Font size
WorksheetsQuiz 2
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 1hrs 5mins
Regarding Laron's Dwarfism,which statement is incorrect
A. It results from a primary defect in the growth hormone receptor at the post-receptor level
B. Circulating growth hormone concentrations are characteristically reduced
C. Hepatic synthesis and circulating levels of insulin-like growth factor-1 are decreased
D. Peripheral tissues demonstrate insensitivity to biologically active growth hormone
The most common cause of isolated growth hormone deficiency in children is:
A. Craniopharyngioma
B. Septo-optic dysplasia
C. Genetic mutation
D. Idiopathic
Regarding investigations in GH deficiency:1. Random GH estimation is reliable 2. IGF-1 levels are used for screening 3. IGFBP-3 is preferred in severe malnutrition 4. Insulin can be used as a provocative agent in GH estimation by stimulative testing 5. GH <10 ng/mL after stimulation is diagnostic .How many statements are correct
2 statements are correct
3 statements are correct
4 statements are correct
All correct
A 10-day-old neonate presents with poor feeding, prolonged jaundice, constipation, wide posterior fontanelle and hoarse cry. Thyroid gland is not palpable. The most likely etiology is:
A. Thyroid dyshormonogenesis
B. Maternal TSH receptor blocking antibodies
C. Thyroid dysgenesis
D. Central hypothyroidism
In congenital hypothyroidism, newborn screening is ideally performed by:
A. Cord blood TSH estimation
B. Serum T4 estimation at birth
C. Heel prick dried blood spot testing
D. Urinary iodine estimation
Regarding treatment of congenital hypothyroidism(How many statements are correct ):1. Oral levothyroxine therapy should be initiated at the earliest possible age, preferably within the first 2 weeks of life, to optimize neurodevelopmental outcome 2. The recommended initial dose of levothyroxine in neonates is 10–15 µg/kg/day 3. The primary therapeutic goal is rapid normalization and maintenance of serum free T4 in the upper half of the age-specific reference range, followed by normalization of TSH. 4. Treatment can be safely discontinued in all children after completion of 2 years of age.
Only 1 statement is correct
Only 2 statements are correct
Only 3 statements are correct
All correct
A 13-year-old boy presents with progressive weight gain, moon facies, truncal obesity, facial plethora and growth failure over the past 1 year. Blood pressure is persistently elevated. There is no history of exogenous steroid intake.Initial evaluation shows:Elevated 24-hour urinary free cortisol,Overnight low-dose dexamethasone suppression test: no suppression of morning serum cortisol.Further testing reveals:Plasma ACTH level: 60 pg/mL,High-dose dexamethasone suppression test: significant suppression of serum cortisol.Based on the above findings, the most likely diagnosis is
A. Adrenal adenoma causing ACTH-independent Cushing syndrome
B. Ectopic ACTH-secreting tumor
C. Adrenal carcinoma
D. Pituitary adenoma (Cushing disease)
Which of the following drugs is used for medical inhibition of adrenal steroidogenesis in the management of Cushing syndrome?
Adenosine
Letrozole
Ketoconazole
Hydrocortisone
A 6-year-old child presents with early-onset hypertension and ambiguous genitalia. The child has precocious puberty, acne, and accelerated growth with advanced bone age. Serum electrolytes reveal normal sodium and potassium levels. Hormonal evaluation shows elevated 11-deoxycorticosterone (DOC) and increased adrenal androgens, with low cortisol levels.What is the most likely diagnosis?
21 hydroxylase deficiency
11 Beta hydroxylase deficiency
17 alpha hydroxylase deficiency
3 beta HSD deficiency
A 15-year-old boy presents with absence of secondary sexual characteristics. He has not attained voice change or testicular enlargement. His height is below the 5th percentile for age. There is no history of chronic systemic illness.Hormonal evaluation reveals:Low LH, Low FSH, Low serum testosterone. Which of the following is the most likely cause of delayed puberty in this child?
