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VLAN – Basics & Design (15 Questions)

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is VLAN mainly used for?

a)

Replacing routers

b)

Dividing physical subnets

c)

Dividing logical broadcast domains

d)

Increasing switch speed

2.

In a network with multiple VLANs, what is required for VLANs to communicate with each other?

a)

Layer 2 switch

b)

Trunk

c)

Router or Layer 3 switch

d)

VTP

3.

Each VLAN should be assigned:

a)

Any IP address

b)

Multiple subnets

c)

One IP subnet

d)

No IP address

4.

Which VLAN cannot be deleted on a Cisco switch?

a)

VLAN 10

b)

VLAN 99

c)

VLAN 1002

d)

VLAN 1

5.

VLAN 1 usually carries which type of traffic?

a)

Voice

b)

Data

c)

Management (CDP, VTP)

d)

Multicast

6.

When an access port is not assigned to a specific VLAN, it belongs to:

a)

VLAN 1

b)

VLAN 99

7.

VLANs help improve which of the following?

a)

Router CPU

b)

Broadcast traffic

c)

RAM speed

d)

Cable length

8.

Which command creates VLAN 20 named SALES?

a)

vlan SALES 20

b)

vlan 20 name SALES

c)

vlan 20 → name SALES

d)

create vlan SALES

9.

When a VLAN is deleted, the ports belonging to that VLAN will:

a)

Automatically return to VLAN 1

b)

Be shut down

c)

Be unable to communicate

d)

Become trunk ports

10.

VLANs are best used in which environment?

a)

Small network with one switch

b)

Large network with many departments

c)

WAN

d)

Internet

11.

VLANs do NOT directly help with which of the following?

a)

Security

b)

Network segmentation

c)

Routing

d)

Network management

12.

When designing VLANs, which factor is the most important?

a)

Cable color

b)

Physical location

c)

Organizational structure

d)

NIC speed

13.

VLANs can exist on:

a)

One port

b)

One switch

c)

Multiple switches via trunk

d)

Only one router

14.

VLANs help reduce which problem?

a)

Routing loops

b)

Broadcast storms

c)

IP conflicts

d)

ARP timeouts

15.

VLANs mainly operate at which layer?

a)

Layer 1

b)

Layer 2

c)

Layer 3

d)

Layer 4

16.

A trunk port is used to:

a)

Connect PCs

b)

Connect routers

c)

Carry multiple VLANs

d)

Run STP

17.

The current trunking standard on Cisco devices is:

a)

ISL

b)

802.3

c)

802.1Q

d)

802.11

18.

In 802.1Q trunking, the native VLAN:

a)

Is always VLAN 1

b)

Is tagged

c)

Is untagged

d)

Cannot be used

19.

A native VLAN mismatch can cause:

a)

Loops

b)

Security issues

c)

Broadcast leaks

d)

All of the above

20.

Trunking cannot be configured on:

a)

An access port

b)

A switch port

c)

A router subinterface

d)

EtherChannel

21.

The command used to check trunk status is:

a)

show vlan

b)

show trunk

c)

show interfaces trunk

d)

show switchport

22.

A trunk can carry a maximum of how many VLANs?

a)

128

b)

256

c)

1024

d)

4094

23.

When a trunk is active, frames are:

a)

Encrypted

b)

Tagged with VLAN information

24.

Which VLAN should NOT be used as the native VLAN?

a)

VLAN 1

b)

A dedicated management VLAN

c)

An unused VLAN

d)

The default VLAN

25.

Router-on-a-stick is used for:

a)

Running STP

b)

Connecting trunks

c)

Inter-VLAN routing

d)

VTP

26.

Each router-on-a-stick subinterface requires:

a)

A. A unique IP address

b)

B. A VLAN ID

c)

C. 802.1Q encapsulation

d)

D. All of the above

27.

If a trunk goes down, what happens?

a)

VLAN 1 is lost

b)

All VLANs are lost

c)

Local/internal VLANs still operate

d)

The router stops working

28.

