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Worksheets200>>>>>>>>>>>>>
Total questions: 90
Worksheet time: 48mins
200. Which statement correctly describes frame encoding?
• It uses the characteristic of one wave to modify another wave
• It transmits data signals along with a clock signal which occurs at evenly spaced time durations
• It converts bits into a predefined code in order to provide a predictable pattern to help distinguish data bits from control bits
• It generates the electrical, optical, or wireless signals that represent the binary numbers of the frame
201. What is a characteristic of UTP cabling?
• cancellation
• woven copper braid or metallic foil
• cladding
• immunity to electrical hazards
№ 202
A network administrator is designing a new network infrastructure that includes both wired and wireless connectivity. Under which situation would a wireless connection be recommended?
• The end-user device needs mobility when connecting to the network
• The end-user device area has a high concentration of RFI
• The end-user device only has an Ethernet NIC
• The end-user device requires a dedicated connection because of performance requirements
№ 203
What is the maximum cable length recommended for Ethernet over UTP?
• 100 meters
• 50 meters
• 250 meters
• 75 meters
• 500 meters
№ 204
Which three characteristics are defined by the Physical layer? (Choose three.)
• Cable types
• Error recovery
• Voltage levels
• Timing of signals
• IP addressing
№ 205
What is the purpose of using twisted pairs in copper cabling?
• Reduce propagation delay
• Reduce EMI and crosstalk
• Increase bandwidth
• Allow half-duplex communication
• Support longer distances
№ 206
Which OSI layer is responsible for encoding data into signals before transmission?
• Physical
• Data Link
• Network
• Transport
• Presentation
№ 223
What is the responsibility of the MAC sublayer?
• Provides the method to get the frame on and off the media
• Adds Layer 3 addresses to the frame
• Communicates with the network layer (Layer 3)
• Transmits the bits on the media
№ 224
What is a characteristic of the LLC sublayer?
• It defines software processes that provide services to the physical layer
• It places information in the frame allowing multiple Layer 3 protocols to use the same network interface and media
• It provides delimitation of data according to the physical signaling requirements of the medium
• It provides the logical addressing required that identifies the device
№ 225
What Layer 2 function does a router perform? (Choose three.)
• Re-encapsulates the packet into a new frame
• Refers to its Layer 3 routing table for a matching destination network
• De-encapsulates the frame
Accepts a frame from a medium
№ 226
What is the function of the CRC value that is found in the FCS field of a frame?
• to verify the logical address in the frame
• to verify the physical address in the frame
• to compute the checksum header for the data field in the frame
to verify the integrity of the received frame
№ 227
Which topology displays networking device layer IP addresses?
• Logical topology
• IP address topology
• Aerial topology
• Physical topology
№ 228
What is contained in the trailer of a data-link frame?
• logical address
• data
• error detection
• physical address
№ 229
Which statement is true about the CSMA/CD access method that is used in Ethernet?
• All network devices must listen before transmitting
• A jamming signal causes only devices that caused the collision to execute a backoff algorithm
• Devices involved in a collision get priority to transmit after the backoff period
• When a device hears a carrier signal and transmits, a collision cannot occur
№ 300
A Layer 2 switch is used to switch incoming frames from a 1000BASE-T port to a port connected to a 100Base-T network. Which method of memory buffering would work best for this task?
• level I cache buffering
• shared memory buffering
• fixed configuration buffering
• port-based buffering
№ 301
What are two examples of the cut-through switching method? (Choose two.)
• QOS switching
• store-and-forward switching
• fast-forward switching
• CRC switching
• fragment-free switching
What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?
• the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation
• the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a crossover Ethernet cable connection
• the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is detected
• the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copper or optical cable
What information does the loopback test provide?
• DHCP is working correctly
• The TCP/IP stack on the device is working correctly
• The Ethernet cable is working correctly
• The device has the correct IP address on the network
• The device has end-to-end connectivity
Which parameter does the router use to choose the path to the destination when there are multiple routes available?
• the higher metric value that is associated with the destination network
• the higher gateway IP address to get to the destination network
• the lower gateway IP address to get to the destination network
• the lower metric value that is associated with the destination network
A network technician issues the arp -d * command on a PC after the router that is connected to the LAN is reconfigured. What is the result after this command is issued?
• The current content of the ARP cache is displayed
• The ARP cache is cleared
• The detailed information of the ARP cache is displayed
• The ARP cache is synchronized with the router interface
What is the aim of an ARP spoofing attack?