A. Kallmann syndrome
B. McCune–Albright syndrome
C. 5-α-reductase deficiency
D. Hypothalamic hamartoma
Overall most common cause of delayed puberty is
Kallmann Syndrome
Androgen insensitivity syndrome
5 Alpha reductase deficiency
Constitutional delay in growth and puberty
A 7-year-old boy is brought with complaints of excessive weight gain and hyperphagia since early childhood. He has learning difficulties and short stature. On examination, the child has almond-shaped eyes, small hands and feet, and truncal obesity. Pubertal assessment reveals delayed puberty with small testes. There is a history of neonatal hypotonia. Genetic evaluation suggests a genomic imprinting disorder.What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Angelman syndrome
B. Prader–Willi syndrome
C. Fragile X syndrome
D. Holt oram syndrome
Which of the following statements regarding Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome is INCORRECT?
A. It is caused by mutation of the androgen receptor gene and is inherited as an X-linked recessive disorder.
B. Affected individuals have a 46,XY karyotype with phenotypically female external genitalia in the complete form.
C. Müllerian structures such as uterus and fallopian tubes are present due to failure of androgen action.
D. Pubic and axillary hair are sparse or absent, and undescended testes may present as inguinal masses.
The most common cause of central (gonadotropin-dependent) precocious puberty in girls is:
A. Hypothalamic hamartoma
B. CNS tumors
C. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
D. Idiopathic
Which of the following causes gonadotropin-independent precocious puberty due to autonomous estrogen production?
A. Hypothalamic hamartoma
B. Pituitary adenoma
C. McCune–Albright syndrome
D. Craniopharyngioma
Mark the correct statements for Mccune Albright Syndrome
autonomous endocrine hyperfunction of one or more of the following -Thyroid, pituitary, adrenal, ovary
Causes delayed puberty
Cafe au lait spots, spots do not cross midline
Coast of California appearance
Aromatase inhibitors like letrozole can be used for treatment
Which of the following is are cause of central (hypogonadotropic) hypogonadism?
A. Kallmann syndrome
B. Infiltrative disorders of the pituitary (e.g., histiocytosis)
C. Laurence–Moon–Bardet–Biedl syndrome
D. Turner syndrome
Which of the following statements are CORRECT for 21 hydroxylase deficiency
1. Deficiency of 21-hydroxylase leads to decreased aldosterone and cortisol production.
2. Hypertension is a characteristic feature due to excess mineralocorticoid activity.
3.Hyperpigmentation
4.Newborn screening :estimation of 17 hydroxy progesterone levels
5.Precocius puberty in males
Which of the following statements regarding acquired hypothyroidism in children are CORRECT?
1. Hashimoto thyroiditis is the most common cause and is mediated by autoimmune destruction of the thyroid gland.
2. It commonly presents in adolescent females with growth retardation as the earliest manifestation.
3. Thyroid function tests typically show ↓ T3, ↓ T4 and ↓ TSH.
4. Treatment consists of oral levothyroxine at a dose of 3–5 µg/kg/day, titrated according to TSH levels.
Recombinant Growth Hormone is used in
Turner Syndrome
Noonan Syndrome
CKD
Prader Willi Syndrome
In the screening evaluation of suspected isolated growth hormone deficiency, serum levels of which hormone/factor is measured?
(a)
Most common ectopic location of thyroid gland is
(a)
Salt wasting features are present,serum androgen levels are incraesed.There is deficiency of (a) enzyme
What is the ocular defect seen in Laurence–Moon–Bardet–Biedl syndrome?
(a)
A 6-year-old girl is brought with recurrent episodes of vaginal bleeding since the age of 3 years. There is breast development without pubic hair. Parents report rapid growth compared to peers. Examination reveals irregular café-au-lait skin patches with jagged (“coast of Maine”) borders over the trunk. She also complains of bone pain and has a history of multiple fractures. X-ray shows polyostotic fibrous dysplasia. Hormonal evaluation reveals low LH and FSH despite elevated estradiol levels.What is the most likely diagnosis?
