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Human Anaphy - Reproductive System and Meiosis

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the function of gametes in the reproductive system?

a)

Production of gametes is essential for fertilization and the development of a new individual.

b)

Gametes help in the digestion of food in the reproductive system.

c)

Gametes are responsible for the circulation of blood in the reproductive system.

d)

Gametes provide structural support to reproductive organs.

2.

Define chromosome.

a)

A chromosome is a thread-like structure of DNA that carries genetic information in the form of genes.

b)

A chromosome is a type of protein that helps in digestion.

c)

A chromosome is a cell organelle responsible for energy production.

d)

A chromosome is a liquid found in the nucleus of a cell.

3.

What is a chromatid?

a)

One of the two identical halves of a chromosome that has been replicated in preparation for cell division.

b)

A type of cell found only in plants.

c)

A structure that carries oxygen in the blood.

d)

A protein that helps in muscle contraction.

4.

What does the centromere do?

a)

Connects 2 sister chromatids.

b)

Initiates cell division.

c)

Synthesizes proteins.

d)

Stores genetic information.

5.

Homologous pairs are:

a)

Pairs of chromosomes that are of a similar length and that have a similar gene positioning.

b)

Pairs of chromosomes that are identical in every way.

c)

Pairs of chromosomes that are always inherited together.

d)

Pairs of chromosomes that have no genes in common.

6.

What is the function of spindle fibers during cell division?

a)

Protein structures that pull apart the genetic material in a cell when the cell divides.

b)

Structures that synthesize proteins during cell division.

c)

Organelles that store energy for cell division.

d)

Fibers that transport nutrients across the cell membrane during division.

7.

What is synapsis?

a)

Pairing of homologous chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis I.

b)

Separation of sister chromatids during anaphase II of meiosis II.

c)

Formation of spindle fibers during metaphase.

d)

Replication of DNA during interphase.

8.

Chiasmata is the point at which two homologous non-sister chromatids exchange genetic material.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

What is crossing over?

a)

Points where homologues cross over and exchange genetic material.

b)

A process where cells divide without genetic exchange.

c)

A stage in mitosis where chromosomes align at the center.

d)

A method of asexual reproduction in plants.

10.

Match the following terms to their definitions:

a)

Thread-like structure of DNA that carries genetic information

1.

Chromosome

b)

One of the two identical halves of a chromosome

2.

Chromatid

c)

Connects 2 sister chromatids

3.

Centromere

d)

Pairs of chromosomes of similar length and gene positioning

4.

Homologous Pair

e)

Protein structures that pull apart genetic material

5.

Spindle Fiber

11.

List the steps of Meiosis I in order.

a)

1. Prophase I, 2. Metaphase I, 3. Anaphase I, 4. Telophase I, 5. Cytokinesis

b)

1. Metaphase I, 2. Prophase I, 3. Anaphase I, 4. Telophase I, 5. Cytokinesis

c)

1. Prophase I, 2. Anaphase I, 3. Metaphase I, 4. Telophase I, 5. Cytokinesis

d)

1. Prophase I, 2. Metaphase I, 3. Telophase I, 4. Anaphase I, 5. Cytokinesis

12.

During which phase of Meiosis I do homologous chromosomes pair up and crossing-over occurs?

a)

Prophase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Telophase I

13.

In which phase do homologous chromosome pairs line up side by side at the equator?

a)

Metaphase I

b)

Prophase I

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Telophase I

14.

During which phase are homologous chromosomes pulled to opposite poles?

a)

Anaphase I

b)

Metaphase II

c)

Telophase I

d)

Prophase I

15.

What happens during Telophase I of meiosis?

a)

Chromosomes reach the poles and nuclear membranes may re-form.

b)

Chromosomes line up at the equator of the cell.

c)

Sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles.

d)

The cell undergoes DNA replication.

16.

What is the result of cytokinesis in meiosis I?

a)

Cell divides into two haploid cells, each with half the chromosome number, but chromosomes are still duplicated.

b)

Cell divides into two diploid cells, each with a full set of chromosomes.

c)

Cell divides into four haploid cells, each with unduplicated chromosomes.

d)

Cell divides into two haploid cells, each with unduplicated chromosomes.

17.

What is the process called where chromosomes condense again and spindle fibers form in each of the two haploid cells during meiosis II?

a)

Prophase II

b)

Metaphase II

c)

Anaphase II

d)

Telophase II

18.