• to associate IP addresses to the wrong MAC address
• to flood the network with ARP reply broadcasts
• to overwhelm network hosts with ARP requests
• to fill switch MAC address tables with bogus (fake) addresses
Which two types of IPv6 messages are used in place of ARP for address resolution?
• broadcast
• anycast
• echo reply/request
• neighbor advertisement
• neighbor solicitation
Which one of the given application layer protocols does not use UDP?
• TFTP
• SMTP
• DHCP
• SNMP
Which one of the given examples requires UDP?
• IP Telephony
• File downloading
• Email client
• Databases
What is the main advantage of TCP over UDP?
• Reliability
• Faster
• Less delay
• Fewer Fields in header
How many steps are required to establish a TCP connection?
5
4
3
2
Regulating the amount of data the source transmits:
• Conversation Multiplexing
• Reliable Delivery
• Flow Control
• Best Effort Delivery
Which command in the command line (cmd) is used to show the active connections?
• Tracert
• Netstat
• Ping
• Show
Flow control helps
• maintain the reliability of UDP transmission by adjusting the rate of data flow between source and destination for a given session
• contain the reliability of TCP transmission by adjusting the rate of data flow between source and destination for a given session
• maintain the reliability of UDP transmission by adjusting the session timeout flow between source and destination for a given session
• maintain the reliability of TCP transmission by adjusting the session timeout flow between source and destination for a given session
What is an advantage of SMB over FTP?
• SMB is more reliable than FTP because SMB uses TCP and FTP uses UDP
• SMB clients can establish a long-term connection to the server
• Only SMB establishes two simultaneous connections with the client, making the data transfer faster
Only with SMB can data transfers occur in both directions
When retrieving email messages, which protocol allows for easy, centralized storage and backup of emails that would be desirable for a small- to medium-sized business?
• SMTP
• POP
• IMAP
• HTTPS
What is an advantage for small organizations of adopting IMAP instead of POP?
• When the user connects to a POP server, copies of the messages are kept in the mail server for a short time, but IMAP keeps them for a long time
• Messages are kept in the mail servers until they are manually deleted from the email client
• IMAP sends and retrieves email, but POP only retrieves email
• POP only allows the client to store messages in a centralized way, while IMAP allows distributed storage
Which three statements describe a DHCP Discover message? (Choose three.)
• The message comes from a client seeking an IP address
• The destination IP address is 255.255.255.255
• The message comes from a server offering an IP address
• The source MAC address is 48 ones (FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF)
All hosts receive the message, but only a DHCP server replies
What is true about a client-server network?
• Each peer accesses an index server to get the location of a resource stored on another peer in what is considered a hybrid network system
• Workstations access network resources using SAMBA or Gnutella
• Each device can function as a server and a client
• The network includes a dedicated server
Which three layers of the OSI model provide similar network services to those provided by the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
• physical layer
• transport layer
• presentation layer
• application layer
session layer
Which two tasks can be performed by a local DNS server? (Choose two.)
• providing IP addresses to local hosts
• mapping name-to-IP addresses for internal hosts
• retrieving email messages
• allowing data transfer between two network devices
• forwarding name resolution requests between servers
What does the term vulnerability mean?
• a known target or victim machine
• a computer that contains sensitive information
• a potential threat that a hacker creates
• a method of attack to exploit a target
• a weakness that makes a target susceptible to an attack
What three configuration steps must be performed to implement SSH access to a router? (Choose three.)
• a unique hostname
• a password on the console line
• an IP domain name
• an enable mode password
• a user account
A network administrator establishes a connection to a switch via SSH. What characteristic uniquely describes the SSH connection?
• direct access to the switch through the use of a terminal emulation program
• on-site access to a switch through the use of a directly connected PC and a console cable
• remote access to a switch where data is encrypted during the session
• remote access to the switch through the use of a telephone dialup connection
Some routers and switches in a wiring closet malfunctioned after an air conditioning unit failed. What type of threat does this situation describe?
• electrical
• environmental
• configuration
• maintenance
What type of attack may involve the use of tools such as nslookup and fping?
• denial of service attack
• worm attack
• reconnaissance attack
• access attack
What kind of threat is described when a threat actor impersonates another person to obtain credit information about that person?
• disruption of service
• identity theft
• information theft
• data loss or manipulation
What kind of threat is described when a threat actor is stealing the user database of a company?
• disruption of service
• information theft
• data loss or manipulation
• identity theft
Which two network protocols are used to establish a remote access network connection to a device? (Choose two.)
• Secure Shell (SSH)
• Remote Connect (RC)
• File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
• Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
• Telnet
By following a structured troubleshooting approach, a network administrator identified a network issue after a conversation with the user. What is the next step that the administrator should take?