(a)
Anatomical closure of ductus arteriosus occurs
soon after birth
7 days after birth
3 months after birth
10-21 days after birth
In fetal circulation, the lowest oxygen saturation is seen in which of the following structures?
A. Umbilical vein
B. Inferior vena cava
C. Left ventricle
D. Umbilical artery
A 3-month-old infant presents with poor feeding and failure to thrive. On examination, the child has upslanting palpebral fissures, flat facial profile, protruding tongue, single transverse palmar crease, and generalized hypotonia. Cardiac examination reveals a loud systolic murmur with signs of congestive heart failure. Karyotype analysis confirms trisomy 21.What is the most common congenital heart disease associated with this condition?
A. Ventricular septal defect
B. Tetralogy of Fallot
C. Patent ductus arteriosus
D. Atrioventricular septal defect (endocardial cushion defect)
Which of the following is not a minor NADA's criteria for CHD
Abnormal BP
Abnornam ECG
Abnormal S2
Systolic murmur of Grade 3
Which of the following is NOT an indication for surgical management of ventricular septal defect?
A. Unresolved congestive cardiac failure despite optimal medical management
B. Pulmonary to systemic blood flow ratio (Qp:Qs) more than 2:1
C. VSD associated with aortic regurgitation
D. VSD with Eisenmenger syndrome
A 6-year-old child presents with easy fatigability and recurrent respiratory infections. Cardiac examination reveals a wide, fixed split of the second heart sound. A diagnosis of atrial septal defect (ASD) is suspected.Which of the following investigations is most useful to differentiate ostium primum ASD from ostium secundum ASD?
Ostium primum ASD has Wide fixed split of S2 which is absent in secundum
X ray
ECG
Cardiac catherterisation
The site of maximal intensity of murmur in PDA is:
A. Right parasternal area
B. Apex
C. Left infraclavicular / left 2nd intercostal space
D. Left lower sternal border
A 10-year-old boy presents with easy fatigability, headache, and leg pain on exertion. On examination, his blood pressure is 150/95 mmHg in the upper limbs and 90/60 mmHg in the lower limbs. Femoral pulses are weak and delayed compared to radial pulses. A systolic murmur is heard over the left infraclavicular and interscapular region. Chest X-ray shows inferior rib notching.What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Patent ductus arteriosus
B. Aortic stenosis
C. Coarctation of aorta
D. Pulmonary artery stenosis
Which palliative shunt connects the ascending aorta to the right pulmonary artery?
A. Potts shunt
B. Waterston shunt
C. Blalock–Taussig shunt
D. Fontan Shunt
Box-shaped heart on chest X-ray is seen in:
A. Tetralogy of Fallot
B. Tricuspid atresia
C. Ebstein anomaly
D. Transposition of great arteries
Rashkind atrial septostomy is performed as an emergency palliative procedure in which of the following congenital heart diseases?
A. Tetralogy of Fallot
B. Tricuspid atresia
C. Transposition of great arteries with intact ventricular septum
D. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection
A newborn presents with early-onset cyanosis. Cardiac catheterization shows equal oxygen saturation in all four chambers of the heart with evidence of complete mixing of blood at the atrial level. There is no significant pressure gradient across pulmonary veins. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Transposition of great arteries
B. Tricuspid atresia
C. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (non-obstructive type)
D. Tetralogy of Fallot
Prostaglandin E₁ infusion is contraindicated in which of the following conditions?
A. Transposition of great arteries (TGA)
B. Ebstein anomaly
C. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
D. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) – infracardiac type
Which of the following is not a component of Trilogy of fallot
ASD
VSD
Pulmonary stenosis
Right Ventricular Hypertrophy
Regarding Ebstein anomaly, consider the following statements: 1. There is downward (apical) displacement of the septal leaflet of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. 2. Chest X-ray typically shows a box-shaped heart due to massive right atrial enlargement. 3. It is commonly associated with lithium exposure during pregnancy. 4. Pulmonary blood flow is increased, leading to plethoric lung fields on X-ray. Which of the following statements are correct
1,2,3
1,2,3,4
2,3,4
1,3,4
Regarding Acute Rheumatic Fever (ARF), consider the following statements:
1. Acute rheumatic fever is a post–Group A β-hemolytic streptococcal infection, usually following pharyngitis.
2. Elevated ASO titre is the preferred investigation to document preceding streptococcal infection.
3. In low-risk populations, monoarthritis is included as a major criterion of the modified Jones criteria.
4. Sydenham chorea and erythema marginatum are included under major criteria in ARF.
5. Diagnosis of the first episode of ARF requires three major criteria irrespective of evidence of streptococcal infection.
