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Final Exam Biology 2 2025

Total questions: 79

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Mitosis can be used by organisms to:

a)

Grow

b)

Replace damaged cells

c)

Create identical cells

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

2.

Cell transport that requires energy to move materials into and out of the cell is

a)

Passive transport

b)

Diffusion

c)

Osmosis

d)

Active transport

3.

The process of making identical cells for growth, repair, or asexual reproduction is

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Cloning

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

4.

SpongeBob is homozygous dominant for his square shape. His wife, SpongeSusie, is heterozygous for square shape. What is the probability that they will have a square-shaped child?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

e)

100%

5.

A color-blind man marries a woman who is a carrier for color blindness. What is the probability that they will have a son who is color blind?

a)

100%

b)

75%

c)

50%

d)

25%

e)

0%

6.

Greater genetic diversity results from

a)

Independent assortment of genes

b)

Crossing over during Prophase I

c)

Random mating among species

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

7.

If a cell is placed in a solution that contains 80% water, and the cell contains 50% water, in which direction will water move? (Hint: Think about osmosis.)

a)

Water will move out of the cell.

b)

Water will move into the cell.

c)

Water will not move into or out of the cell.

d)

Water never leaves the cell.

8.

Which form of cell transport uses protein channels to move large molecules in, but does NOT require energy?

a)

Osmosis

b)

Diffusion

c)

Facilitated diffusion

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

9.

Which process returns blood sugar to a normal level after a person eats a very sugary snack?

a)

Respiration

b)

Digestion

c)

Homeostasis

d)

Circulation

10.

Which of the following is an example of a positive feedback loop?

a)

Childbirth

b)

Sweating

c)

Respiration

d)

Digestion

11.

Which strand of DNA below would be the complementary strand to the DNA sequence CTC AAG TGC TTC?

a)

CUC AAG UGC UUC

b)

GAG UUC ACG AAG

c)

GAG TTC ACG AAG

d)

AFA CCT GTA GGA

e)

LADY GAGA RULZ

12.

What is the purpose of DNA replication?

a)

To make exact copies of DNA before the cell divides

b)

To change the hereditary information of the cell

c)

To make proteins using RNA

d)

To introduce variation into the process of meiosis

13.

What is a mutation?

a)

A change in the DNA sequence

b)

A change to a protein that has a negative effect on the individual protein

c)

A change to a protein that has a positive effect on the individual protein

d)

A change in phenotype

14.

Natural selection can best be described as:

a)

Organisms that are better adapted to their environment survive to produce more offspring.

b)

Nature selects against organisms that it does not like.

c)

Organisms will randomly survive to reproduce.

d)

All of the above.

e)

None of the above.

15.

There are many pieces of evidence for evolution. Which of the following are considered evidence?

a)

Fossil Record

b)

Homologous structures

c)

DNA

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

16.

Organisms that are made up of only one cell are called

a)

Viruses

b)

Unicellular

c)

Simple

d)

Complex

17.

Species that reproduce sexually pass their traits onto their offspring. The offspring inherit

a)

Half of their genes from the father and half from the mother

b)

A random assortment of genes from each parent

c)

More genetic information from the mother because the egg is larger than the sperm

d)

More genetic information from the father because the sperm is dominant

18.

A Punnett Square is a tool used to:

a)

Show sex-linked traits through generations

b)

Show dominant and recessive allele patterns

c)

Predict the probability of the genotype of offspring

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

19.

If an organism is heterozygous for a trait, what does it mean?

a)

They have one dominant allele and one recessive allele.

b)

They are hybrid.

c)

Both of the above.

d)

None of the above.

20.

If an organism is homozygous for a trait, it means:

a)

They have two dominant alleles.

b)

They have two recessive alleles.

c)

They are purebred.

d)

All of the above.

e)

None of the above.

21.

If an organism is heterozygous, the recessive allele:

a)

Is masked or hidden by the dominant allele

b)

Cannot be passed on to their offspring

c)

Will only be expressed if the dominant allele fails or is damaged

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

22.

