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GEE 27 | LONG QUIZ - FINALS

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 3hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary purpose of a security policy?

a)

To provide specific low-level technical coding instructions.

b)

To spell out the rules, expectations, and approach for maintaining data confidentiality, integrity, and availability.

c)

To list all the hardware and software assets of an organization.

d)

To manually configure firewalls and routers.

2.

Which document type provides specific details enabling policies to be implemented using different technologies?

a)

Information Security Procedures

b)

Information Security Standards

c)

Information Security Guidelines

d)

Information Security Baselines

3.

In the hierarchy of security documents, what provides the step-by-step instructions for implementing policies?

a)

Standards

b)

Frameworks

c)

Procedures

d)

Manifestos

4.

Which of the following is NOT one of the four reasons a security policy is important?

a)

It guides the implementation of technical controls.

b)

It sets clear expectations for employees.

c)

It guarantees that no security breaches will ever occur.

d)

It helps meet regulatory and compliance requirements.

5.

Which ISO standard focuses on Information Security Management Systems (ISMS)?

a)

ISO 27701

b)

ISO 31000

c)

ISO 27001

d)

ISO 42001

6.

If an organization specifically needs to manage privacy risks regarding personal data, which standard extends ISO 27001?

a)

ISO 27017

b)

ISO 27701

c)

ISO 9001

d)

ISO 20000

7.

ISO/IEC 42001 is the first international standard designed to manage:

a)

Cloud Computing Security

b)

Artificial Intelligence Management Systems (AIMS)

c)

Payment Card Data

d)

Medical Records

8.

What is the primary function of ISO 31000?

a)

Providing a checklist for firewall configuration.

b)

Providing guidelines for managing risks faced by organizations.

c)

Certifying specific cloud service providers.

d)

Defining coding standards for Python.

9.

Which standard provides guidelines for information security controls specific to cloud services?

a)

ISO 27017

b)

ISO 27001

c)

ISO 27701

d)

ISO 31000

10.

What is the relationship between Security Risk Assessments and Security Audits?

a)

They are the same thing.

b)

Audits identify the risks, while assessments verify the controls.

c)

Assessments identify and evaluate risks, while audits confirm that controls are working correctly.

d)

Audits are performed daily, while assessments are performed once a decade.

11.

Which of the following best describes 'Security Audits'?

a)

A casual conversation about security flaws.

b)

A formal, objective evaluation of an organization's security posture, controls, and policies.

c)

The process of installing antivirus software.

d)

The initial step of identifying assets.

12.

Which regulatory standard is specifically mentioned as a requirement for protecting health information?

a)

GDPR

b)

HIPAA

c)

PCI-DSS

d)

ISO 42001

13.

What was the first multiprogramming operating system introduced by IBM in 1964?

a)

Unix

b)

MS-DOS

c)

OS/360

d)

Linux

14.

Which component of an Operating System is considered the central core that manages critical system processes and hardware interaction?

a)

User Interface

b)

Kernel

c)

File System Manager

d)

Process Scheduler

15.

Which innovation allows multiple virtual machines (VMs) to run on a single physical machine?

a)

Containerization

b)

Virtualization

c)

Encryption

d)

Fragmentation

16.

What is the key difference between Virtual Machines (VMs) and Containers?

a)

VMs share the host OS, while containers have their own full OS.

b)

Containers do not include a full copy of the OS, while VMs do.

c)

Containers are slower than VMs.

d)

VMs are only used for Linux, containers for Windows.

17.

Which OS function ensures that programs have enough resources to run without interfering with others, using techniques like paging and swapping?

a)

Process Management

b)

Memory Management

c)

Device Management

d)

File System Management

18.

Which type of Operating System is designed to handle time-sensitive tasks with precise timing constraints, such as in industrial automation?

a)

Distributed Operating System

b)

Network Operating System

c)

Real-Time Operating System (RTOS)

d)

Cluster Operating System

19.

Which operating system is widely used for server management, cloud infrastructure, and is open-source?

a)

macOS

b)

Windows

c)

iOS

d)

Linux

20.

Which component of the OS allocates CPU time to processes and handles context switching?

a)

Memory Manager

b)

I/O Manager

c)

Process Scheduler

d)

File System Manager

21.