Regarding the major Jones criteria in Acute Rheumatic Fever, consider the following statements:
1. Carditis is the most common manifestation of acute rheumatic fever and may present as pancarditis.
2. Migratory arthritis typically involves large joints and shows an excellent response to aspirin with no residual joint damage.
3. Erythema marginatum is a common, pruritic rash involving the face and appears late in the disease course
4. Subcutaneous nodules are painless, occur over bony prominences, and are associated with a high risk of carditis.
5. Sydenham chorea is usually the earliest manifestation of acute rheumatic fever and resolves within a few days.
Which of the following drugs/interventions are used in the acute management of a Tet spell?
1. Oxygen inhalation
2.Morphine
3.Calcium Gluconate
4.Sodium Bicarbonate
5.Phenylephrine
A loud, continuous “machinery” murmur is characteristically heard in which of the following conditions?
A. Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
B. Rupture of sinus of Valsalva
C. Atrial septal defect (ASD)
D. Aortopulmonary window
Mark the correct pairs
Box shaped heart on chest X ray: TOF
Boot shaped heart of chest X ray :Ebstein anomaly
Snowman appearance on chest X ray :TAPVC
Egg on string appearance on Chest xay:TGA
A 6-year-old child presents with exertional dyspnea and recurrent respiratory infections. On examination, there is a pan-systolic murmur at the left lower sternal border. The child has upper limb skeletal abnormalities, including absent/thumb hypoplasia and radial ray defects. Family history reveals a similar cardiac condition in the father. Echocardiography shows an atrial septal defect (secundum type).What is the most likely diagnosis?
(a)
A 14-year-old girl is evaluated for short stature and failure to attain puberty. She has primary amenorrhea, poor breast development, and lack of secondary sexual characteristics. Physical examination shows a webbed neck, low posterior hairline, shield-shaped chest with widely spaced nipples, and cubitus valgus. She also has multiple pigmented nevi and lymphedema of hands and feet noted at birth. Her intelligence is normal.What is the most common cause of death in this condition?
(a)
Most common type of VSD is
(a)
Identify the Shunt surgery shown in image
(a)
Ebstein's anomaly is related to _ exposure in pregnancy
(a)
The most common underlying mechanism responsible for primary vesicoureteric reflux (VUR) is:
A. Increased bladder pressure during voiding
B. Short or absent submucosal ureteric tunnel
C. Urethral obstruction
D. Neurogenic bladder
In a midstream clean-catch urine sample, which of the following colony counts is considered significant bacteriuria for the diagnosis of urinary tract infection (UTI)?
A. ≥10³ CFU/mL
B. ≥10⁴ CFU/mL
C. ≥10⁵ CFU/mL
D. ≥10² CFU/mL
A 6-year-old boy with nephrotic syndrome has been on high-dose corticosteroids for 4 weeks. Despite adherence to therapy, he continues to have generalised oedema and persistent proteinuria. His urine protein: creatinine ratio remains >2, and he has not achieved remission. A kidney biopsy is planned. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?
A) Start oral cyclophosphamide for 8–12 weeks
B) Add mycophenolate mofetil to corticosteroid therapy
C) Initiate calcineurin inhibitor therapy (e.g., tacrolimus or cyclosporine)
D) Administer rituximab immediately
An 11 years diagnosed CKD secondary to renal hypoplasia. Upon reviewing the history you found that her height is significantly below the third percentile for her age. What is the most appropriate 1st step in the management of her growth retardation?