During meiosis II, at which stage do chromosomes (still with two sister chromatids) line up at the equator?

a)

Metaphase II

b)

Prophase II

c)

Anaphase II

d)

Telophase II

19.

During meiosis II, sister chromatids finally separate and move to opposite poles. What is this stage called?

a)

Anaphase II

b)

Prophase II

c)

Metaphase II

d)

Telophase II

20.

During meiosis II, chromatids (now individual chromosomes) reach the poles and nuclear membranes reform. What is this stage called?

a)

Telophase II

b)

Prophase II

c)

Metaphase II

d)

Anaphase II

21.

Both cells divide to form four genetically unique haploid daughter cells. What is this process called?

a)

Cytokinesis

b)

Mitosis

c)

Binary fission

d)

Meiosis

22.

What is the union of sperm and oocyte called?

a)

Fertilization

b)

Mitosis

c)

Ovulation

d)

Implantation

23.

A fertilized oocyte is called a:

a)

Zygote

b)

Embryo

c)

Blastocyst

d)

Ovum

24.

How many days after fertilization does a zygote develop into an embryo?

a)

3 to 14 days

b)

1 to 2 days

c)

15 to 28 days

d)

30 to 40 days

e)

50 to 60 days

25.

Label the major reproductive organs in the diagram of the human reproductive system (female and male).

a)

Female: Infundibulum, Fimbriae, Ovary, Uterus, Endometrium, Myometrium, Cervix, Cervical canal, Vagina. Male: Urinary bladder, Prostate gland, Bulbourethral gland, Epididymis, Testis, Vas deferens, Urethra, Corpus cavernosum, Corpus spongiosum, Glans of penis.

b)

Female: Pancreas, Liver, Ovary, Uterus, Endometrium, Myometrium, Cervix, Cervical canal, Vagina. Male: Urinary bladder, Prostate gland, Bulbourethral gland, Epididymis, Testis, Vas deferens, Urethra, Corpus cavernosum, Corpus spongiosum, Glans of penis.

c)

Female: Infundibulum, Fimbriae, Ovary, Uterus, Endometrium, Myometrium, Cervix, Cervical canal, Vagina. Male: Kidney, Prostate gland, Bulbourethral gland, Epididymis, Testis, Vas deferens, Urethra, Corpus cavernosum, Corpus spongiosum, Glans of penis.

d)

Female: Infundibulum, Fimbriae, Ovary, Uterus, Endometrium, Myometrium, Cervix, Cervical canal, Vagina. Male: Urinary bladder, Prostate gland, Bulbourethral gland, Epididymis, Testis, Vas deferens, Urethra, Corpus cavernosum, Corpus spongiosum, Head of penis.

26.

Which of the following is NOT an accessory gland of the male reproductive system?

a)

Seminal Vesicles

b)

Prostate Glands

c)

Bulbourethral gland

d)

Ovary

27.

Which ducts are part of the male reproductive system? Select all that apply.

a)

A. Epididymis

b)

B. Ducta Deferens

c)

C. Urethra

d)

D. Fallopian tube

28.

The scrotum and penis are supporting structures of the male reproductive system.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

What is the structure of the scrotum?

a)

Tube-like organ

b)

Saclike that contains testes

c)

Glandular tissue

d)

Muscular wall

30.

Which muscle is responsible for moving the scrotum and testes close to and away from the body depending on temperature?

a)

Dartos muscle

b)

Cremaster muscle

c)

Interstitial muscle

d)

Sustentacular muscle

31.

Fill in the blank: The primary male reproductive organ is the ________.

a)

testis

b)

ovary

c)

uterus

d)

prostate

32.

Which cells secrete testosterone?

a)

Sertoli cells

b)

Interstitial cells

c)

Germ cells

d)

Spermatogonia

33.

What is the function of Sertoli cells?

a)

Nourish germ cells and produce hormones

b)

Transport oxygen in blood

c)

Initiate muscle contraction

d)

Store genetic information

34.

Spermatogenesis begins in males at what age range?

a)

5-7 years old

b)

12-14 years old

c)

18-20 years old

d)

25-30 years old

35.

