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US/AZ GOVERNMENT REVIEW

Total questions: 127

Worksheet time: 1hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines popular sovereignty in the context of American government?

a)

States possess authority independent of national power

b)

Courts hold ultimate power over elected officials

c)

Government derives power from the consent of the people

d)

Executives inherit power through family lineage

2.

Natural rights are best described as which of the following?

a)

Inherent rights such as life, liberty, and property

b)

Privileges granted by legislative majorities

c)

Benefits provided through federal programs

d)

Rights available only to citizens who vote

3.

What is the social contract theory?

a)

People form government to secure rights and obey laws

b)

Power comes solely from military strength

c)

Government is legitimate only if chosen by courts

d)

Citizens surrender all freedoms to rulers permanently

4.

Limited government primarily means what?

a)

Officials may act without legal constraints in crises

b)

Government powers are restricted by law and constitution

c)

Only local governments face legal restrictions

d)

Legislatures can override all constitutional limits

5.

Which option captures the basic idea of federalism?

a)

Authority delegated solely to local municipalities

b)

States operate without any national constraints

c)

Power concentrated entirely in the national capital

d)

Power divided between national and state governments

6.

Republicanism in the U.S. political tradition most closely means what?

a)

Military councils govern in times of war

b)

Direct votes on every policy by all citizens

c)

Monarchs rule with consent of nobles

d)

Citizens elect representatives to make laws

7.

Why did colonists argue a government should exist, according to Enlightenment ideas?

a)

To guarantee aristocratic privilege and rank

b)

To protect natural rights through agreed-upon laws

c)

To expand territorial claims by force

d)

To manage imperial trade monopolies only

8.

Which weakness best explains why the Articles of Confederation failed?

a)

Too many protections for individual liberties

b)

Excessive judicial review over state statutes

c)

Lack of central authority to tax and enforce laws

d)

Overpowering executive controlling state militias

9.

Why did the Framers prefer limited government when drafting the Constitution?

a)

To prevent tyranny by constraining official power

b)

To maximize executive discretion in emergencies

c)

To ensure rapid policy changes without debate

d)

To place national goals above individual rights

10.

How does federalism divide power in the United States?

a)

Allocates authority between national and state levels

b)

Assigns all legislative power to the judiciary

c)

Gives states control over foreign policy exclusively

d)

Reserves taxation only to local governments

11.

Match: The people give government its power corresponds to which term?

a)

Declaration of Independence

b)

Checks and balances

c)

Rule of law

d)

Consent of the governed

12.

Match: The first U.S. system of government corresponds to which item?

a)

Articles of Confederation

b)

U.S. Constitution

c)

Federalist Papers

d)

Bill of Rights

13.

Match: Everyone must follow the law corresponds to which principle?

a)

Rule of law

b)

Reserved powers

c)

Popular sovereignty

d)

Judicial supremacy

14.

Match: Branches limit each other corresponds to which mechanism?

a)

Judicial review

b)

Separation of powers

c)

Enumerated powers

d)

Checks and balances

15.

Match: Document that justified independence corresponds to which work?

a)

Declaration of Independence

b)

Magna Carta

c)

Northwest Ordinance

d)

Common Sense

16.

Under the Articles of Confederation, which missing institution made it difficult to enforce national laws?

a)

A national executive branch

b)

A federal tax bureau

c)

A bicameral Congress

d)

A centralized police force

17.

Why was the lack of a national court system under the Articles a major problem?

a)

State disputes lacked uniform resolution

b)

Congress could not pass any laws

c)

States could not appoint judges

d)

The military refused to follow orders

18.

Which fiscal weakness most undermined the Confederation Congress’s ability to fund government operations?

a)

States refused to print money

b)

Gold reserves were constitutionally required

c)

Tariffs were banned nationally

d)

Congress could not levy taxes

19.

What economic power did Congress lack under the Articles that led to inconsistent state policies?

a)

Regulating interstate and foreign trade

b)

Setting national minimum wage

c)

Licensing corporations nationally

d)

Controlling agricultural prices

20.

Which decision rule under the Articles made ordinary lawmaking unusually difficult?

a)

Simple majority of citizens

b)

Approval required nine states

c)

Unanimous consent for hearings

d)

Two-thirds of all voters

21.