A) Immediate start of growth hormone therapy
B) Correction of metabolic acidosis and hyponatremia if present
C) Planning limb-lengthening surgery
D) Planning renal transplantation
An early marker of Mineral and Bone Disorder in CKD patients is?
A) Fall in 1,25-DHCC levels
B) Rise in FGF-23 levels
C) Fall in FGF-23 levels
D) Rise in PTH levels
A 4-year-old male child with a body weight of 15 kg and height of 100 cm is admitted with renal failure. His blood urea was 100 mg/dl, and serum creatinine was 1 mg/dl. What is the closest calculated eGFR in the patient?
A) 33 ml/min/1.73 m² BSA
B) 40 ml/min/1.73 m² BSA
C) 55 ml/min/1.73 m² BSA
D) 80 ml/min/1.73 m² BSA
A patient has an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 55 mL/min/1.73 m² persisting for more than 3 months. According to the staging of chronic kidney disease (CKD), this patient belongs to which stage?
A. G2
B. G3a
C. G3b
D. G4
Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) is classically characterized by which triad?
A. Hemolysis, thrombocytosis, renal failure
B. Hemolysis, thrombocytopenia, acute kidney injury
C. Hemolysis, leukocytosis, renal failure
D. Thrombocytopenia, anemia, liver failure
Which of the following peripheral smear findings is most characteristic of hemolytic uremic syndrome?
A. Target cells
B. Spherocytes
C. Schistocytes
D. Tear-drop cells
A 12 year old boy is being investigated for fatigue. A physical examination, including blood pressure, is normal. Blood results show: sodium 135 mmol/L, potassium 3.1 mmol/L, arterial pH 7.50, bicarbonate 35 mmol/L; 24-hour urine results: calcium 12 mmol/24 hrs (N < 7.5). What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Bartter’s syndrome
B. Gitelman’s syndrome
C. Liddle’s syndrome
D. Gordon syndrome
A 14-year-old boy presents with persistent hypertension detected on routine school screening. He has no edema and no family history of kidney disease, but his father had early-onset hypertension. Laboratory evaluation shows hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, low plasma renin activity, and low aldosterone levels. Renal function is normal.Which of the following drugs is most appropriate for treatment of this condition?
A. Spironolactone
B. Furosemide
C. Amiloride
D. Hydrochlorothiazide
An 18-year-old man presents 2 days after an upper respiratory tract infection, with rise in creatinine from 0.9 to 1.6 mg/dL. The patient’s urinalysis reveals 2+ blood and 2+ protein. C3 and C4 are normal. ANCA and anti-GBM antibodies are negative. What is the likely diagnosis?
A. Alport syndrome
B. Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
C. IgA nephropathy
D. Granulomatous polyangiitis
A 13-year-old male presents with hemoptysis. Urinalysis shows hematuria with red cell casts and mild proteinuria. P-ANCA testing is positive. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
B. Microscopic polyangiitis
C. Goodpasture’s syndrome
D. Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis
A 16-year-old boy presents with recurrent painless hematuria detected on routine screening. He has a history of progressive hearing difficulty, especially for high-frequency sounds. Ophthalmologic examination reveals anterior lenticonus. Family history reveals that his maternal uncle had early-onset chronic kidney disease. Renal biopsy shows irregular thickening and thinning of the glomerular basement membrane with a basket-weave appearance on electron microscopy.What is the most likely diagnosis
FSGS
Berger's disease
Membranoous nephropathy
Alport Syndrome
All are true regarding childhood nephrotic syndrome except?
A) Hypertension is relatively uncommon compared to nephritic syndrome
B) Minimal change disease is common in children <10 years
C) Massive proteinuria is often seen
D) Low complement levels can occur
Which of the following statements regarding Fanconi syndrome are correct?
1. It is characterized by generalized proximal tubular dysfunction.
2. Patients typically develop normal anion gap (hyperchloremic) metabolic acidosis.
3. Glycosuria occurs despite normal blood glucose levels.
4. It is associated with metabolic alkalosis due to distal tubular defect.
5. Serum phosphate levels are usually increased due to reduced renal excretion
Which of the following statements regarding Alport syndrome are correct?