Trunking operates at which OSI layer?

a)

Layer 1

b)

Layer 2

c)

Layer 3

d)

Layer 4

29.

Native VLAN frames are easier to sniff because they are:

a)

Not encrypted

b)

Not tagged

c)

Broadcast frames

d)

Multicast frames

30.

Best practice for native VLAN configuration is to:

a)

Keep VLAN 1

b)

Change it to an unused VLAN

c)

Disable trunking

d)

Leave it unconfigured

31.

VTP is used to:

a)

Routing

b)

Synchronize VLAN information

c)

Loop prevention

d)

QoS

32.

VTP operates at which layer?

a)

Layer 1

b)

Layer 2

c)

Layer 3

d)

Layer 7

33.

A VTP Server can:

a)

Only receive VLANs

b)

Only forward VLANs

c)

Create / modify / delete VLANs

d)

Do nothing

34.

A VTP Client:

a)

Does not receive VLANs

b)

Does not forward VLANs

c)

Cannot create VLANs

d)

Does not need a domain

35.

VTP Transparent mode:

a)

Does not forward advertisements

b)

Forwards advertisements but does not synchronize VLANs

c)

Synchronizes VLANs

d)

Does not receive advertisements

36.

The revision number is used to:

a)

Identify a switch

b)

Compare VLAN databases

c)

Provide security

d)

Load balancing

37.

The most dangerous VTP issue is:

a)

Wrong domain

b)

Wrong password

c)

A new switch with a higher revision number

d)

Wrong VLAN ID

38.

VTP advertisements are sent using:

a)

Unicast

b)

Broadcast

c)

Multicast

d)

Anycast

39.

The VTP domain name:

a)

Can be deleted

b)

Can be changed freely

c)

Cannot be deleted, only changed

d)

Is not required

40.

Current best practice for VTP is to:

a)

Use Server mode

b)

Use Client mode

c)

C. Disable VTP / use Transparent mode

41.

What is the main purpose of STP?

a)

Load balancing

b)

Prevent Layer 2 loops

c)

Increase bandwidth

d)

Packet routing

42.

A Layer 2 loop can cause:

a)

IP conflicts

b)

Broadcast storms

c)

ARP timeouts

d)

DNS errors

43.

The IEEE standard for STP is:

a)

802.1Q

b)

802.1D

c)

802.1X

d)

802.3

44.

The Root Bridge is elected based on:

a)

Highest MAC address

b)

Highest priority

c)

Lowest Bridge ID

d)

Number of ports

45.

The Bridge ID consists of:

a)

IP + MAC

b)

VLAN + IP

c)

Priority + MAC

d)

Cost + MAC

46.

The default switch priority is:

a)

0

b)

32768

c)

65535

d)

4096

47.

A Root Port is:

a)

The port with the highest cost

b)

The port closest to the root bridge

c)

The port that receives BPDUs

d)

A blocked port

48.

Each non-root switch has how many Root Ports?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

Unlimited

49.

A Designated Port is:

a)

A blocked port

b)

The port with the best cost on a segment

c)

A port connected to a PC

d)

A trunk port

50.

A port in Blocking state:

a)

Sends frames

b)

Receives frames

c)

Does not forward frames

d)

Is shut down

51.

The correct order of traditional STP states is:

a)

Blocking → Forwarding

b)

Blocking → Learning → Listening → Forwarding

c)

Blocking → Listening → Learning → Forwarding

d)

Listening → Learning → Forwarding

52.

Traditional STP convergence time is approximately:

a)

5 seconds

b)

15 seconds

c)

30–50 seconds

d)

1 minute

53.

PortFast is used on:

a)

Trunk ports

b)

Root ports

c)

Access ports connected to end devices

d)

EtherChannel

54.

The danger of enabling PortFast incorrectly is:

a)

VLAN loss

b)

Immediate loops

c)

Trunk failure

d)

IP errors

55.

BPDU Guard:

a)

Speeds up STP

b)

Blocks BPDUs

c)

Shuts down the port when a BPDU is received

d)

Forwards BPDUs

56.

