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WorksheetsRehab Head Injury and Modalities Unit Test Fall 25
Total questions: 50
Worksheet time: 25mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following is part of a general eye exam?
a)
Palpating the mandible
b)
Checking the ear canal for discharge
c)
Inspecting the conjunctiva
d)
Assess the carotid pulse
2.
PERRLA stands for
a)
Pupils equal, round, reactive to light and accommodation
b)
Pupils equal, reactive, relaxed light activity
c)
Pupils equal, right lens and accommodation
d)
Pupils emitting rapid reflex and light activity
3.
An orbital hematoma is commonly known as:
a)
Corneal abrasion
b)
Hyphema
c)
Blowout fracture
d)
Black eye
4.
Which symptom is MOST associated with a detached retina?
a)
Loss of hearing
b)
Flashing lights
c)
Eyelid swelling
d)
Tenderness of cheek
5.
The treatment for a suspected detached retina includes:
a)
Rinsing the eye with saline
b)
Applying heat packs
c)
Immediate referral to an ophthalmologist
d)
Allowing the athlete to lie flat and rest
6.
A hyphema is defined as:
a)
Bruising around both eyes
b)
Blood in the anterior chamber of the eye
c)
Scratch on the cornea
d)
Fracture of the orbital floor
7.
Which symptom best matches a corneal abrasion?
a)
Gray curtain over vision
b)
Gritty, scratchy sensation
c)
Cheek numbness
d)
Bruising behind the ears
8.
Epistaxis means
a)
Black eye
b)
Nose bleed
c)
Ear bleed
d)
Blindness
9.
Which is correct treatment for epistaxis?
a)
Tilt head back, pinch nostrils
b)
Apply heat and have athlete lie down
c)
Sit upright and pinch nostrils
d)
Pack nose tightly with cotton and tilt head back
10.
Why is there a 10-day window for nasal fracture referral?
a)
To allow patients to return to sport sooner
b)
To let swelling decrease so the full fracture can be evaluated
c)
To avoid bleeding from worsening
d)
To prevent infection
11.
Hematoma auris is more commonly known as:
a)
Swimmer's ear
b)
Cauliflower ear
c)
Black eye
d)
Hyphema
12.
What is the difference between a cut and a laceration?
a)
Cuts are jagged; lacerations are smooth
b)
Cuts are smooth; lacerations are jagged
c)
Cuts always require stitches
d)
Lacerations never bleed
13.
A concussion is defined as
a)
Bleeding on the brain
b)
A traumatic brain injury affecting brain function
c)
A fracture of the skull
d)
A chronic neurological disorder
14.
Retrograde amnesia means the athlete:
a)
Cannot speak clearly
b)
Cannot remember events after the injury
c)
Cannot remember events before the injury
d)
Loses consciousness immediately
15.
Which of the following is a concussion symptom?
a)
High fever
b)
Tinnitus
c)
Otorrhea
d)
Muscle rigidity
16.
Battle’s sign is a possible indication of
a)
Retinal tear
b)
Skull fracture
c)
Inner ear infection
d)
Hyphema
17.
Which test is used to evaluate cognitive function after a concussion?
a)
SCAT5
b)
MRI
c)
Peak flow meter
d)
Lucid window
18.
Which describes a contrecoup injury?
a)
Injury at the site of impact
b)
Injury on the opposite side from impact
c)
Injury to the spinal cord
d)
Injury to the jaw and facial bones
19.
Which brain bleed is typically fast and arterial?
a)
Cerebral contusion
b)
Subdural hematoma
c)
Epidural hematoma
d)
Concussion
20.
Symptoms of an epidural hematoma may include
a)
Slow decline over several days
b)
Rapid deterioration after a lucid interval
c)
Muscle paralysis first, then confusion
d)
Sudden blindness only
21.
Which condition involves a slow venous bleed?
a)
Subdural hematoma
b)
Epidural hematoma
c)
Coup injury
d)
Hyphema
22.
Which disease causes degeneration of motor neurons and leads to muscle weakness?
a)
Parkinson's disease
b)
ALS
c)
Meningitis
d)
CTE
23.
