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AP Gov Midterm 2025

Total questions: 81

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which idea is most closely associated with John Locke’s influence on American government?

a)

Natural rights of life, liberty, property

b)

Absolute monarchy preserves social order

c)

Divine right justifies royal authority

d)

Collectivist rights over individual liberties

2.

Montesquieu’s key contribution to political theory emphasized which governmental principle?

a)

Direct democracy in all cases

b)

Majority rule without limits

c)

Separation of powers among branches

d)

Total legislative supremacy

3.

In political philosophy, what does the social contract primarily explain?

a)

The consent to be governed

b)

Military power ensures stability

c)

Religious law guides governance

d)

Economic wealth creates rights

4.

Republicanism in the American context centers on which core idea?

a)

Hereditary rulers maintain order

b)

Markets should regulate politics

c)

Courts control elected officials

d)

Government derives from the people

5.

Which example best illustrates participatory democracy in practice?

a)

Experts managing monetary policy

b)

Judges issuing constitutional rulings

c)

Lobbyists drafting complex bills

d)

High voter turnout in local elections

6.

Elite democracy assumes which of the following about policy making?

a)

Military officers should govern

b)

Rich, small group of people making decisions. Electoral College

c)

Masses directly decide every policy

d)

Random selection ensures fairness

7.

Which scenario reflects pluralist democracy?

a)

Technocrats rule without voting

b)

Citizens avoid organized politics

c)

One party dominates all offices

d)

Multiple interest groups competing

8.

What is the primary function of an interest group?

a)

Influence public policy outcomes

b)

Conduct nationwide elections

c)

Interpret constitutional disputes

d)

Administer criminal penalties

9.

Which statement aligns with typical Federalist ideas during ratification debates?

a)

Direct democracy solves all conflicts

b)

State sovereignty should be absolute

c)

Strong national government supports unity

d)

Weak central authority prevents tyranny

10.

Which critique was common among Anti-Federalists?

a)

Central power threatens individual rights

b)

National power must expand commerce

c)

Executive needs more foreign authority

d)

Courts should override state juries

11.

Which problem best describes a weakness of the Articles of Confederation?

a)

Direct taxation of citizens

b)

No executive to enforce laws, no taxation

c)

Too powerful national judiciary

d)

Equal representation in Senate

12.

The Great Compromise (Connecticut) created which legislative structure?

a)

Bicameral with mixed representation

b)

Unicameral with equal seats

c)

Bicameral with proportional seats

d)

Tricameral with appointed seats

13.

Which statement correctly describes the impeachment process?

a)

Courts impeach, Senate tries

b)

President impeaches, House tries

c)

Senate impeaches, Courts try

d)

House impeaches, Senate tries

14.

Which concept is central to federalism?

a)

Division of power between levels, shared with state and federal

b)

Concentration of power in states

c)

Elimination of national authority

d)

Supremacy of local ordinances

15.

What does the 9th Amendment primarily protect?

a)

Freedom from quartering soldiers

b)

Unenumerated rights of the people

c)

Powers reserved to the states

d)

Right to a speedy criminal trial

16.

What does the 10th Amendment affirm?

a)

Powers reserved to the states

b)

Unenumerated rights of people

c)

Ban on excessive bail

d)

Right to bear arms for militias

17.

Which is an example of an exclusive power of the national government?

a)

Running public school districts

b)

Issuing local business licenses

c)

Coining money and regulating currency

d)

Setting municipal speed limits

18.

Which best defines concurrent powers?

a)

Shared by state and national

b)

Held only by national level

c)

Held only by state level

d)

Delegated to local governments

19.

Which best describes reserved powers?

a)

Powers held by the courts

b)

Powers kept by the states

c)

Powers listed in Article I

d)

Powers shared by all levels

20.

Which statement accurately defines a categorical grant?

a)

Federal funds for a specific purpose

b)

State funds with broad discretion

c)

Local taxes for general services

d)

Block grants without conditions

21.