Which amendment process feature of the Articles made structural reform nearly impossible?

a)

Supermajority of Congress alone

b)

Unanimous consent of thirteen states

c)

Approval by national referendum

d)

Presidential signature required

22.

Which military limitation under the Articles left the nation vulnerable during crises?

a)

No navy permitted by law

b)

Only mercenaries could serve

c)

No state militias allowed

d)

No standing national army

23.

Which constitutional change directly addressed Congress’s inability to tax under the Articles?

a)

Creation of state tax compacts

b)

Enumerated taxing power to Congress

c)

Independent revenue authority for states

d)

Judicial review over budgets

24.

Which constitutional structure fixed the lack of national executive leadership under the Articles?

a)

Establishing the Presidency

b)

Authorizing military governors

c)

Forming county executives

d)

Creating a Tax Court

25.

Which branch primarily makes federal laws in the current system?

a)

Military leadership

b)

Judicial branch

c)

Executive branch

d)

Legislative branch

26.

Which branch primarily enforces federal laws?

a)

Judicial branch

b)

Legislative branch

c)

State assemblies

d)

Executive branch

27.

Which branch interprets laws and resolves constitutional disputes?

a)

Judicial branch

b)

Legislative branch

c)

Executive branch

d)

Electoral College

28.

What is the best definition of separation of powers in the U.S. system?

a)

Sharing power only between two houses

b)

Rotation of leadership every two years

c)

Division of authority among three branches

d)

Delegation of tasks to state governors

29.

Which concept allows each branch to limit the actions of the others?

a)

Economic federalism

b)

Popular sovereignty

c)

Dual federalism

d)

Checks and balances

30.

Judicial review refers to which power of the courts?

a)

Declaring laws or actions unconstitutional

b)

Writing new statutes for Congress

c)

Approving executive appointments

d)

Negotiating treaties with nations

31.

Which is a key legislative power that exemplifies checks and balances on the executive?

a)

Interpreting constitutional cases

b)

Issuing executive orders

c)

Conducting battlefield operations

d)

Senate confirmation of appointments

32.

Which executive action serves as a check on the legislative branch?

a)

Census reapportionment

b)

Judicial writ of certiorari

c)

Impeachment of justices

d)

Presidential veto of a bill

33.

Which judicial action checks both the legislative and executive branches?

a)

Issuing signing statements

b)

Conducting budget hearings

c)

Striking down unconstitutional laws

d)

Drafting administrative rules

34.

In the House vs. Senate comparison, which feature correctly pairs the chamber with term length?

a)

House six years; Senate four years

b)

House two years; Senate four years

c)

House two years; Senate six years

d)

House four years; Senate two years

35.

Who do members of the House of Representatives primarily represent compared to Senators?

a)

Entire states; smaller districts

b)

Smaller districts; entire states

c)

Local counties; federal agencies

d)

Party leaders; cabinet officials

36.

Which term describes the President rejecting a bill passed by Congress, preventing it from becoming law?

a)

Treaty with foreign leaders

b)

Veto by the President

c)

Confirmation by the Senate

d)

Impeachment by the legislature

37.

What is the formal process by which the House brings charges against a federal official for wrongdoing?

a)

Senate confirmation vote

b)

Judicial review ruling

c)

Presidential veto action

d)

Impeachment proceedings

38.

Which action involves the Senate approving a nominee to the federal judiciary?

a)

Treaty ratification process

b)

Veto override vote

c)

Confirmation hearing vote

d)

Redistricting state maps

39.

Unfair manipulation of district boundaries to benefit a party or group is known as what?

a)

Impeachment of officials

b)

Confirmation of nominees

c)

Gerrymandering of districts

d)

Treaty negotiation process

40.

An agreement negotiated by the President with another nation that requires Senate approval is called what?

a)

Executive veto

b)

Foreign treaty

c)

Judicial writ

d)

Domestic statute

41.

A law is struck down because it violates the Constitution. Which branch power is being exercised?

a)

Executive veto authority

b)

Legislative impeachment power

c)

Judicial review power

d)

Senate confirmation power

42.

The President refuses to sign a bill passed by Congress. Which power is used in this scenario?

a)

Executive veto power

b)

Legislative impeachment

c)

Senate confirmation vote

d)

Judicial review decision

43.

The Senate votes on whether to approve a Supreme Court nominee. Which constitutional role is illustrated?

a)

Confirmation authority

b)

Gerrymandering power

c)

Impeachment function

d)

Treaty ratification role

44.

