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WorksheetsLeidenburg Quiz
Total questions: 95
Worksheet time: 50mins
How is the capital recovery factor (A/P,i,n) related to the uniform series sinking fund factor (A/P,i,n)? i is the effective annual rate of return, and n is the number of periods.
(A/P,i,n) = (A/F,i,n) - i
(A/P,i,n) = (A/P,i,n) + n/n
(A/P,i,n) = (A/P,i,n)/i
(A/P,i,n) = (A/F,i,n) + i
What is an annuity?
a series of uniform amounts over a period of time
a lump sum at the end of the year
an annual repayment of a loan
the future worth of a present amount
Which of the following expressions is incorrect?
The future worth of an annuity, (F/A,I,n) = 1/(A,F,i,n)
(A/F,i,n)-i = (A/P,i,n)
The future worth of a present amount, (F/P,I,n) = 1/(P,F,i,n)
The future worth of an annuity, (P/A,I,n) = 1/(A,P,i,n)
When using net present worth calculations to compare two projects, which of the following could invalidate the calculation?
non-conventional cash flows
evaluating over different time periods
differences in the magnitudes of the projects
mutually exclusive projects
Assuming 1 annual rate of return, n=number of years, F=future worth, and P=present worth, what is the future worth of a present amount P?
P(1+i)⁻ⁿ
P(1+i)ⁱ
P(1+i)ⁿ⁻¹
P(1+i)ⁿ
What must two investments with the same present worth and unequal lives have?
Different salvage values
Different equivalent uniform annual cash flows
Identical salvage values
Identical equivalent uniform annual cash flows
What is the formula for a straight-line depreciation rate?
average salvage value/estimated service life
100% net salvage value/estimated service life
net salvage value/estimated service life
100% - % net salvage value/estimated service life
Which of the following is true regarding the minimum attractive rate of return used in judging proposed investments?
It is larger than the interest rate used to discount expected cash flow from investments.
It is frequently a policy decision made by an organization's management.
It is not relevant in engineering economy studies.
It is the same for every organization.
Which of the following statement is NOT correct?
Effective rate of return in options A, B and C is the difference between 12.55% and 12%. (d)
$1 compounded quarterly at 3% for n yr has a future value of (1.03)⁴ⁿ compounding quarterly at a nominal rate of 12%/yr is equivalent to compounding annually at a rate of 12.55%. (b)
Compounding quarterly at a nominal rate of 12%/yr is equivalent to compounding annually at a rate of 12.55%. (c)
A nominal rate of 12% per annum compounded quarterly is the same as 12%/4=3% quarter. (a)
Which of the following situations has a conventional cash flow so that an internal rate of return can be safely calculated and used?
You invest in a safe dividend stock and receive dividends each year.
You purchase a house and pay the bank in monthly installments.
You lease a car and pay by the month.
Your company undertakes a mining project in which the land must be reclaimed at the end of the project.
The economics order quantity (EOQ) is defined as the order that minimizes the inventory cost per unit time. Which of the following is not an assumption of the basic EOQ model with no shortages?
The entire reorder quantity is delivered instantaneously.
There is an upper bound on the quantity ordered.
There is a positive cost on each unit inventoried.
The demand rate is uniform and constant.
Which of the following events will cause the optimal lot size, given by the classic EOQ model with no shortages, to increase?
A decrease in demand (b)
An increase in demand (c)
Either option A or C (d)
A decrease in inventory carrying cost (a)
What is a borrower of a particular loan almost always required to do during repayment?
Repay the loan over an agreed-upon amount of time (b)
Both options A and C (d)
Pay exactly the same amount of principal each payment (c)
Pay exactly the same amount of interest each payment (a)
What is "work in process" classified as?
an expense
an asset
a liability
a revenue
What is the indirect product cost (IPC) spending variance?
The IPC volume-adjusted budget minus the total IPC absorbed
The difference between the actual IPC and IPC absorbed
The difference between the actual IPC and IPC volume-adjusted budget.
The IPC volume-adjusted budget (fixed + (volume) (variable IPC rate))
Firm A uses full absorption costing while firm B uses variable product costing. How will the financial statements of these companies differ?
Firm A has a higher cost of goods sold and, therefore, a smaller profit.