Verify full system functionality
• Test the theory to determine cause
• Establish a theory of probable causes
• Establish a plan of action to resolve the issue
What Windows 10 tool is useful to determine which applications are using network services on a host?
• Control panel
• Windows Defender Firewall
• File Manager
• Data Usage
• Windows Explorer
When should an administrator establish a network baseline?
• when the traffic is at peak in the network
• when there is a sudden drop in traffic
• at regular intervals over a period of time
at the lowest point of traffic in the network
What type of traffic would most likely have the highest priority through the network?
voice
snmp
instant messaging
ftp
What factor should be considered in the design of a small network when devices are being chosen?
• ISP
• redundancy
• cost of devices
• traffic analysis
A network technician suspects that a particular network connection between two Cisco switches is having a duplex mismatch. Which command would the technician use to see the Layer 1 and Layer 2 details of a switch port?
• show ip interface brief
• show ip interface brief
• show interfaces
• show running-config
Which command is used to configure a message-of-the-day banner?
• message-of-day Your Message
• banner motd #Your Message#
• motd-banner Your Message
• set banner motd
• banner login Your Message
What is the result of the command reload on a switch?
• Erases the running configuration
• Saves configuration and exits
• Restarts the switch
• Performs a factory reset
• Deletes VLAN database
Which command displays the current running configuration?
• display running
• show running-config
• show config
• view running-config
• show startup-config
Which command displays the current running configuration?
• display running
• show running-config
• show config
• show startup-config
• view running-config
Which statement is true about copy running-config startup-config?
• Saves configuration to RAM
• Saves configuration to flash
• Saves configuration to ROMMON
• Saves configuration to NVRAM
• Deletes startup configuration
What does the command service password-encryption actually do?
• Encrypts all plaintext passwords in the configuration
• Encrypts only VTY passwords
• Provides SSH encryption
• Encrypts the enable secret
• Encrypts console passwords only
341. How many bits must be borrowed from the host portion of an address to accommodate a router with ten connected networks?
five
four
six
two
three
342.What does the ICMPv6 RA message include? Choose three:
• Default gateway address
• DNS addresses and domain name
• Network prefix and prefix length
• Interface ID
• Subnet ID
343.A user calls to report that a PC cannot access the internet. The network technician asks the user to issue the command ping 127.0.0.1. The user reports four positive replies. What conclusion can be drawn?
• The TCP/IP implementation is functional
344.A user reports a lack of network connectivity. The technician takes control of the user machine and attempts to ping other computers on the network and these pings fail. The technician pings the default gateway and that also fails. What can be determined for sure by the results of these tests?
A. The TCP/IP protocol is not enabled
B. The NIC in the PC is bad
C. Nothing can be determined for sure at this point
D. The router that is attached to the same network as the workstation is down
345. What is necessary to plan and use when implementing a network?
A. Device names
B. Printer location
C. IP addressing scheme
D. MAC addressing scheme
346.Which command can an administrator issue on a Cisco router to send debug messages to the vty lines?
A. logging console
B. terminal monitor
C. logging buffered
D. logging synchronous
347.What is required to classify traffic according to priority?
A. Quality of Service (QoS)
B. Switching
C. IP addressing scheme
D. Routing
348.Which command should be used on a Cisco router or switch to allow log messages to be displayed on remotely connected sessions using Telnet or SSH?
A. terminal monitor
B. logging synchronous
C. debug all
D. show running-config
349.A technician has established a remote connection to router R1 to observe debug output. The technician enters the debug ip icmp command then pings a remote destination. However, no output is displayed. Which command would the technician have to enter to display log messages on a remote connection?
A. terminal monitor
B. monitor debug output
C. terminal monitor debug
D. monitor terminal
350. An employee complains that a Windows PC cannot connect to the Internet. A network technician issues the ipconfig command on the PC and is shown an IP address of 169.254.10.3. Which two conclusions can be drawn? (Choose two.)
A. The DNS server address is misconfigured
B. The enterprise network is misconfigured for dynamic routing
C. The default gateway address is not configured
D. The PC is configured to obtain an IP address automatically
E. The PC cannot contact a DHCP server
351. Which of the following best describes the difference between enable password and enable secret?
A. Both are encrypted by default
B. enable password takes precedence
C. enable secret uses an MD5 hash for encryption
D. enable secret is stored in plaintext
E. enable password is stronger
352.Which of the following describes the function of the SVI on a switch?