Congress charges a government official and begins the removal process. Which mechanism is at work?

a)

Confirmation by Senate

b)

Impeachment by Congress

c)

Veto by President

d)

Treaty by Executive

45.

The President signs an agreement with another country that must be approved by the Senate. Which term best fits?

a)

Confirmation of judges

b)

Treaty requiring ratification

c)

Impeachment articles

d)

Veto of legislation

46.

Which statement best defines civil liberties in the U.S. constitutional system?

a)

Government guarantees of equal treatment under law

b)

Application of rights to the states through courts

c)

Individual freedoms protected from government interference

d)

Procedures government must follow before punishing

47.

Which choice most accurately describes civil rights?

a)

Protections ensuring equal access and fair treatment

b)

Freedoms from unjust government intrusion

c)

Steps required before the state can take property

d)

Court-created process for incorporating rights

48.

Due process primarily concerns which principle?

a)

State must follow fair procedures before depriving rights

b)

Government must treat groups equally in outcomes

c)

Individuals may exercise speech without restrictions

d)

Courts may apply federal rights to states

49.

Equal protection under the Fourteenth Amendment requires what of government?

a)

Avoid any regulation of private discrimination

b)

Incorporate all federal rights automatically

c)

Treat similarly situated people alike under the law

d)

Provide identical benefits to all residents

50.

Incorporation in constitutional law refers to which practice?

a)

Expanding executive veto over state legislation

b)

Mandating criminal jury trials in federal courts only

c)

Guaranteeing equal outcomes across jurisdictions

d)

Applying Bill of Rights protections to state actions

51.

A city denies a permit without a hearing. Which concept is most directly implicated?

a)

Civil liberties and freedom from taxation

b)

Incorporation through selective application

c)

Civil rights and equal access guarantees

d)

Due process and fair procedural safeguards

52.

Which amendment protects freedom of speech, religion, press, assembly, and petition?

a)

1st Amendment protections of expression

b)

2nd Amendment protections of arms

c)

3rd Amendment protections of quartering

d)

4th Amendment protections of searches

53.

Which amendment forbids unreasonable searches and seizures by the government?

a)

4th Amendment search and seizure limits

b)

5th Amendment due process clause

c)

6th Amendment speedy trial rights

d)

8th Amendment bail and punishment

54.

Which amendment abolishes slavery in the United States?

a)

19th Amendment women’s suffrage

b)

15th Amendment race-based voting rights

c)

13th Amendment abolition of slavery

d)

14th Amendment equal protection clause

55.

Which amendment guarantees the right to keep and bear arms?

a)

10th Amendment reserved powers

b)

3rd Amendment quartering prohibition

c)

1st Amendment expressive freedoms

d)

2nd Amendment right to bear arms

56.

Which amendment protects against cruel and unusual punishment?

a)

7th Amendment civil jury rights

b)

9th Amendment unlisted rights

c)

6th Amendment trial procedures

d)

8th Amendment punishment limits

57.

Which amendment ensures citizens 18 and older have the right to vote?

a)

24th Amendment poll tax ban

b)

19th Amendment women’s suffrage

c)

26th Amendment voting age set

d)

15th Amendment race voting protection

58.

Which amendment provides the right to a jury in civil cases?

a)

9th Amendment unenumerated rights

b)

7th Amendment civil jury trials

c)

6th Amendment criminal jury trials

d)

5th Amendment grand jury rights

59.

Which amendment states powers not granted to the federal government are reserved to the states?

a)

3rd Amendment quartering limits

b)

2nd Amendment arms protections

c)

9th Amendment unlisted rights

d)

10th Amendment reserved powers

60.

Which amendment protects the right to remain silent during questioning?

a)

5th Amendment privilege against self-incrimination

b)

6th Amendment right to counsel at trial

c)

8th Amendment protection from excessive fines

d)

4th Amendment exclusionary search rule

61.

Which amendment guarantees a speedy and public trial?

a)

5th Amendment due process protections

b)

7th Amendment civil jury guarantee

c)

6th Amendment speedy public trial

d)

9th Amendment retained rights

62.

Which amendment prevents the government from forcing people to house soldiers in peacetime?

a)

3rd Amendment quartering prohibition

b)

2nd Amendment militia protections

c)

4th Amendment privacy protections

d)

5th Amendment property protections

63.