Firm A has a higher cost of goods sold, higher inventory value, and higher retained earnings.
Firm A has a smaller cost of goods sold and a larger profit.
Firm A has a smaller cost of goods sold, no change in inventory value and no change in retained earnings.
How is the material purchase price variance defined?
(quantity purchased) (actual price) - (quantity purchased) (standard price)
actual price - standard price) (quantity used)
(quantity issued - standard price) (standard price)
(quantity purchased - quantity used) (actual price)
Which of the following does not affect owner's equity?
License to start operation
Expense to get license to start operation
Dividends paid
Invested capital
Higrow Company is planning to grow 30% during the next fiscal year. What has to increase if Higrow is to achieve their goal?
The ratio of total assets to equity (b)
The ratio of sales to total assets (a)
Any combination of A, B and C Sales=(sales)/(total assets)/(equity) (d)
Equity (c)
Corporation is applying for a short-term loan. In reviewing Z Corporation's financial records, the banker finds a current ratio of 2.0, an acid test ratio of 0.5, and an accounts receivable period of 70d. What should the banker do?
Both options B and C (d)
Suggest that Z Corporation be more aggressive I collecting on its invoices (c)
Suggest that & Corporation lower its inventories (b)
Be concerned that 2 Corporation will be unable to meet the payments (a)
Companies A and B are identical except for their inventory accounting systems. Company A uses the last-in, first-cut convention while company B uses the first-in, first-out convention. How will their financial statements differ in an inflationary environment?
Company A's profits will be higher and the book value of their inventory will be higher than for company B.
Company B's profits and inventory book value will be higher than for company A.
Company B's profits will be higher than A's, but inventory book value will be lower.
Company A's profits will be higher and the book value of their inventory will be lower than for company B.
What is the acid test ratio?
The ratio of all assets to total liabilities
The ratio of gross margin to operating, sales, and administrative expenses
The ratio of current assets (exclusive of inventory) to total current liabilities
The ratio of owner's equity to total current liabilities
Which statement is true for a fluid?
It has a very regular molecular structure.
It is a liquid only.
It cannot sustain a shear force at rest.
It cannot sustain a shear force.
Which of the following is NOT a basic component of motion of a fluid element?
translation
twist
rotation
angular distortion
Which of the following must be satisfied by the flow of any fluid, real or ideal?
I. Newton's second law of motion
II. The continuity equation
III. The requirement of a uniform velocity distribution
IV. Newton's law of viscosity
V. The principle of conservation of energy
I, II, and IV
I, II, III, and IV
I, II, and V
I, II, and III
For a fluid, viscosity is defined as the constant of proportionality between shear stress and what other variable?
Time derivative of pressure
Spatial derivative of density
Time derivative of density
Spatial derivative of velocity
Surface tension has which of the following properties?
I. It has units of force per unit length
II. It exists whenever there is a density discontinuity
III. It is strongly affected by pressure
II only
I only
I and II
III only
A leak from a faucet comes out in separate drops. Which of the following is the main cause of this phenomenon?
surface tension
viscosity
gravity
air resistance
If the shear stress in a fluid varies linearly with the velocity gradient, which of the following describes the fluid?
It is a Newtonian fluid
It is a perfect gas
It is Inviscid
It is at a constant temperature
How are lines of constant pressure in a fluid related to the force field?
They are perpendicular only to the force of gravity.
They are perpendicular to the force field.
They are at a 45° angle to the force field.
They are parallel to the force field.
Which of the following statements about a streamline is most accurate?
It is defined for non-uniform flow only.
It is a line normal to the velocity vector everywhere.
It is fixed in space in steady flow.
It is a path of a fluid particle.
Which of the following describes a streamline?
I. It is a mathematical concept.
II. It cannot be crossed by the flow.
Ill. It is a line of constant entropy
b. I only
a. I and II
II only
I and III
Under what conditions is mass conserved in fluid flow?
The flow is adiabatic
It is always conserved
The fluid is baratropic
The flow is isentropic
What is the absolute velocity of a real fluid at a surface?