In an organism that is codominant for a trait, if it has two DIFFERENT dominant alleles (e.g., AB), what happens?

a)

Both alleles are expressed

b)

Neither allele is expressed (they cancel each other out)

c)

The first allele is expressed and the second allele is hidden

d)

A blend of the alleles is expressed (e.g., red flower crossed with white = pink)

23.

Genetic diversity in organisms that reproduce sexually occurs because of

a)

Crossing over during meiosis

b)

Inheritance of genetic information from both parents

c)

Both of the above

d)

None of the above

24.

The correct order of the phases of mitosis is:

a)

Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

b)

Interphase, prophase, anaphase, telophase

c)

Prophase, interphase, anaphase, metaphase

d)

Interphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

25.

Meiosis, the process used to produce gamete cells (eggs and sperm), only occurs in organisms that reproduce sexually.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

A cat has 38 chromosomes in its normal body cells. How many chromosomes would be present in its gamete cells?

a)

28

b)

38

c)

19

d)

16

27.

The allele for brown eyes is dominant, and the allele for blue eyes is recessive. A heterozygous brown-eyed woman and a homozygous blue-eyed man have a baby. What is the probability that the baby will have blue eyes?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

28.

Mutations can be:

a)

Beneficial to the organism

b)

Harmful to the organism

c)

Have no effect on the organism

d)

All of the above

29.

The main function of the nervous system is:

a)

Receive and interpret information from the five senses.

b)

Control digestion and excretion.

c)

Pump blood throughout the body.

d)

None of the above.

30.

What is the main function of the skeletal system?

a)

Produce immune responses to protect the body from bacteria.

b)

Control heart rate and respiration.

c)

Digest and process food.

d)

Provide a framework for muscles and protect vital internal organs.

31.

The circulatory system is composed of:

a)

Blood, bones, and tendons

b)

Veins, arteries, and plasma

c)

Veins, arteries, blood, and the heart

d)

Heart, lungs, and trachea

32.

The four main components of blood are:

a)

Plasma, platelets, glucose, and proteins

b)

Proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, and fatty acids

c)

Plasma, platelets, white blood cells, and red blood cells

d)

Plasma, protein, white blood cells, and red blood cells

33.

An example of homeostasis is:

a)

Sweating

b)

Eating

c)

Growing

d)

Sleeping

34.

Cells that have membrane-bound organelles are classified as:

a)

Eukaryotic cells

b)

Prokaryotic cells

c)

Executive cells

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

35.

Cellular division that produces identical cells is

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Cellular respiration

36.

Homeostasis is the ability to:

a)

Replicate cells for growth and repair

b)

Fight pathogens in the body

c)

Maintain a stable internal environment

d)

Heal wounds and help blood clot

37.

Cellular respiration is performed by living organisms in order to

a)

Reproduce

b)

Produce energy for cellular processes

c)

Exchange toxins and chemicals

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

38.

There are two types of cells.

a)

Prokaryotic and eukaryotic

b)

Simple and complex

c)

Nerve and muscle

d)

Bone and blood

39.

The organelle where DNA is found in the cell is:

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Ribosome

c)

Cell membrane

d)

Nucleus

40.

The part of the cell that controls what enters and exits the cell is the

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cell membrane

d)

Golgi Apparatus

41.

The movement of water into a cell is:

a)

Osmosis

b)

Active transport

c)

Protein-mediated transport

d)

Phagocytosis

42.

The four basic macromolecules are:

a)

Proteins, lipids, fats, and nucleic acids

b)

Proteins, lipids, amino acids, and nucleic acids

c)

Proteins, lipids, carbohydrates, and amino acids

d)

Proteins, lipids, carbohydrates, and nucleic acids

43.

The smallest unit of life is:

a)

Atom

b)

Organelle

c)

Cell

d)

DNA

44.

The organism's genetic makeup or alleles is its

a)

Genotype

b)

Phenotype

c)

Chromosomal snapshot

d)

Autosomal DNA

45.

The physical appearance of an organism is called its

a)

Genotype

b)

Phenotype

c)

Chromosomal snapshot

d)

Karyotype

46.

DNA codes for:

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Nucleic acids

c)

Proteins

d)

Lipids

47.

The cell spends most of its time in:

a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

48.

What type of cells does meiosis produce?

a)

Gametes

b)

Sperm cells

c)

Egg cells

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

49.