RSTP is defined by which standard?

a)

802.1D

b)

802.1Q

57.

The main advantage of RSTP is:

a)

Security

b)

Fast convergence

c)

Load balancing

d)

Fewer VLANs

58.

PVST+ means:

a)

One STP for the entire network

b)

One STP instance per VLAN

c)

No VLAN usage

d)

No root bridge

59.

EtherChannel is used to:

a)

Run VLANs

b)

Bundle multiple links into one

c)

Replace STP

d)

Replace trunking

60.

EtherChannel provides:

a)

Loop reduction

b)

Load balancing and redundancy

c)

VLAN reduction

d)

Reduced routing

61.

STP treats an EtherChannel as:

a)

Multiple ports

b)

One logical port

c)

One VLAN

d)

One trunk

62.

The IEEE standard negotiation protocol for EtherChannel is:

a)

PAgP

b)

DTP

c)

LACP

d)

VTP

63.

EtherChannel requires ports to have:

a)

The same VLAN

b)

The same speed and duplex

c)

The same mode

d)

All of the above

64.

EtherChannel operates at:

a)

Layer 1

b)

Layer 2

c)

Layer 3

d)

Both Layer 2 and Layer 3

65.

EtherChannel load balancing is based on:

a)

CPU usage

b)

MAC/IP hash

c)

VLAN ID

d)

Port number

66.

A router determines the forwarding path based on:

a)

MAC table

b)

ARP

c)

Routing table

d)

VLAN

67.

Which route has the lowest Administrative Distance (AD)?

a)

RIP

b)

OSPF

c)

EIGRP

d)

Static

68.

Administrative Distance is used to:

a)

Calculate metrics

b)

Select the best route among different routing protocols

c)

Prevent loops

d)

Encryption

69.

An advantage of static routing is:

a)

Automatic

b)

Uses fewer resources

c)

Fast convergence during failures

d)

Easy to scale

70.

A default route uses which address?

a)

255.255.255.255

b)

0.0.0.0

c)

127.0.0.1

d)

224.0.0.0

71.

RIP is a:

a)

Link-State protocol

b)

Distance Vector protocol

c)

Hybrid protocol

d)

Path Vector protocol

72.

The RIP metric is:

a)

Cost

b)

Delay

c)

Hop count

73.

The maximum hop count in RIP is:

a)

10

b)

15

c)

16

d)

255

74.

RIP version 2 supports:

a)

Classful routing

b)

Classless routing and VLSM

c)

IPv6

d)

Encryption

75.

OSPF is a:

a)

Distance Vector protocol

b)

Hybrid protocol

c)

Link-State protocol

d)

Static protocol

76.

The algorithm used by OSPF is:

a)

Bellman-Ford

b)

DUAL

c)

SPF (Dijkstra)

d)

RIP

77.

The OSPF metric is:

a)

Hop count

b)

Cost

c)

Delay

d)

Load

78.

OSPF Hello packets use which multicast address?

a)

224.0.0.9

b)

224.0.0.10

c)

224.0.0.5

d)

239.1.1.1

79.

OSPF supports:

a)

CIDR

b)

VLSM

c)

Areas

d)

All of the above

80.

EIGRP is a protocol developed by:

a)

A. IEEE

b)

B. IETF

c)

C. Cisco

d)

D. ISO

81.

EIGRP is a:

a)

Distance Vector protocol

b)

Link-State protocol

c)

Hybrid protocol

d)

Static protocol

82.

The algorithm used by EIGRP is:

a)

SPF

b)

Bellman-Ford

c)

DUAL

d)

Flooding

83.

EIGRP metrics are based on:

a)

Hop count

b)

Bandwidth and delay

c)

Cost

d)

Load

84.

EIGRP converges quickly because it uses:

a)

Flooding

b)

DUAL

c)

Multicast

d)

Short Hello intervals

85.

EIGRP uses which multicast address?

a)

224.0.0.5

b)

224.0.0.9

c)

224.0.0.10

d)

224.0.0.1

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