The same as the bulk fluid velocity
The velocity of the surface
proportional to the smoothness of the surface
zero
What is the origin of the energy conservation equation in flow systems?
the second law of thermodynamics
Newton's second law of motion
the first law of thermodynamics
Newton's first law of motion
Which of the following is the basis for Bernoulli's law for fluid flow?
the continuity equation
the principle of conservation of energy
the principle of conservation of momentum
the principle of conservation of mass
Under which of the following conditions is Bernoulli's equation valid?
the fluid must be incompressible
all points evaluated must be on the same streamline
the fluid must be in viscid
all of the above
Under certain flow conditions, the expression for the first law of thermodynamics for a control volume reduces to Bernoulli's equation.
I. steady flow
II. incompressible fluid
III. no frictional losses of energy
IV. no heat transfer or change in internal energy
I only
I and II only
I, II, III and IV
I and IV
Which of the following ratios represents a physical interpretation of the Reynolds' number?
Re = buoyant forces/inertial forces.
Re = viscous forces/inertial forces
Re = inertial forces/viscous forces
Re = drag forces/viscous forces
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
Steady flows do not change with time at any point.
The Reynolds' number is the ratio of the viscous force to the inertial force.
The Navier-Stokes equation is the equation of motion for the viscous newtonian fluid.
Bernoulli's equation only holds on the same streamline.
From what were the curves of the Moody friction factor diagram for pipe flow determined?
experimental results of in viscous fluids
experimental results of in viscid fluids
theoretical solutions of the Navier-Stokes equations
calculations based on potential flow
What is the most nearly the friction factor for flow in a circular pipe where the Reynolds' number is 1000?
0.008
0.06
0.1
0.08
For the pipe flow in the laminar region, how is the friction factor related to the Reynolds' number?
f∝(1/Re)²
f∝Re
f∝1/Re
f∝Re²
Which of the following flow meters measure (s) the average fluid velocity rather than a point or local velocity in a pipe?
I. venturi meter
II. pitot tube
III. impact tube
IV. orifice meter
V. hot-wire anemometer
II only
I only
I and IV
II and V
For fully developed laminar flow of fluids through circular pipes, the average velocity is what fraction of the maximum velocity?
¾
¼
⅛
½
Which of the following are intensive properties?
I. Temperature
II. Pressure
III. Composition
IV. Mass
I and II
I, II and III
IV only
I only
How many independent properties are required to completely fix the equilibrium state of a pure gaseous compound?
3
0
2
1
Which of the following thermodynamic relations is incorrect?
H = U + pV
U = Q - W
Tds = dH - Vdp
Tds = du + pdV
Which of the following relationships defines enthalpy?
h = pv + T
h = u + p/v
h = u + pv
h = u + P/T
Which of the following is true for water at a reference temperature where enthalpy is zero?
Entropy is nonzero.
Internal energy is negative.
Specific volume is zero.
Vapour pressure is zero.
The compressibility factor, Z, is used for predicting the behavior of non-ideal gases. How is compressibility factor defined relative to an ideal gas? (subscripts "C" refers to critical value.)
z = P/P꜀
z = (T/T)(P꜀/P)
z = T/T꜀
z = pV/RT
On what plane is Mollier diagram plotted?
p - V
p - T
s - u
h - s
How is the quality, x, of a liquid-vapor mixture defined?
The fraction of the total mass that is saturated liquid The quality of the liquid-vapour mixture is defined as the fraction of the total mass that is saturated vapour.
The fraction of the total volume that is saturated liquid
The fraction of the total mass that is saturated vapour
The fraction of the total volume that is saturated vapour
What is the expression for the heat vaporization
hg = enthalpy of the saturated vapor
hf = enthalpy of the saturated liquid
hg + hf
h²g - h²f
hf - hg
hg - hf
The first law of thermodynamics is base on which of the following principles?
the enthalpy-entropy relationship
action-reaction
conservation of mass
conservation of energy
The general energy equation for an open system involves the following five terms.
I. accumulation of energy
II. net energy transfer by work (standard sign convention)
III. net energy transfer by heat (standard sign convention)
IV. transfer of energy in by mass flow
V. transfer of energy out by mass flow
I = II + III + IV + V
I = II - III - IV + V
I = - II + III + IV - V
I = II + III + IV - V
What is the value of the work done for a closed, reversible, isometric system?
positive
zero
negative
positive or negative
The expansion of a gas through a plug at a high pressure results in a temperature rise, while at lower pressures a temperature drop occurs. The Joule-Thompson coefficient, μJ T, is defined as the ratio of the change in temperature to the change in pressure. The temperature at which μJ T changes from positive to negative is called the inversion temperature. When μJ T is negative, which of the following statements is true?