List the correct order of sperm cell production:

a)

1. Germ Cells, 2. Spermatogonia, 3. Primary Spermatocytes, 4. Secondary Spermatocytes, 5. Spermatids, 6. Sperm Cells

b)

1. Spermatogonia, 2. Germ Cells, 3. Primary Spermatocytes, 4. Secondary Spermatocytes, 5. Spermatids, 6. Sperm Cells

c)

1. Germ Cells, 2. Primary Spermatocytes, 3. Spermatogonia, 4. Secondary Spermatocytes, 5. Spermatids, 6. Sperm Cells

d)

1. Germ Cells, 2. Spermatogonia, 3. Secondary Spermatocytes, 4. Primary Spermatocytes, 5. Spermatids, 6. Sperm Cells

36.

Each testis consists of 250 cone-shaped lobules.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

What happens to the dartos and cremaster muscles when temperature increases (e.g., during exercise or fever)?

a)

They relax.

b)

They contract.

c)

They become rigid.

d)

They swell up.

38.

Approximately how many days does it take for sperm cells to be produced?

a)

Approximately 74 days

b)

Approximately 30 days

c)

Approximately 100 days

d)

Approximately 50 days

39.

Which part of the sperm cell contains the nucleus and DNA?

a)

Head

b)

Midpiece

c)

Tail

d)

Basal body

40.

What is the main function of the midpiece of a sperm cell?

a)

Contains DNA

b)

Contains mitochondria

c)

Provides structural support

d)

Movement

41.

Fill in the blank: The ________ is the flagellum for movement in the sperm cell.

a)

Tail

b)

Head

c)

Midpiece

d)

Acrosome

42.

Match the following sperm cell parts with their functions:

a)

Contains mitochondria

1.

B

b)

Contains nucleus and DNA

2.

A

c)

Flagellum for movement

3.

C

43.

Which duct is responsible for receiving new sperm from the seminiferous tubule and is the site of sperm maturation and development?

a)

Vas deferens

b)

Epididymis

c)

Urethra

d)

Seminal vesicle

44.

The vas deferens carries sperm from the testis into the body cavity of the male through peristaltic waves.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

Fill in the blank: The structure of the vas deferens is approximately ______ cm long.

a)

45

b)

20

c)

60

d)

10

46.

What is the process called where final changes in sperm cells occur during ejaculation of semen into the vagina?

a)

Capacitation

b)

Fertilization

c)

Implantation

d)

Ovulation

47.

What are the components of the spermatic cord?

a)

Ductus deferens, Testicular artery and veins, Lymphatic vessels, Testicular nerves

b)

Seminal vesicle, Prostate gland, Bulbourethral gland, Epididymis

c)

Vas deferens, Urethra, Penis, Scrotum

d)

Epididymis, Seminal vesicle, Prostate gland, Urethra

48.

What is the function of the seminal vesicle?

a)

Secretes fluid that contributes to semen

b)

Produces testosterone

c)

Stores sperm

d)

Initiates ejaculation

49.

The structure of the seminal vesicle is described as:

a)

Tube-shaped

b)

Sac-shaped

c)

Spherical

d)

Flat

50.

What is the pathway of the ejaculatory duct?

a)

Passes through the prostate gland and opens into the urethra

b)

Passes through the seminal vesicle and opens into the bladder

c)

Passes through the vas deferens and opens into the rectum

d)

Passes through the epididymis and opens into the ureter

51.

The urethra is divided into which three parts?

a)

Prostatic urethra, Membranous urethra, Spongy urethra

b)

Renal pelvis, Ureter, Bladder

c)

Corpus cavernosum, Corpus spongiosum, Glans penis

d)

Seminal vesicle, Ejaculatory duct, Vas deferens

52.

What is the main function of the penis?

a)

For copulation and functions in the transfer of sperm cells from the male to the female.

b)

For digestion of food.

c)

For pumping blood throughout the body.

d)

For filtering waste from the blood.

53.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the penis?

a)

Excretes urine

b)

Secretes hormones

c)

Transfers sperm cells

d)

Forms a cap at the distal end

54.

Name the three erectile tissues found in the penis.

a)

(2) corpus cavernosum/sa, (1) corpus spongiosum, (1) spongy urethra

b)

(2) corpus spongiosum, (1) corpus cavernosum, (1) spongy urethra

c)

(2) corpus cavernosum/sa, (1) spongy urethra, (1) corpus spongiosum

d)

(3) corpus cavernosum, (1) spongy urethra, (1) corpus spongiosum

55.