Which best describes a block grant in U.S. federalism?

a)

Federal funds for broad state programs

b)

Federal funds with strict program rules

c)

State tax revenue shared to cities

d)

Loans that states repay with interest

22.

What distinguishes an unfunded mandate from other mandates?

a)

Applies only to federal agencies

b)

Provides full federal cost coverage

c)

Requires state action without funding

d)

Allows states to opt out freely

23.

Which clause of the 14th Amendment most directly protects individual rights from state action?

a)

Commerce and Supremacy Clause

b)

Full Faith and Credit Clause

c)

Necessary and Proper Clause

d)

Due Process and Equal Protection

24.

Federalist 10 primarily argues for which solution to control the effects of factions?

a)

Rule by a hereditary elite class

b)

Ban organized interest groups entirely

c)

Direct democracy with town meetings

d)

Large republic to dilute faction power

25.

Federalist 51 emphasizes which structural principle to prevent tyranny?

a)

Separation of powers with checks

b)

Unitary executive with speed

c)

Legislative dominance in budgeting

d)

Judicial supremacy over policy

26.

Brutus 1 warns that the proposed Constitution would lead to what outcome?

a)

Stable coalition governments

b)

Efficient local policy innovations

c)

Stronger state sovereignty balance

d)

Consolidated national authority

27.

Which statement best reflects the core of the 10th Amendment?

a)

Reserved powers to the states

b)

National supremacy over states

c)

Implied powers for Congress

d)

Rights protected against searches

28.

In McCulloch v. Maryland, the Court decided what about federal power?

a)

Federal agencies need state charters

b)

Implied powers validate a national bank

c)

Congress must have enumerated powers only

d)

States can tax federal instruments freely

29.

A state claims a federal environmental rule is an unfunded mandate. Which factor most supports that claim?

a)

Penalties are limited to small fines

b)

States were consulted during drafting

c)

Rule applies only to federal lands

d)

Required compliance without federal money

30.

Which qualification is required to serve in the U.S. House of Representatives?

a)

At least 25 years old, seven years a citizen

b)

At least 30 years old, nine years a citizen

c)

At least 35 years old, natural-born citizen

d)

At least 21 years old, five years a resident

31.

Which term length correctly matches the U.S. Senate?

a)

Eight-year terms, limited re-election

b)

Six-year terms, staggered classes

c)

Two-year terms, all seats elected

d)

Four-year terms, concurrent cycles

32.

What is a primary role of the Vice President in the Senate?

a)

Authors majority party platform

b)

Presides and breaks tie votes

c)

Chairs all standing committees

d)

Schedules floor debate time

33.

Which responsibility best describes the Speaker of the House?

a)

Leads House agenda and presides

b)

Negotiates treaties with nations

c)

Commands National Guard forces

d)

Appoints federal district judges

34.

Why does majority status matter in Congress?

a)

Ensures automatic bill passage

b)

Guarantees executive vetoes

c)

Provides judicial review power

d)

Controls committees and agenda

35.

What do party whips primarily do?

a)

Count votes and enforce discipline

b)

Draft constitutional amendments

c)

Lead conference committees

d)

Rule on points of order

36.

Which step commonly occurs in the process of how a bill becomes law?

a)

Supreme Court oral argument

b)

Committee review and markup

c)

Cabinet-level rulemaking vote

d)

Electoral College certification

37.

What is a joint committee?

a)

Temporary House-only group

b)

Members from both chambers

c)

Partisan campaign committee

d)

Senate committee on treaties

38.

Which description fits a standing committee?

a)

Bipartisan conference negotiators

b)

Short-term task force mission

c)

Permanent panel with jurisdiction

d)

Entire House acting as one body

39.

What is the main purpose of a select committee?

a)

Confirm executive nominees

b)

Negotiate budget resolutions

c)

Manage routine legislation

d)

Investigate a specific issue

40.

When is a conference committee used?

a)

To reconcile bill versions

b)

To approve treaty ratification

c)

To begin impeachment trial

d)

To assign subcommittee chairs

41.