How many chromosomes does a normal human body cell have?

a)

23

b)

46

c)

92

d)

12

50.

Enzymes are an example of which type of biomolecule?

a)

Proteins

b)

Lipids

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Nucleic acids

51.

Which biological molecule makes up cell membranes and stores energy for the long term?

a)

Proteins

b)

Lipids

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Nucleic acids

52.

Which biological molecule speeds up reactions and builds muscle?

a)

Proteins

b)

Lipids

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Nucleic acids

53.

Which biological molecule makes up nucleotides, DNA and RNA?

a)

Proteins

b)

Lipids

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Nucleic acids

54.

DNA codes for

a)

Proteins

b)

Lipids

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Nucleic acids

55.

Which of the following has these 4 bases: adenine, uracil, cytosine, guanine?

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

Proteins

d)

Nucleotides

56.

Making an RNA segment of a DNA segment is called

a)

Transplantation

b)

Transcription

c)

Metabolism

57.

What do you call the 3-base segments found on RNA?

a)

Triplets

b)

Codons

c)

Nucleotides

d)

Tripods

58.

Making a protein from RNA is called

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Metabolism

d)

Homeostasis

59.

What is the name of the sugar in DNA?

a)

Ribose

b)

Deoxyribose

c)

Deoxyglucose

d)

Glucose

60.

What process is responsible for making gamete cells?

a)

Meiosis

b)

Mitosis

c)

Metabolism

d)

Reproduction

61.

Protein synthesis occurs in the

a)

Nucleus

b)

Golgi Complex

c)

Ribosome

d)

DNA

62.

What is the term “fitness” in the biological sense?

a)

The ability to live a long time

b)

The ability to stay healthy and in shape

c)

The ability to outwit other species

d)

The ability to produce a lot of offspring

63.

A species of frog living in a shady area of a pond has two skin colors, light green and dark green. Over time, there are more dark green frogs in the population. This would be an example of

a)

Fitness

b)

Natural selection

64.

What amino acid correspond with the following codon: CAT

a)

Asparagine

b)

Tyrosine

c)

Histidine

d)

Stop

65.

What amino acid correspond with the following codon: TAG

a)

Tyrosine

b)

Cysteine

c)

Tryptophan

66.

Crossing over occurs during which phase of meiosis?

a)

Interphase

b)

Telophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Prophase

67.

A picture that shows all of the chromosomes of an organism is a

a)

Pedigree

b)

Punnett square

c)

Karyotype

d)

Polaroid

68.

Evolutionary change happens

a)

Quickly

b)

Over a few generations

c)

Over thousands of years

d)

Only can occur if a mutation in the genetic code occurs

69.

An example of a caterpillar turning into a butterfly is

a)

Reproduction

b)

Growth and development

c)

Homeostasis

d)

Excretion

70.

How do mutations affect the fitness of a species?

a)

They may have no effect

b)

They may have a positive effect

c)

They may have a negative effect

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

71.

In the biological sense, “fitness” is defined as

a)

How healthy an organism is

b)

How long an organism lives

c)

How strong an organism is

d)

How many offspring an organism produces

72.

Which frogs will be selected against?

a)

Frogs with light green skin

b)

Frogs with dark green skin

c)

Frogs that are speckled with both colors

d)

All the above

e)

None of the above

73.

After several generations of reproduction, what would you expect to observe in the frog population?

a)

A greater percentage of the frog population will be dark skinned

b)

A greater percentage of the frog population will be light skinned

c)

There will be an equal number of dark and light skinned frogs

d)

The frogs with light green skin will become extinct

74.

Evidence that supports the theory of evolution is

a)

Fossils

b)

Homologous and analogous structures

c)

Embryology

d)

All the above

e)

None of the above

75.

Genes code for

a)

Proteins

b)

Traits

c)

DNA

d)

RNA

76.

Osmosis is the movement of

a)

Proteins into the cell

b)

Solutes into the cell

c)

Water from a high concentration to a lower concentration

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

77.

Passive transport requires energy

a)

True

b)

False

78.

Facilitated diffusion requires energy

a)

True

b)

False

79.

Active transport requires energy

a)

True

b)

False