No liquification is possible
Gases may be liquefied by pressurization
Only trace liquification is possible
Liquification can be obtained only with a catalyst
How does an adiabatic process compare to an isentropic process?
Adiabatic: heat transfer = 0; isentropic: heat transfer ≠ 0
Adiabatic: heat transfer 0; isentropic: heat transfer = 0
Both: heat transfer = 0; isentropic: reversible
Adiabatic: reversible: isentropic: not reversible.
What is true about the polytropic exponent, n, for a perfect gas undergoing an isobaric process?
n ＞0
n ＜0
n = 0
n → ∞
During an adiabatic, internally reversible process, what is true about the change in entropy?
It is always greater than zero
It is always zero
It is always less than zero
It is infinite
For an irreversible process, what is true about the total change in entropy of the system and surroundings?
dS＞0
dS＜0
dS = ∞
dS = 0
For which type of process is the equation dQ = TdS valid?
Irreversible
Isothermal
Isobaric
Reversible
Which of the following is true for any process?
△S surroundings △S system ≤ 0
△S surroundings △S system＞0
△S surroundings △S system ＜0
△S surroundings △S system ≥ 0
Which of the following thermodynamic cycles is the most efficient?
Carnot
Combined Brayton-Rankine
Rankine
Brayton
The ideal reversible Carnot cycle involves several basic processes. What type of processes are they?
two adiabatic and two isentropic
all isentropic
two isothermal and two isentropic
all adiabatic
Which of the following is not an advantage of a superheated, closed Rankine cycle over an open Rankine cycle?
increased turbine life
increased efficiency
increased boiler life
increased turbine work output
Which of the following sets of reversible processes describes an ideal Otto cycle?
I. adiabatic compression, constant volume heat addition, adiabatic expansion, constant
volume heat rejection
II. isothermal compression, isobaric heat addition, isothermal expansion, isobaric heat
rejection.
I and II in succession
II only
I only
II and I in succession
Which of the following are not units of pressure?
kPa
Bars
Kg/m²
N/cm³
Which of the following is not a unit of work?
Erg
N·m
Kg·m²/s²
Dyne
Which of the following is the definition of a joule?
A unit of power
A kg·m/s²
A N·m
A rate of change of energy
Which of the following is not equal to or the same as 1 mol of the substance indicated?
16 g of oxygen (O₂) molecules
22.4 L of nitrogen (N₂) gas at STP
12 g of carbon atoms
6.02 x 10²³ oxygen (O₂) molecules
Which one of the following is standard temperature and pressure (STP)?
32°F and zero pressure
0K and one atmosphere pressure
0°C and one atmosphere pressure
0°F and zero pressure
Which of the following statements is false for an ideal gas?
Collisions between gas molecules are perfectly elastic and result in no decrease in kinetic energy.
pV = nRT
No attractive forces exist between the molecules.
The molecules behave as solid spheres of finite radius.
The following statements are made with regard to the boiling point of a liquid. Which statement is false?
At high elevations, water boils at a lower temperature because of a reduction in the surface tension of the water.
The boiling point is the temperature at which the vapor pressure of a liquid equals the applied pressure on the liquid.
separated by slowly raising the temperature to draw off each fraction (i.e., by fractional distillation)
A nonvolatile substance having zero vapor pressure in solution. (e.g., sugars or salts) has no true boiling point.
The critical point for a mixture occurs for which of the following cases?
The liquid has no absorbed gas.
The vapor phase is stable.
The liquid is completely vaporized.
The vapor and liquid exist in a single form.
How is 'motality' defined?
The number of gram - formula weights of solute per liter
The number of moles of solute in 1000 g of solvent
The number of gram - equivalent weights of solute in 1 L of solution
The number of moles of solute in 1 L of solution
Which of the following postulates does Bohr's model of the hydrogen atom involve?
The electron is an atom has an infinite range of motion allowed to it.
In any of its energy states, the electron moves in a circular orbit about the nucleus.