What is the Committee of the Whole in the House?

a)

Entire House as one committee

b)

Senate sitting as one body

c)

Joint session with the Court

d)

State legislatures convened

42.

What is a discharge petition used for in the House?

a)

Force a bill to the floor

b)

Start a treaty ratification

c)

Initiate a judicial review

d)

Remove a committee chair

43.

Which Senate procedure allows extended debate to delay a vote on a bill?

a)

Cloture motion limiting debate

b)

Filibuster by continuous speech

c)

Unanimous consent agreement

d)

Committee markup and revision

44.

What is the purpose of cloture in the Senate?

a)

To send a bill to conference committee

b)

To introduce a new appropriations bill

c)

To end a filibuster and limit debate

d)

To confirm presidential appointments

45.

Pork barrel spending is most likely used to

a)

Provide targeted benefits to a member’s district

b)

Fund nationwide infrastructure upgrades

c)

Expand mandatory entitlement programs

d)

Reduce the overall federal deficit

46.

Logrolling in Congress refers to

a)

Trading votes to support each other’s bills

b)

Assigning bills to standing committees

c)

Holding the floor to delay a vote

d)

Negotiating with the executive branch

47.

Which category of federal spending is required by law and continues without annual approval?

a)

Capital spending on federal buildings

b)

Discretionary spending appropriated yearly

c)

Mandatory spending set by statutes

d)

Emergency supplemental appropriations

48.

Discretionary spending primarily involves

a)

Court-ordered expenditures

b)

State-funded matching grants

c)

Annual appropriations decisions

d)

Automatic entitlement payments

49.

Deficit spending occurs when the government

a)

Runs a balanced annual budget

b)

Collects more taxes than it spends

c)

Spends more than its revenues

d)

Eliminates all discretionary programs

50.

In the delegate model of representation, legislators

a)

Vote based on personal judgment

b)

Follow the preferences of constituents

c)

Prioritize national over local interests

d)

Balance personal views with party goals

51.

The trustee model of representation expects legislators to

a)

Mirror constituent opinions directly

b)

Act using their own informed judgment

c)

Exchange votes to advance district bills

d)

Follow party leadership on all votes

52.

Under the politico model of representation, a legislator

a)

Always votes with the party majority

b)

Alternates between delegate and trustee roles

c)

Rejects constituent input entirely

d)

Defers decisions to committee chairs

53.

What constitutional principle is reinforced by the legacy of Baker v. Carr?

a)

Federal supremacy over state taxation

b)

Absolute immunity for legislative acts

c)

Justiciability of apportionment and equal representation

d)

Judicial review over executive actions

54.

Shaw v. Reno primarily addressed

a)

Limits on campaign contributions

b)

Racial gerrymandering and equal protection

c)

Powers of congressional committees

d)

Authority to issue executive orders

55.

What is the role of the Executive Branch?

a)

to write and pass new laws

b)

to interpret laws in courts

c)

to enforce federal laws nationwide

d)

to fund and audit agencies

56.

Qualifications of the Executive Branch?

a)

no age requirement stated

b)

natural-born citizen requirement

c)

appointed by Congress

d)

lifetime judicial tenure

57.

What is the 22nd Amendment?

a)

limits presidential terms

b)

abolishes the Electoral College

c)

grants voting at eighteen

d)

establishes income tax

58.

What is the role of the Department of Justice?

a)

manage public schooling

b)

enforce federal law

c)

conduct foreign diplomacy

d)

supervise agriculture

59.

What is the role of the Department of State?

a)

run domestic policing

b)

administer federal taxes

c)

handle foreign affairs

d)

regulate energy markets

60.

What is the role of the Department of Treasury?

a)

direct space exploration

b)

manage national finances

c)

lead military strategy

d)

oversee public health

61.

What is the role of the Electoral College? How does the system work?

a)

Congress selects president

b)

courts choose finalists

c)

direct popular vote

d)

states appoint electors

62.