Which amendment says rights not listed in the Constitution still belong to the people?

a)

1st Amendment expressive rights

b)

10th Amendment reserved powers

c)

14th Amendment citizenship clause

d)

9th Amendment retained rights

64.

Which amendment prohibits poll taxes from being used to block voting?

a)

26th Amendment voting age set

b)

24th Amendment ban on poll taxes

c)

13th Amendment end of slavery

d)

15th Amendment race voting protection

65.

Which amendment ensures equal protection for all persons born in the United States?

a)

19th Amendment women’s suffrage

b)

13th Amendment abolition of slavery

c)

14th Amendment citizenship and equal protection

d)

15th Amendment race voting protection

66.

Which amendment guarantees women cannot be denied the right to vote?

a)

19th Amendment women’s suffrage

b)

15th Amendment race voting protection

c)

24th Amendment poll tax ban

d)

26th Amendment voting age set

67.

Which amendment protects citizens from self-incrimination and ensures due process?

a)

6th Amendment counsel and confrontation

b)

7th Amendment civil jury trials

c)

5th Amendment due process and silence

d)

8th Amendment punishment limitations

68.

Which Supreme Court case ruled that racial segregation in public schools is unconstitutional?

a)

Plessy v. Ferguson (1896)

b)

Brown v. Board of Education (1954)

c)

Tinker v. Des Moines (1969)

d)

Miranda v. Arizona (1966)

69.

Which Supreme Court case affirmed student free speech rights when not disruptive?

a)

Tinker v. Des Moines (1969)

b)

Brown v. Board of Education (1954)

c)

Miranda v. Arizona (1966)

d)

Mapp v. Ohio (1961)

70.

Which Supreme Court case requires police to inform suspects of their rights before interrogation?

a)

Miranda v. Arizona (1966)

b)

New Jersey v. T.L.O. (1985)

c)

Gideon v. Wainwright (1963)

d)

Tinker v. Des Moines (1969)

71.

A state passes a law barring citizens aged 18–20 from voting in state elections. Which amendment most directly conflicts with this law?

a)

26th Amendment sets voting age at 18

b)

24th Amendment bans poll taxes for voting

c)

14th Amendment guarantees equal protection

d)

10th Amendment reserves powers to states

72.

Which Supreme Court case ended racial segregation in public schools by rejecting "separate but equal"?

a)

Tinker v. Des Moines (1969)

b)

Brown v. Board of Education (1954)

c)

Miranda v. Arizona (1966)

d)

Plessy v. Ferguson (1896)

73.

Which case protected student symbolic speech by ruling students do not lose rights at school?

a)

New Jersey v. TLO (1985)

b)

Brown v. Board of Education (1954)

c)

Miranda v. Arizona (1966)

d)

Tinker v. Des Moines (1969)

74.

Which case required police to inform suspects of their rights before custodial interrogation?

a)

Gideon v. Wainwright (1963)

b)

Brown v. Board of Education (1954)

c)

Tinker v. Des Moines (1969)

d)

Miranda v. Arizona (1966)

75.

Which constitutional principle was central to Brown v. Board of Education?

a)

Equal Protection Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment

b)

Establishment Clause of the First Amendment

c)

Commerce Clause of Article I

d)

Due Process Clause of the Fifth Amendment

76.

A school suspends students for wearing armbands protesting a war. Which case provides the strongest protection?

a)

Miranda v. Arizona (1966)

b)

Schenck v. United States (1919)

c)

Tinker v. Des Moines (1969)

d)

Brown v. Board of Education (1954)

77.

Police fail to read a suspect their rights before questioning. Which case is most relevant?

a)

Mapp v. Ohio (1961)

b)

Miranda v. Arizona (1966)

c)

Tinker v. Des Moines (1969)

d)

Brown v. Board of Education (1954)

78.

What idea did Brown v. Board of Education overturn in the context of schooling?

a)

Separate but equal doctrine

b)

Prior restraint doctrine

c)

Clear and present danger test

d)

Exclusionary rule doctrine

79.

Which case clarified that students retain First Amendment rights at school?

a)

Tinker v. Des Moines (1969)

b)

Miranda v. Arizona (1966)

c)

Brown v. Board of Education (1954)

d)

Engel v. Vitale (1962)

80.