1. It is most commonly inherited as an X-linked dominant disorder.
2. The genetic defect commonly involves the COL4A5 gene encoding the α5 chain of type IV collagen.
3. Anterior lenticonus is a characteristic and diagnostic ocular finding.
4. Renal biopsy shows immune complex deposition with granular IgG along the GBM.
5. Patients often develop high-frequency sensorineural hearing loss.
Calcineurin inhibitors used in steroid resistant Nephrotic Syndrome are
Levamisole
mycophenolate
cyclosporine
tacrolimus
genes involved in congenital nephrotic syndrome
NPHS 1
WT 1
WT 2
LMX1B
SMARCAL 1
Which of the following statements regarding post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis are correct?
1. PSGN is an immune complex–mediated (Type III hypersensitivity) disorder following Group A β-hemolytic streptococcal infection.
2. Latency period is typically 1–2 weeks after pharyngitis and 3–6 weeks after pyoderma.
3. Serum C3 levels are reduced and usually normalize within 8–12 weeks.
4. Renal biopsy on electron microscopy shows subepithelial “hump-shaped” immune complex deposits.
5. Prophylactic antibiotics prevent the development of PSGN in patients with streptococcal infection.
Most common organism causing UTI in children
(a)
Inheritance pattern of Liddle Syndrome
(a)
NPHS 1 gene codes for which protein
(a)
Good Pasture Syndrome is Type _ hypersensitivity reaction
(a)
The infection most commonly associated with FSGS (Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis) is:
(a)
Which of the following is not an essential medication for acute asthma exacerbations?
A) Montelukast
B) Albuterol
C) Prednisolone
D) Ipratropium
A 5-year-old girl with a family history of bronchial asthma presents to the emergency department with a history of difficulty in breathing. She is sitting, not talking, and looks very anxious. Her oxygen saturation on 5 L of oxygen via a face mask is <90%. She is using accessory muscles and has no audible wheeze. She is a known asthmatic. She was playing outside when her mother found her crying with very shallow breathing. The mother administered 10 puffs of salbutamol via spacer before bringing her to the hospital. Which of the following will be effective in this condition?
A) Give nebulized salbutamol
B) Intravenous hydrocortisone
C) Intravenous magnesium sulphate can be considered
) All of the above
Which of the following is the most common location of aspirated foreign bodies going into the lower airway in children?
A) Left lower bronchus
B) Left main bronchus
C) Right main bronchus
D) Trachea
Involvement of the lungs in cystic fibrosis can be any of the following except:
pneumothorax
bronchiectasis
bronchitis
alveolitis
Which among the following is/are true statements regarding sweat and pancreatic secretions chloride levels in Cystic Fibrosis? 1. Chloride excretion is increased in sweat 2. Chloride excretion is decreased in sweat 3. Chloride concentration is increased in pancreatic secretions 4. Chloride concentration is decreased in pancreatic secretions
A) Only 1 is correct
B) 2 and 3 are correct
C) 1 and 3 are correct
D) 1 and 4 are correct
A 7-year-old girl is admitted to the hospital in respiratory distress due to pneumonia. This is her third admission in the past 6 months. At this time, you are suspecting cystic fibrosis (CF) and order a sputum culture. Which organism would be most consistent with a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis?
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D) Bacillus cereus
A child is a known case of VSD with corrective surgery planned after 3 months. He had one episode of severe bronchiolitis last year requiring hospitalization. Now, there is another outbreak of RSV infection in the community. What prophylactic agent would you consider in this child?
A) Palivizumab
B) Ribavirin
C)Reculizumab
D)Benralizumab
Most common pathogen responsible for acute bacterial tracheitis is:
A) Influenza virus
B) Parainfluenza virus
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Streptococcus pyogenes
X-ray finding classically seen in croup is:
A. Thumb sign
B. Ground glass appearance
C. Steeple (inverted V) sign
D. Air bronchogram
In mild croup, the recommended treatment is:
A. IV antibiotics
B. Nebulized racemic epinephrine
C. Oral dexamethasone
D. Endotracheal intubation
Which triad (3 D’s) is classically seen in acute epiglottitis?