A "Cluster Operating System" is typically used in which environment?

a)

Smartphones

b)

High-Performance Computing (HPC)

c)

Single-user laptops

d)

Embedded household appliances

22.

Which of the following is NOT a step in the Secure Software Development Lifecycle (SDLC)?

a)

Threat Modeling

b)

Marketing Strategy

c)

Secure Coding Standards

d)

Automated Security Testing

23.

What is "Threat Modeling"?

a)

A proactive approach to identify potential threats and vulnerabilities before development.

b)

Testing software after it has been hacked.

c)

A method of designing graphical user interfaces.

d)

Writing code without planning.

24.

Which model is commonly used for Threat Modeling to analyze potential threats like Spoofing and Tampering?

a)

SWOT

b)

STRIDE

c)

AGILE

d)

PESTLE

25.

To prevent SQL injection attacks, which secure coding practice is recommended?

a)

Using hardcoded credentials

b)

Using parameterized queries and prepared statements

c)

Disabling error handling

d)

Using blocklists instead of allowlists

26.

Why should hardcoded credentials (like API keys or passwords) be avoided in source code?

a)

They take up too much memory.

b)

They make the code look messy.

c)

They can be easily discovered by attackers if the code is exposed.

d)

They slow down the compilation process.

27.

Which encryption standard is recommended for protecting data at rest?

a)

AES-256

b)

DES

c)

ROT13

d)

Plaintext

28.

What is the purpose of "Salting" when hashing passwords?

a)

To make the password shorter.

b)

To add random data to the password before hashing to increase security.

c)

To convert the password into plaintext.

d)

To remove special characters from the password.

29.

Which protocol should be used to encrypt data in transit to prevent Man-in-the-Middle (MITM) attacks?

a)

HTTP

b)

FTP

c)

Telnet

d)

TLS 1.2 or higher

30.

What does "MFA" stand for in the context of authentication?

a)

Multi-Factor Authorization

b)

Multi-Factor Authentication

c)

Main-Factor Access

d)

Managed-File Access

31.

Which principle restricts user permissions to only what is necessary for their role?

a)

Principle of Maximum Authority

b)

Principle of Least Privilege

c)

Principle of Open Access

d)

Principle of Redundancy

32.

Which mechanism helps prevent abuse and Denial-of-Service (DoS) attacks on APIs?

a)

Rate limiting and throttling

b)

Disabling HTTPS

c)

Allowing all CORS origins

d)

Hardcoding API keys

33.

What is a "Supply Chain Attack" in the context of application security?

a)

An attack on the physical delivery trucks.

b)

Exploiting vulnerabilities in third-party libraries or dependencies used by an application.

c)

Stealing hardware from the warehouse.

d)

Phishing emails sent to customers.

34.

Which tool is used to monitor and block malicious web traffic before it reaches the application?

a)

IDE

b)

WAF (Web Application Firewall)

c)

SQL Database

d)

Load Balancer

35.

What is "DevSecOps"?

a)

A development team that ignores security.

b)

Integrating security practices into the DevOps process from the start.

c)

A load balancer that manages security.

d)

A tool for encrypting passwords.

36.

In the context of API security, what does CORS stand for?

a)

Cross-Origin Resource Sharing

b)

Computer Operating Resource System

c)

Central Online Registration Service

d)

Code Optimization and Retrieval System

37.

Which of the following is a method to prevent Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)?

a)

Input validation and output encoding (sanitization)

b)

Using weak passwords

c)

Disabling firewalls

d)

Storing data in plain text

38.

What is the purpose of an API Gateway?

a)

To generate code automatically.

b)

To provide security controls like authentication and rate limiting for backend services.

c)

To increase the cost of hosting.

d)

To store the database files.

39.

According to Lesson 7, what is the first phase of the Incident Response Lifecycle?

a)

Containment

b)

Preparation

c)

Recovery

d)

Detection and Analysis

40.

Which phase of Incident Response involves cleaning the system of malicious artifacts?

a)

Identification

b)

Eradication

c)

Lessons Learned

d)

Preparation

41.

What is the main goal of the "Containment" phase?

a)

To punish the hacker.

b)

To keep the incident impact as small as possible and mitigate service disruptions.

c)

To restore systems to normal operation immediately.

d)

To training employees on phishing.

42.

Which phase is considered the most difficult part of incident response according to NIST?

a)

Post-Event Activity

b)

Detection and Analysis

c)

Preparation

d)

Recovery

43.