CTE is known to be caused by:
a)
Viral infection
b)
Repeated head trauma
c)
Lack of sleep
d)
Genetics only
24.
How many pairs of cranial nerves do we have?
a)
10
b)
12
c)
14
d)
24
25.
Cranial nerve that is responsible for hearing and balance
a)
Abducens
b)
Trochlear
c)
Trigeminal
d)
Vestibulocochlear
26.
Shoulder shrugging is the way to assess this cranial nerve
a)
Vagus
b)
Accessory
c)
Facial
d)
Trigeminal
27.
Controls chewing
a)
Facial nerve
b)
Hypoglossal
c)
Glossopharyngeal
d)
Trigeminal
28.
Controls smiling and frowning
a)
Trigeminal
b)
Facial
c)
Hypoglossal
d)
Olfactory
29.
Which of the following is a primary function of the oculomotor nerve?
a)
Visual acuity
b)
Pupil constriction
c)
Chewing
d)
Smiling
30.
What does the optic nerve do?
a)
Controls facial expressions
b)
Allows the eyes to look laterally
c)
Controls eye movement and pupil constriction
d)
Transmits visual information from the retina to the brain
31.
Which of the following professionals may use therapeutic modalities?
a)
Physical therapists
b)
Chiropractors
c)
Athletic Trainers
d)
All of the above
32.
Therapeutic modality refers to
a)
Any medication used for healing
b)
Any form of exercise
c)
Any method that promotes healing and injury repair
d)
Surgical procedures
33.
Which of the following is NOT a goal of therapeutic modalities
a)
Pain relief
b)
Decreasing swelling
c)
Restoring ROM
d)
Prolonged healing
34.
The acute phase of injury lasts
a)
1-4 days
b)
5-14 days
c)
3-6 weeks
d)
4 months
35.
Cryotherapy is indicated for
a)
Chronic stiffness
b)
Preparing for exercise
c)
Reducing swelling
d)
Muscle weakness
36.
Proper icing time during RICE is
a)
5-10 minutes
b)
10-15 minutes
c)
15-20 months
d)
30-40 minutes
37.
Cupping works by
a)
Applying cold pressure to reduce nerve conduction
b)
Using suction to lift skin and improve circulation
c)
Heating tissue with infrared energy
d)
Using deep vibration to break up scar tissue
38.
Kinesiology tape is intended to
a)
Immobilize a joint completely
b)
Support muscles without restricting movement
c)
Reduce bruising within minutes
d)
Replace athletic tape
39.
Which area should ultrasound NEVER be applied to?
a)
Achilles tendon
b)
Shoulder
c)
Quadriceps
d)
Eyes
40.
Which of the following is contraindicated for electrotherapy?
a)
Pacemakers
b)
Open wounds
c)
Pregnant abdomen
d)
All of the above
41.
Cryotherapy is indicated for Rheumatoid arthritis
a)
True
b)
False
42.
What is the physiological change that occurs during cryotherapy?
a)
Vasodilation
b)
Vasoconstriction
43.
Which of the following is a contraindication for thermotherapy?
a)
Subacute injuries
b)
Tendonitis
c)
Cancer patients
d)
Rehab following a fracture
44.
Skin turning white during ice massage is a contraindication
a)
True
b)
False
45.
Microcurrent is an example of
a)
Cryotherapy
b)
Thermotherapy
c)
Electrotherapy
d)
Manual therapy
46.
Kinesiology taping is an example of
a)
Electrotherapy
b)
Crypotherapy
c)
Manual Therapy
d)
Laser Therapy
47.
Laser therapy uses
a)
electrical current
b)
high frequency sound waves
c)
water
d)
photons
48.
Ultrasound would be indicated during the acute injury phase.
a)
True
b)
False
49.
Which type of modality would be indicated for acute, subacute, and chronic injuries?
a)
Cryotherapy
b)
Thermotherapy
c)
Electrotherapy
d)
Laser therapy
50.
Graston and dry needling are both examples of
a)
Cryotherapy
b)
Thermotherapy
c)
Manual therapy
d)
Electrotherapy
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