A. Dyspnea, Drooling, Dysphagia
B. Drooling, Diarrhea, Dyspnea
C. Dysphonia, Drooling, Dyspnea
D. Dysphagia, Dyspnea, Dehydration
Which of the following statements regarding Acute Bronchiolitis is INCORRECT?
A. Most commonly occurs in infants below 2 years of age, with peak incidence at 3–6 months.
B. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) type A causes more severe disease than type B.
C. Chest X-ray commonly shows bilateral hyperinflation and peribronchial cuffing.
D. Bronchodilators are routinely recommended and form the mainstay of treatment.
A 4-year-old child presents in winter with high-grade fever, cough, and respiratory distress. Chest X-ray shows homogeneous lobar consolidation. On examination, there is bronchial breathing, dull note on percussion, and rusty sputum.Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line antibiotic?
A. IV ceftriaxone
B. IV vancomycin
C. IV penicillin G
D. Oral amoxicillin–clavulanate
Which of the following radiological findings is pathognomonic for staphylococcal pneumonia in children?
A. Lobar consolidation
B. Bilateral hyperinflation
C. Pneumatocele
D. Pleural effusion
The drug of choice for long-term control of persistent asthma in children is:
A. Short-acting β₂ agonist
B. Oral theophylline
C. Inhaled corticosteroids
D. Leukotriene receptor antagonists
9-year-old school-going child presents with 5 days of persistent dry cough and low-grade fever. The child appears relatively well, with no toxic look. On examination, there are scattered crepitations over both lung fields. There is no lobar consolidation clinically, but the chest X-ray shows more extensive interstitial infiltrates than expected from clinical findings. Laboratory evaluation reveals mild anemia, and a cold agglutination test is positive, suggesting immune-mediated hemolysis. The child has no significant past medical history and no response to beta-lactam antibiotics.What is the most common causative organism responsible for this presentation?
(a)
A 2-year-old child is brought with high-grade fever, toxic appearance, and rapidly worsening respiratory distress. The illness started after a recent measles-like febrile illness. On examination, there are bilateral coarse crepitations, and signs of pleural involvement. Chest X-ray reveals bilateral patchy areas of consolidation with pus, along with the presence of air-filled cystic spaces (pneumatoceles). During hospitalization, the child develops sudden respiratory worsening suggestive of pneumothorax.What is the causative organism responsible for this presentation?
(a)
Anti viral used in at-risk infants in acute bronchiolitis
(a)
Acute laryngo tracheo bronchitis is also called as
(a)
Monoclonal Ab against IL-5 used in asthma
(a)
Which of the following are side effects of β₂-agonists (e.g., salbutamol)?
1. Bradycardia
2. Tremors
3. Hypokalemia
4. Hypoglycemia
Mark the correct pairs
Omalizumab: Anti IgE
Mepolizumab:Anti IL-4
Dupilumab:Anti IL-5
Tezepelumab-Anti TSLP
Which of the following drugs used in the management of asthma can be given by the inhalational route?
a. Salbutamol
b. Ipratropium
c. Theophylline
d. Budesonide
Which of the following statements regarding croup (acute laryngotracheobronchitis) are CORRECT
A. It is most commonly caused by parainfluenza virus
B. Peak age of presentation is around 2 years
C. Stridor at rest with normal SpO₂ suggests moderate croup
D. Chest X-ray shows thumb sign
E. Nebulized racemic epinephrine reduces airway edema by acting on pre-capillary arterioles
Which of the following statements regarding laryngomalacia are CORRECT?
A. It is the most common congenital malformation of the larynx
B. Stridor typically appears soon after birth or within the first few weeks of life
C. Stridor is biphasic and shows no positional variation
D.omega shaped epiglottis