What is the 25th Amendment? Why is it significant?

a)

details presidential succession

b)

creates cabinet departments

c)

repeals term limits entirely

d)

expands voting to minors

63.

What's a policy agenda?

a)

prioritized government issues

b)

formal court procedures

c)

list of campaign donors

d)

budget line-item ledger

64.

Which action best defines a presidential veto?

a)

Delaying a bill until next session

b)

Rejecting a bill sent by Congress

c)

Amending a bill after signature

d)

Returning a bill to committee

65.

Bargaining and persuasion by a President usually aim to

a)

Reduce Supreme Court caseloads

b)

Increase executive salaries

c)

Rewrite laws without Congress

d)

Build coalitions to pass policies

66.

How can presidential approval ratings influence bargaining and persuasion?

a)

Higher ratings strengthen leverage

b)

Lower ratings guarantee bill passage

c)

Higher ratings limit public outreach

d)

Lower ratings remove Senate filibuster

67.

What is an executive order?

a)

Directive managing federal operations

b)

Statute enacted by Congress

c)

Treaty ratified by the Senate

d)

Judicial ruling from the Court

68.

Why are signing statements considered important?

a)

They nominate federal judges directly

b)

They fund agencies without budgets

c)

They repeal laws without Congress

d)

They explain how a law will be enforced

69.

In federal appointments, Advice and Consent refers to

a)

Senate approval of key nominees

b)

House confirmation of ambassadors

c)

Court review of Cabinet selections

d)

State approval of military officers

70.

Which presidential appointments typically require Senate approval?

a)

Cabinet secretaries and ambassadors

b)

White House personal staff

c)

Military unit commanders

d)

State governors and mayors

71.

Which constitutional article establishes the Judicial Branch of the U.S. government?

a)

Article III establishes the courts

b)

Article IV establishes the courts

c)

Article II establishes the courts

d)

Article I establishes the courts

72.

What is original jurisdiction?

a)

Power to hear a case first

b)

Authority to review state laws

c)

Authority to hear appeals only

d)

Power to enforce Court rulings

73.

What is appellate jurisdiction?

a)

Authority to impeach federal judges

b)

Power to hear appeals from lower courts

c)

Power to issue advisory opinions

d)

Authority to hear a case first

74.

Describe how Marbury v. Madison led to Judicial Review?

a)

It forced states to follow federal treaties

b)

It created the federal district courts

c)

It limited Congress’s taxing power only

d)

It established the Court’s power to void laws

75.

What is Judicial Review?

a)

Power to appoint federal judges

b)

Authority to interpret the Constitution

c)

Power to declare laws unconstitutional

d)

Authority to enforce criminal sentences

76.

What happens if evidence is found illegally?

a)

It is excluded from trial

b)

It must be used by prosecution

c)

It is sent to federal appeals

d)

It is kept for sentencing only

77.

What is the equal protection clause?

a)

Creates separate federal schooling

b)

Requires equal treatment under law

c)

Demands equal voting turnout

d)

Mandates equal state tax rates

78.

Why is it important for the Supreme Court to have precedents?

a)

They guide consistent legal decisions

b)

They allow Congress to appeal

c)

They increase judicial salaries

d)

They reduce the number of trials

79.

Which term best describes a government system where power is divided between national and state levels?

a)

Confederation with weak central coordination

b)

Authoritarian regime with concentrated authority

c)

Federal system sharing sovereignty across levels

d)

Unitary government structure with central control

80.

Which document typically outlines citizens’ fundamental rights and governmental limits?

a)

National budget detailing fiscal appropriations

b)

Constitution establishing legal frameworks

c)

Treaty regulating international boundaries

d)

Referendum pamphlet explaining ballot measures

81.

Which scenario best illustrates checks and balances in a democracy?

a)

Courts drafting tax policy for the legislature

b)

Executive veto reviewed and overridden by legislature

c)

Military appointing judges to constitutional courts

d)

Legislature selecting local police chiefs nationwide