The states of allowed electron motion are those in which the angular momentum of the electron is an integral multiple of H/π.
When an atom changes from a low energy state to a high energy state, it emits a quantum of radiation whose energy is equal to the difference in energy between the two states.
Which of the following elements and compounds is reactive in its pure form?
sodium (Na)
hydrochloric acid (HCI)
carbon dioxide (CO₂)
helium (He)
Two major types of chemical bonds are observed in chemical bonding: ionic and covalent. Which of the following has a bond that is the least ionic in character?
H₂
H₂O
NaCI
CH₄
Which of the following statement is false?
It is not possible for bonds between a pair of atoms to be different (e.g., different bond lengths or bond energies) in different compounds.
The bond length for a pair of atoms is the point of lowest energy.
The repulsion between two nuclei increases as their charge increases.
The electrostatic repulsion between two nuclei increases as the atoms are brought together.
Which of the following statement is false?
The average bond energy is the approximate energy required to break a bond in any compound in which it occurs.
The change in enthalpy is negative when energy is absorbed in the formation of a compound from its elements.
The energy released when a gaseous molecule is formed from its gaseous atoms can be estimated using average bond energies.
For a diatomic molecule, the bond dissociation energy is the change in the enthalpy of the reaction when the diatomic molecule is separated into atoms.
A substance is oxidized when which of the following occurs?
It becomes more negative.
It gives off heat.
It turns red.
It loses electrons.
In order to assign oxidation states in polyatomic molecules, which of the following rules is followed?
The oxidation of all elements in any allotropic form is zero.
The oxidation state of hydrogen is always +1.
The oxidation state of oxygen is always -2.
All other oxidation states are chosen such that the algebraic sum of the oxidation states for the ion or molecule is zero.
What is the oxidation state of nitrogen in NO₃?
+3
+5
+1
-1
What is the oxidation number of Cr in the dichromate ion (Cr₂0₇)⁻²?
6
-1
3
0
Reactions generally proceed faster at higher temperatures because of which of the following?
The activation energy is less.
The molecules are less energetic.
Both options A and B
The molecules collide more frequently.
Which of the following statements is false?
The differential rate law is the mathematical expression that shows how the rate of a reaction depends on volume.
The net rate at which a reaction proceeds from left to right is equal to the forward rate minus the reverse rate.
In general, as reaction products are formed, they react with each other and re-form reactants.
At equilibrium, the net reaction rate is zero.
Which of the following statements is false?
It is possible to influence the products of a chemical change by controlling the factors which affect reaction rates.
Heterogeneous reactions are the reactions that take place at the boundary surface between two faces.
In general, when any two compounds are unmixed, a large number of reactions may be possible, but those which proceed the fastest are the ones observed.
When the temperature is raised, the rate of any reaction is always increased.
Which of the following statements is false?
In considering chemical equilibrium, the relative stabilities of products and reactants are important.
In treating reaction rates, the rate at which reactants are converted to products is important.
In considering chemical equilibrium, the pathway from the initial state to the final state is important.
In treating reaction rates, the sequence of physical processes by which reactants are converted to products is important.
The voltage of a galvanic cell does not depend on which of the following parameters?
Pressure of solutions
Volume of solutions
Temperature of solutions
Concentration of solutions
Which of the following statements regarding a galvanic cell is false?
When a current I flows through the voltage difference Δε for a time, t, the electrical work performed is (Δε) It.
The cell voltage, Δε, is totally independent of the number of electrons transferred in a given reaction.
A negative value of cell voltage Δε means that the reaction in the cell proceeds spontaneously from right to left.
If the standard potential of a cell is zero, a concentration difference alone is sufficient to generate a voltage.
Which one of the following statements regarding organic substances is false?
Organic substances generally dissolve in high-concentration acids.
All organic matter contains carbon.
Organic substances generally do not dissolve in water.
Organic matter is generally stable at very high temperatures.
Which one of the following is most likely to prove that a substance is inorganic?
The substance evaporates in room temperature and pressure.
Analysis shows that the substance contains hydrogen.
The substance floats in water.
The substance is heated together with copper oxide and the resulting gases are found to have no effect on limestone.
According to the Bohr model of the hydrogen atom, which of the following statements are true?