What causes the penis to enlarge and become firm during erection?

a)

Engorgement of erectile tissue with blood

b)

Contraction of the urethra

c)

Increase in body temperature

d)

Release of hormones into the bloodstream

56.

Match the following anatomical terms with their correct diagram labels:

a)

Corpus cavernosum

1.

labeled in cross-section and anterior view diagrams

b)

Corpus spongiosum

2.

labeled in cross-section and sagittal section diagrams

c)

Urethra

3.

labeled in cross-section and sagittal section diagrams

d)

Dorsal artery

4.

labeled in anterior view diagram

e)

Dorsal nerve

5.

labeled in anterior view diagram

57.

What is the function of the prepuce/foreskin?

a)

Covers the glans penis

b)

Produces sperm

c)

Regulates urine flow

d)

Controls erection

58.

What is the surgical removal of the prepuce called?

a)

Circumcision

b)

Appendectomy

c)

Lobectomy

d)

Mastectomy

59.

Which gland surrounds the urethra and consists of capsule and partitions?

a)

Prostate gland

b)

Thyroid gland

c)

Adrenal gland

d)

Pituitary gland

60.

What does prostatic fluid carry during ejaculation?

a)

Sperm

b)

Eggs

c)

Red blood cells

d)

Urine

61.

Which gland produces mucous secretion that aids sperm movement and survival in the female reproductive tract?

a)

Bulbourethral gland

b)

Prostate gland

c)

Seminal vesicle

d)

Adrenal gland

62.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the seminal vesicles?

a)

Nourishment of sperm cells

b)

Coagulation of semen

c)

Production of testosterone

d)

Movement of sperm cells

63.

What percentage of semen fluid is from the prostate gland?

a)

30%

b)

10%

c)

50%

d)

70%

64.

Which gland helps neutralize the acidity of the male urethra and female vagina?

a)

Bulbourethral gland

b)

Prostate gland

c)

Seminal vesicle

d)

Adrenal gland

65.

How many milliliters of semen are ejaculated each time?

a)

2 to 5 milliliters

b)

10 to 15 milliliters

c)

0.5 to 1 milliliter

d)

20 to 25 milliliters

66.

1 milliliter of semen contains how many sperm?

a)

100 million

b)

1 million

c)

10 million

d)

500 million

67.

Sperm can live for how many hours once inside the female?

a)

72 hours

b)

12 hours

c)

24 hours

d)

48 hours

68.

Which of the following is a function of mucus secretion?

a)

Nourishment of sperm

b)

Lubrication of the urethra for sperm movement

c)

Coagulation of semen

d)

Production of testosterone

69.

Match the gland with its function:

a)

Prostate gland

1.

Aid in sperm cells traveling to the oocyte

b)

Seminal vesicles

2.

Nourishment of sperm cells

c)

Bulbourethral gland

3.

Neutralize acidity of male urethra and female vagina

70.

60% of semen fluid is from seminal vesicles.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

The prostate gland regulates pH and produces fibrinogen.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

List the correct order of the path of sperm as described in the diagram: 1. Sperm develop in _______ tubules (testes) 2. _______ (mature) 3. Ductus deferens 4. Receive secretions from seminal vesicles, prostate gland, and bulbourethral gland 5. Urethra where semen (sperm) exits body.

a)

1. Seminiferous, 2. Epididymis

b)

1. Epididymis, 2. Seminiferous

c)

1. Proximal, 2. Distal

d)

1. Vas deferens, 2. Seminiferous

73.

Which hormone is produced by the hypothalamus and stimulates LH and FSH release?

a)

GnRH

b)

LH

c)

FSH

d)

Testosterone

74.

Testosterone is produced in which cells of the testes?

a)

Testosterone is produced in testicular interstitial cells.

b)

Testosterone is produced in seminiferous tubule cells.

c)

Testosterone is produced in Sertoli cells.

d)

Testosterone is produced in Leydig cells.

75.

Which hormone is secreted by seminiferous tubule cells and inhibits FSH release?

a)

Inhibin

b)

Testosterone

c)

Estrogen

d)

Progesterone

76.

Match the following male sex hormones with their functions:

a)

GnRH

1.

5

b)

LH

2.

4

c)

FSH

3.

1

d)

Testosterone

4.

2

e)

Inhibin

5.