What happens during the "Post-Event Activity" or "Lessons Learned" phase?

a)

The team goes on vacation.

b)

The incident is analyzed to identify what went wrong and how to improve future responses.

c)

The backups are deleted.

d)

The servers are formatted.

44.

Incident response is defined as an organization's process of reacting to:

a)

Market fluctuations.

b)

IT threats such as cyberattacks, security breaches, and server downtime.

c)

Competitor marketing campaigns.

d)

Hiring new employees.

45.

What is a key benefit of using a solution like Jira Service Management in incident detection?

a)

It automatically writes code fixes.

b)

It allows teams to customize and filter alerts to avoid alert fatigue.

c)

It replaces the need for a security team.

d)

It slows down the network to prevent attacks.

46.

In a Business Continuity Plan (BCP), what does "Business Impact Analysis" (BIA) do?

a)

It reviews the budget for the Christmas party.

b)

It creates a holistic review of critical business processes and how they are affected by disasters.

c)

It lists the names of all employees.

d)

It designs the company logo.

47.

What is the "Recovery Point Objective" (RPO)?

a)

The maximum amount of time a system can be down.

b)

The maximum amount of data loss (measured in time) an organization can tolerate.

c)

The location where backups are stored.

d)

The cost of the recovery process.

48.

What is the "Recovery Time Objective" (RTO)?

a)

The target time to restore a business process or system after a disaster.

b)

The time it takes to backup data.

c)

The time it takes to discover a breach.

d)

The age of the oldest file on the server.

49.

Which of the following is a difference between Disaster Recovery (DR) and Business Continuity (BC)?

a)

BC focuses on technical restoration of data; DR focuses on keeping the business running.

b)

DR focuses on IT infrastructure recovery; BC focuses on maintaining critical business operations.

c)

There is no difference.

d)

DR is for small businesses; BC is for large enterprises.

50.

What is the Melissa Virus known for?

a)

Exploiting Microsoft Word macro functionality to spread via email.

b)

Creating a botnet of IoT devices.

c)

Being the first ransomware.

d)

Stealing credit card numbers from Target.

51.

The 2007 Cyberattacks on Estonia are an example of what type of attack?

a)

Phishing

b)

DDoS (Distributed Denial of Service)

c)

SQL Injection

d)

Ransomware

52.

The Marriott Hotel Data Breach (2018) compromised the personal information of approximately how many guests?

a)

1 million

b)

500 million

c)

10,000

d)

50 million

53.

Which phase of the Incident Response lifecycle includes "establishing the right tools and resources and training the team"?

a)

Detection

b)

Preparation

c)

Recovery

d)

Containment

54.

When setting up team communication channels during an incident, what is the goal?

a)

To confuse the attackers.

b)

To focus team communications in well-known places to avoid disjointed response.

c)

To broadcast the incident to the public immediately.

d)

To use as many different apps as possible.

55.

What is the purpose of "Secure Session Management"?

a)

To allow users to stay logged in forever.

b)

To use short-lived tokens and invalidate sessions after inactivity to prevent hijacking.

c)

To store session IDs in a public text file.

d)

To speed up the internet connection.

56.

Which concept involves "reviewing security policies to ensure they are followed and effective"?

a)

Risk Assessment

b)

Security Audit

c)

Threat Modeling

d)

Code Obfuscation

57.

Which of the following represents a "strong" password policy?

a)

Requiring 4-digit pins only.

b)

Encouraging complex passwords/passphrases and preventing common weak passwords.

c)

Asking users to change passwords every day.

d)

Allowing the use of the username as the password.

58.

What is the role of a "Hypervisor"?

a)

To manage virtual machines and handle resource management without a full host OS.

b)

To compile Java code.

c)

To act as a web server.

d)

To clean physical viruses from hardware.

59.

Which Linux distribution is mentioned as a notable enterprise version used in business environments?

a)

Android

b)

Red Hat Enterprise Linux (RHEL)

c)

Kali Linux

d)

Arch Linux

60.

In the context of Mobile App Security, what is the purpose of code obfuscation?

a)

To make the app run faster.

b)

To make it harder for attackers to reverse-engineer or tamper with the code.

c)

To reduce the file size of the app.

d)

To automatically fix bugs.