The requirement that police warn suspects of self-incrimination risk is tied to which amendment?

a)

First Amendment freedom of expression

b)

Third Amendment quartering prohibition

c)

Fifth Amendment privilege against self-incrimination

d)

Tenth Amendment reserved powers

81.

Which outcome best describes the national impact of Brown v. Board of Education?

a)

Limited Congress’s commerce authority

b)

Expanded executive emergency powers

c)

Strengthened civil rights across the country

d)

Reduced judicial review over states

82.

Which principle ensures the government follows fair rules and procedures before taking life, liberty, or property?

a)

Due Process

b)

Equal Protection

c)

Probable Cause

d)

Rights of the Accused

83.

Which principle requires that similarly situated citizens be treated the same under the law?

a)

Due Process

b)

Equal Protection

c)

Double Jeopardy

d)

Cruel and Unusual Punishment

84.

What must police have before making an arrest or legal search?

a)

Probable Cause

b)

Miranda warnings

c)

Grand jury indictment

d)

Reasonable doubt

85.

Being tried twice for the same crime violates which protection?

a)

Rights of the Accused

b)

Due Process

c)

Equal Protection

d)

Double Jeopardy

86.

Punishment that is inhumane or extreme violates which constitutional safeguard?

a)

Defamation

b)

Equal Protection

c)

Due Process

d)

Cruel and Unusual Punishment

87.

Which term refers to false statements that harm a person’s reputation?

a)

Defamation

b)

Miranda rights

c)

Suffrage

d)

Unreasonable search

88.

An arrest without a warrant and no specific facts may be challenged as what kind of search?

a)

Symbolic speech

b)

Unreasonable search

c)

Equal protection search

d)

Grand jury search

89.

The legal protections for individuals facing criminal accusations are collectively called what?

a)

Rights of the Accused

b)

Due Process

c)

Equal Protection

d)

Probable Cause

90.

Which vocabulary term names the right to vote?

a)

Defamation

b)

Miranda

c)

Suffrage

d)

Probable Cause

91.

Warnings given before interrogation are commonly called what, stemming from a 1966 case?

a)

Miranda rights

b)

Tinker protections

c)

Due process rights

d)

Brown mandates

92.

Which civil liberty is implicated when a student is suspended for wearing a peaceful protest shirt because a principal dislikes the message?

a)

Search and Seizure

b)

Right to Vote

c)

Due Process

d)

Freedom of Speech

93.

Police search a student’s backpack with no reasonable belief of wrongdoing. Which protection applies?

a)

Freedom of Speech

b)

Cruel and Unusual Punishment

c)

Due Process

d)

Search and Seizure

94.

A suspect is questioned for hours without being told they have the right to remain silent. Which right is at issue?

a)

Due Process

b)

Right to Vote

c)

Search and Seizure

d)

Cruel and Unusual Punishment

95.

A person must wait five years before their criminal trial begins. Which protection is most relevant?

a)

Freedom of Speech

b)

Search and Seizure

c)

Right to Vote

d)

Due Process

96.

A judge imposes an extremely painful penalty for a minor offense. Which constitutional safeguard is violated?

a)

Cruel and Unusual Punishment

b)

Due Process

c)

Freedom of Speech

d)

Search and Seizure

97.

A state law says only men may vote in state elections. Which right does this violate?

a)

Freedom of Speech

b)

Due Process

c)

Right to Vote

d)

Search and Seizure

98.

A person acquitted is charged again by the government for the same crime. Which principle is breached?

a)

Due Process

b)

Right to Vote

c)

Search and Seizure

d)

Freedom of Speech

99.

Police arrest someone despite having no evidence or reasonable cause to think a crime occurred. Which protection applies?

a)

Search and Seizure

b)

Cruel and Unusual Punishment

c)

Right to Vote

d)

Freedom of Speech

100.

A public school leads a daily prayer over the loudspeaker. Which liberty is primarily implicated?

a)

Freedom of Speech

b)

Due Process

c)

Search and Seizure

d)

Cruel and Unusual Punishment

101.

A suspect who cannot afford a lawyer is denied counsel and told to represent themself. Which right is violated?

a)

Search and Seizure

b)

Right to Vote

c)

Due Process

d)

Freedom of Speech

102.

A journalist writes an article criticizing the governor, and the state moves to arrest them for speaking out. Which freedom protects the journalist?

a)

Cruel and Unusual Punishment

b)

Search and Seizure

c)

Due Process

d)

Freedom of Speech

103.