3

77.

At what age does male puberty typically begin and end?

a)

Begins at 12 to 14 and ends around 18

b)

Begins at 8 to 10 and ends around 14

c)

Begins at 15 to 17 and ends around 22

d)

Begins at 10 to 12 and ends around 16

78.

Which is the major male hormone responsible for secondary sexual characteristics?

a)

Testosterone

b)

Estrogen

c)

Progesterone

d)

Dihydrotestosterone

79.

Name two secondary sexual characteristics that develop during male puberty.

a)

Larynx increases in size (deepening voice), increased skeletal muscle development

b)

Increase in height and weight, improved memory

c)

Development of freckles, change in eye color

d)

Ability to digest lactose, improved hand-eye coordination

80.

List the three major components of the male sex act.

a)

1. Erection of the penis 2. Emission 3. Ejaculation

b)

1. Spermatogenesis 2. Testosterone production 3. Semen storage

c)

1. Ovulation 2. Menstruation 3. Fertilization

d)

1. Urethral dilation 2. Prostate contraction 3. Testicular descent

81.

Penile erection is controlled only by nerves.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

What is the primary female reproductive organ?

a)

Ovary

b)

Uterus

c)

Fallopian tube

d)

Vagina

83.

Which structure anchors the ovaries to the uterus?

a)

Ovarian ligaments

b)

Suspensory ligaments

c)

Broad ligaments

d)

Round ligaments

84.

Which structure attaches the ovaries to the broad ligament?

a)

Mesovarium

b)

Suspensory ligament

c)

Ovarian ligament

d)

Round ligament

85.

What is the function of granulosa cells?

a)

Surrounds the primary oocyte/single layer

b)

Produces testosterone

c)

Forms the zona pellucida

d)

Initiates ovulation

86.

What is the thick layer separating the oocyte and granulosa cells called?

a)

Zona pellucida

b)

Corona radiata

c)

Antrum

d)

Theca interna

87.

If fertilization occurs, where does the zygote implant?

a)

In the uterus

b)

In the ovary

c)

In the fallopian tube

d)

In the cervix

88.

Oocytes are swept into one of the uterine tubes by ______ during ovulation.

a)

fimbriae

b)

cilia

c)

flagella

d)

villi

89.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the ovaries?

a)

Produces oocytes

b)

Produces sex hormones

c)

Anchors uterus to pelvic cavity

d)

Contains ovarian follicles

90.

Oocytes only live for 24 hours, so if no sperm is present at ovulation, no zygote develops and the oocyte dies.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

Label the part of the female reproductive system shown in the diagram:

a)

Ovary, uterus, fimbriae, suspensory ligament, etc.

b)

Testis, vas deferens, epididymis, seminal vesicle

c)

Pancreas, liver, gallbladder, duodenum

d)

Heart, lungs, trachea, diaphragm

92.

Which stage is characterized by the presence of the antrum?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 4-5

c)

Stage 6

d)

Stage 9

93.

Oogenesis and Fertilization: Theca cells synthesize androgens, which diffuse to granulosa cells. Granulosa cells convert androgens to _________?

a)

estrogen

b)

progesterone

c)

testosterone

d)

cortisol

94.

Match the following ovarian follicle stages with their corresponding histology images:

a)

primordial follicle

1.

primordial follicles

b)

primary follicle

2.

primary follicles

c)

secondary follicle

3.

secondary follicles

d)

corpus albicans

4.

corpus albicans

95.

Which of the following is a function of the fimbriae of the uterine (fallopian) tubes?

a)

Synthesize androgens

b)

Sweep oocyte into uterine tubes

c)

Convert androgens to estrogen

d)

Receive sperm

96.

The ampulla is the part of the uterine tube near the ovary.

a)

True

b)

False

97.

Identify the labeled structures in the primordial follicle histology image: primary oocytes and _________?

a)

granulosa cells

b)

theca cells

c)

corpus luteum

d)

zona pellucida

98.

In the secondary follicle histology image, which structure surrounds the primary oocyte?

a)

corona radiata

b)

zona pellucida

c)

antrum

d)

theca interna

99.

What is the main function of the uterus?

a)

To receive, retain, and provide nourishment for fertilized oocyte, where embryo resides and develops.

b)

To produce hormones for the body.

c)

To filter waste from the blood.

d)

To regulate body temperature.