the flight initially will be operated under the IFR, followed by one or more subsequent changes if flight rules

b)

if the flight initially will be operated under the VFR, followed by one or more subsequent changes if flight rules

c)

if it is intended that the entire flight will be operated under IFR

d)

if it is intended that the entire flight will be operated under VFR

62.

The message format with priority indicator FF, from ATSRO Adisucipto to Yogyakarta Approach Control with Date-Time Group 280430, is as follows:

a)

FF WAHHZAZA

280430 WAHHYOYX

TEXT

b)

FF WAHHZAZA

280430 WAHHZPZX

TEXT

c)

FF WAHHZAZA

280430 WAHIZPZX

TEXT

d)

FF WAHHZPZX

280430 WAHHYFYX

TEXT

63.

What mode should be chosen when we want to create a collective address?

a)

Circuit + Individual Address

b)

Circuit + Channel

c)

Circuit + Member

d)

Predetermine Address + Member

64.

Why is the use of the ICAO Phonetic Alphabet critical in aviation?

a)

The phonetic alphabet ensures clear and unambiguous communication in aviation.

b)

It replaces the need for air traffic control communications.

c)

It helps pilots memorize their flight routes.

d)

It is used to determine the altitude of an aircraft.

65.

Why is it important for pilots to use standard communication procedures?

a)

To make the flight more entertaining for passengers.

b)

It is important for pilots to use standard communication procedures to ensure safety and clarity in communication.

c)

To allow pilots to communicate in any language they prefer.

d)

To reduce the workload of air traffic controllers.

66.

Who is responsible for ensuring the availability of data supply to the ATS-System?

a)

ATFM Unit

b)

Pilot In Command

c)

Flight Data Operator

d)

AMC

67.

To display all active NOTAMs within the Jakarta FIR on the Flight Data Display (FDD) of the ATS System, it can be done by :

a)

Click menu Notam - insert WIII at inbox FIR - click Search

b)

Click menu Notam - insert WIIZ at inbox FIR - click Search

c)

Click menu Notam - insert WIZZ at inbox FIR - click Search

d)

Click menu Notam - insert WIIF at inbox FIR - click Search

68.

To view the ATS message history on the Flight Data Display (FDD) of the ATS System, use the following menu:

a)

Message Editor

b)

Error Handling

c)

Message Log

d)

Sektor Inbox

69.

Aeronautical telecommunication service use Universal Co-ordinated Time (UTC), which consists of six figures:

a)

first four figures representing the hours and minutes and the last two figures the date of the month in UTC

b)

first two figures representing the date of the month and the last four figures the hours and minutes in UTC

c)

first four figures representing the years and the last two figures the date of the month in UTC

d)

first two figures representing the year and the last four figures the hours and minutes in UTC

70.

Aeronautical telecommunication log is ...

a)

A record of aircraft movement

b)

A record of the activities of an aeronautical telecommunication station

c)

A record of aircraft performance

d)

A record of meteorological message

71.

Message type designator of Alerting is :

a)

ALT

b)

ALS

c)

RCF

d)

ALR

72.

Priority indicator for Aeronautical administrative messages is ...

a)

SS

b)

DD

c)

KK

d)

GG

73.

The filing time of an origin in AFTN message shall comprise 6-digit date-time group, indicating...

a)

The date and time for transmission of the message

b)

The date and time for the message to be relayed

c)

The date and time for to be received

d)

The date and time of filling the message for transmission

74.

Point-to-point communication in the aeronautical telecommunication service is a part of...

a)

Aeronautical Mobile Service

b)

Aeronautical Fixed Service

c)

Aeronautical Radio Navigation Service

d)

Aeronautical Alerting Service

75.

The AFTN address indicator for an Aerodrome Control Tower is...

a)

ZTZX

b)

YSYX

c)

ZPZX

d)

ZQZX

76.

What is the wake turbulence category for an AT72 aircraft type?

a)

J

b)

L

c)

H

d)

M

77.

Item 19 (Supplementary Information) in the Filed Flight Plan (FPL) contains information regarding:

a)

Surveillance equipment and capabilities.

b)

Radio communication and Surveillance equipment and capabilities.

c)

Emergency and Survival Equipment

d)

Navigation and approach aid equipment

78.

A Flight Approval (FA) or Route Permit is not necessarily required for all of the following flight categories, except for:

a)

Calibration

b)

Military

c)

SAR

d)

Medical evacuation

79.

The letter 'S', which indicates standard equipment in Item 10a, shall comprise :

a)

ADF, ILS, VOR, VHF

b)

HF, VHF, ILS, VOR

c)

VOR, VHF, HF

d)

VHF, VOR, ILS

80.

Item 10a in the Filed Flight Plan (FPL) refers to:

a)

Navigation and approach aid equipment

b)

Radio communication and Surveillance equipment and capabilities.

c)

Surveillance equipment and capabilities.

d)

Radio communication, Navigation and approach aid equipment

81.

Aircraft Type and Wake Turbulence Category (WTC) are contained in :

a)

Doc.4444

b)

Doc.8585

c)

Doc.9643

d)

Doc.8643

82.

Aircraft operating on PBN RNAV 2 routes must be equipped with the following equipment and surveillance capabilities, except:

a)

GNSS (Global Navigation Satelite System)

b)

PBN (Performance Base Navigation)

c)

CPDLC (Controller-Pilot Data Link Communication)

d)

ADS-B (Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast)

83.

What are the requirements for fulfilling the minimum operational hours for the issuance of an AF Rating?

a)

180 (one hundred and eighty) Hours and/or 2 (two) months

b)

90 (ninety) Hours and Minimum 1 (one) month

c)

90 (ninety) Hours and Minimum 2 (one) month

d)

180 (one hundred and eighty) Hours and 2 (two) months

84.

What are the requirements for fulfilling the minimum hours to extend or maintain an AF Rating?

a)

40 (forty) Hours and Minimum 6 Months In the unit where the rating is submitted

b)

180 (one hundred and eighty) Hours and/or 2 (two) months

c)

90 (ninety) Hours and Minimum 1 (one) month in the unit where the rating is submitted

d)

B and C are true