A. Provides wireless connectivity
B. Provides management IP address for the switch
C. Enables port security
D. Provides console access
E. Provides routing between VLANs
353. What is the default SVI on a Cisco switch?
A. VLAN999
B. VLAN100
C. VLAN1
D. VLAN99
354.Which type of access is secured on a Cisco router or switch with the enable secret command?
A. Virtual terminal
B. Privileged EXEC
C. Console line
D. AUX port
355.Which switch command is used to set the device name to 'LabSwitch'?
A. hostname = LabSwitch
B. hostname: LabSwitch
C. switch-name LabSwitch
D. hostname LabSwitch
E. set hostname LabSwitch
356.Which memory location on a Cisco router or switch stores the startup configuration file?
A. Flash
B. RAM
C. NVRAM
D. ROM
357.In what case must the link-local parameter follow the address?
A. When a GUA is assigned
B. When DHCPv6 or SLAAC is used
C. When an address begins with this hextet within the range of fe80 to febf
D. If the device is the intended target of the IPv6 packet
358.Which field in an IPv6 GUA is used for subnetting?
A. Subnet ID
B. Global Routing Prefix
C. Prefix
D. Network
E. Interface ID
359.What type of IPv6 address is used to send a single IPv6 packet to multiple destinations?
A. Broadcast
B. Private
C. Unicast
D. Multicast
360. Which part of a GUA is assigned by the ISP?
A. Global Routing Prefix
B. RIR Prefix
C. Global Routing Prefix and Subnet ID
D. Prefix
361.What is a function of the tracert command that differs from the ping command?
A. The tracert command shows the information on routers in the path
B. The tracert command sends one ICMP message to each hop in the path
C. The tracert command reaches the destination faster
D. The tracert command is used to test connectivity between two devices
362.Which protocol provides feedback from the destination host to the source host about errors in packet delivery?
ICMP
ARP
BOOTP
DNS
363.What process is used to receive transmitted data and convert it into a readable message?
A. Access control
B. Decoding
C. Encapsulation
D. Flow control
364.Which type of fiber is used for long-distance, high-bandwidth communication with minimal modal dispersion?
A. Single-mode
B. Plastic optical fiber
C. Step-index multimode
D. Gradient-index multimode
E. Multimode
365.What is the definition of bandwidth?
A. The measure of usable data transferred over a given period of time
B. The speed at which bits travel on the network
C. The amount of data that can flow from one place to another in a given amount of time
D. The measure of the transfer of bits across the media over a given period of time
366. Which of the following is a PDU at the Physical layer?
A. Frame
B. Datagram
C. Bit
D. Segment
367. What is the purpose of the OSI physical layer?
A. Performing error detection on received frames
B. Transmitting bits across the local media
C. Exchanging frames between nodes over physical network media
D. Controlling access to media
368. Which two statements are correct about IPv4 and IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.)
A. IPv6 addresses are represented by hexadecimal numbers
B. IPv6 addresses are 32 bits in length
C. IPv4 addresses are 128 bits in length
D. IPv4 addresses are 32 bits in length
E. IPv6 addresses are 64 bits in length
369. What kind of network would use point-to-point, hub and spoke, or mesh topologies?
A. LAN
B. WAN
C. WLAN
D. PAN
370. The IEEE 802 LAN/MAN data link layer consists of which two sublayers? (Choose two.)
A. Network Control Protocol
B. Logical Link Control (LLC)
C. Media Access Control (MAC)
D. Logical Link Protocol
371. Which two statements describe features or functions of the LLC sublayer in Ethernet standards? (Choose two.)
A. The LLC sublayer adds a header and a trailer to the data
B. Logical link control is specified in the IEEE 802.3 standard
C. The LLC sublayer is responsible for the placement and retrieval of frames on and off the media
D. Logical link control is implemented in software
E. The data link layer uses LLC to communicate with the upper layers of the protocol suite
372. Which advantage does the store-and-forward switching method have compared with the cut-through switching method?
A. Frame error checking
B. Frame forwarding using IPv4 Layer 3 and 4 information
C. Faster frame forwarding
D. Collision detecting
373. Which switching method uses the CRC value in a frame?
A. Cut-through
B. Fragment-free
C. Fast-forward
D. Store-and-forward
374. What is one advantage of using the cut-through switching method instead of the store-and-forward switching method?
A. Makes a fast forwarding decision based on the source MAC address of the frame
B. Provides the flexibility to support any mix of Ethernet speeds
C. Has a lower latency appropriate for high-performance computing applications
D. Has a positive impact on bandwidth by dropping most of the invalid frames