Police enter and search a home without a warrant, permission, or emergency reason. Which protection is at stake?

a)

Search and Seizure

b)

Due Process

c)

Freedom of Speech

d)

Right to Vote

104.

A court compels a defendant to testify against themself during trial. Which protection is violated?

a)

Right to Vote

b)

Search and Seizure

c)

Due Process

d)

Freedom of Speech

105.

A school punishes a student for posting a political opinion on social media from home with no disruption at school. Which liberty protects the student?

a)

Freedom of Speech

b)

Due Process

c)

Right to Vote

d)

Search and Seizure

106.

Which statement best defines political participation for citizens in a democracy?

a)

Activities used to influence government decisions

b)

Feelings citizens have about social issues

c)

Rules parties follow in internal elections

d)

Media coverage of candidates during campaigns

107.

Public opinion is most accurately described as which of the following?

a)

Collection attitudes of the public on issues

b)

Official stance adopted by a party platform

c)

News stories produced by major media outlets

d)

Messages crafted by a candidate’s campaign

108.

Voter turnout refers to which measurement?

a)

Amount of money raised by political parties

b)

Number of volunteers working on a campaign

c)

Frequency of opinion polls taken each month

d)

Share of eligible voters who cast ballots

109.

Which option best captures the role of a political party?

a)

Nonpartisan firm providing polling services

b)

Government agency administering elections

c)

Interest group focused on single-issue lobbying

d)

Organization that recruits and runs candidates

110.

In elections, a campaign primarily involves what activity?

a)

Judicial review of candidate qualifications

b)

Coordinated effort to win voter support

c)

Routine management of legislative sessions

d)

Neutral reporting of public opinion trends

111.

Which statement defines an election in the political process?

a)

Internal meeting to set party bylaws

b)

Public discussion of policy preferences

c)

Periodic survey to measure voter attitudes

d)

Formal process of selecting public officials

112.

Which term describes a person who runs for public office?

a)

Election

b)

Campaign funds

c)

Target audience

d)

Candidate

113.

Money raised to support a political run is best described as what?

a)

Campaign funds

b)

Registration

c)

Media

d)

Poll

114.

A survey used to measure public opinion during an election season is called a what?

a)

Target audience

b)

Election

c)

Poll

d)

Interest group

115.

Which term refers to the specific group a campaign most wants to persuade?

a)

Target audience

b)

Voter

c)

Candidate

d)

Media

116.

In an election context, which term names the formal event where voters choose officials?

a)

Media

b)

Registration

c)

Poll

d)

Election

117.

Which scenario shows the most effective way to identify a target audience for a local school board race?

a)

Email every national news outlet

b)

Survey all residents at random

c)

Ask only campaign volunteers

d)

Focus on parents of enrolled students

118.

A candidate wants to learn how younger voters feel about a proposal. What tool should be used first?

a)

Straight-ticket

b)

Poll

c)

Registration

d)

Interest group

119.

Which choice explains why campaign funds matter for a competitive race?

a)

They determine who may run for office

b)

They purchase outreach like ads and events

c)

They count ballots on election night

d)

They legally certify voter eligibility

120.

A campaign decides to spend most resources reaching undecided suburban voters. This decision is an example of which concept?

a)

Media

b)

Election

c)

Target audience

d)

Candidate

121.

Which action would most likely improve the accuracy of a poll about local issues?

a)

Use a large random sample of residents

b)

Survey only party members at rallies

c)

Ask leading questions favoring one side

d)

Discard responses from young voters

122.

The United States government has three branches. Which part decides if laws are fair?

a)

The Congress

b)

The president

c)

The governor

d)

The Supreme Court

123.

Which Supreme Court case established JUDICIAL REVIEW?

a)

McCullough v. Maryland

b)

Marbury v. Madison

c)

Gibbons v. Ogden

d)

Baker v. Carr

124.

What was our nation's first government? ​

a)
Articles of Confederation
b)
the Constitution
c)
the Halifax Resolves
d)
the Declaration of Independence
125.

How many major political parties are in the United States?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

1

126.

At what level of government do people participate by campaigning for a presidential candidate?

a)

State and national level

b)

local level

c)

State level

d)

national level

127.

The central goal of interest groups is to

a)

win elections

b)

nominate candidates

c)

influence public policy

d)

inform the public