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Internship Quiz

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is an intrinsic semiconductor?

a)

A pure semiconductor without any dopant atoms

b)

A semiconductor with dopant impurities

c)

A semiconductor used only for rectification

d)

A semiconductor with low conductivity

2.

In an intrinsic semiconductor at absolute zero temperature, the number of free electrons is:

a)

Maximum

b)

Minimum (zero)

c)

Constant

d)

Unpredictable

3.

What is the relationship between electron and hole concentration in an intrinsic semiconductor at thermal equilibrium?

a)

nₑ ≥ nₕ

b)

nₑ = nₕ = nᵢ

c)

nₑ < nₕ

d)

No fixed relationship

4.

An n-type semiconductor is formed by doping a pure semiconductor with:

a)

Trivalent atoms (boron, indium)

b)

Pentavalent atoms (phosphorus, arsenic)

c)

Divalent atoms (zinc, cadmium)

d)

Hexavalent atoms

5.

A p-type semiconductor is formed by doping a pure semiconductor with:

a)

Pentavalent atoms

b)

Trivalent atoms (boron, indium, aluminum)

c)

Monovalent atoms

d)

Hexavalent atoms

6.

In an n-type semiconductor, what are the majority and minority carriers?

a)

Majority: holes, Minority: electrons

b)

Majority: electrons, Minority: holes

c)

Both are equal

d)

Only electrons exist

7.

In a p-type semiconductor, what are the majority and minority carriers?

a)

Majority: electrons, Minority: holes

b)

Majority: holes, Minority: electrons

c)

Both are equal

d)

Only holes exist

8.

Which dopant is used to create an n-type semiconductor from silicon?

(a)  

9.

Which dopant creates a p-type semiconductor from germanium?

a)

Arsenic

b)

Antimony

c)

Indium

d)

Phosphorus

10.

The intrinsic carrier concentration (n_i) is defined as:

a)

n_i = n_e + n_h

b)

n_i = n_e × n_h

c)

n_i = √(n_e × n_h)

d)

n_i = n_e / n_h

11.

In an extrinsic semiconductor at room temperature, the Fermi level position depends on:

a)

Temperature only

b)

Type and amount of dopant

c)

Material only

d)

Applied voltage only

12.

Conductivity of a semiconductor:

a)

Increases with temperature

b)

Decreases with temperature

c)

Remains constant

d)

Is independent of temperature

13.

When silicon is doped with a pentavalent element, the extra electron:

a)

Immediately becomes a free electron

b)

Is bound to the impurity atom with small binding energy

c)

Forms a covalent bond

d)

Remains neutral

14.

The band gap of silicon at 300 K is approximately:

a)

1.1 eV

b)

1.5 eV

c)

2.0 eV

d)

3.0 eV

15.

The band gap of germanium at 300 K is approximately:

a)

0.66 eV

b)

1.1 eV

c)

1.5 eV

d)

2.0 eV

16.

In an n-type semiconductor, the Fermi level is:

a)

At the middle of the band gap

b)

Closer to the conduction band

c)

Closer to the valence band

d)

At the edge of the conduction band

17.

In a p-type semiconductor, the Fermi level is:

a)

At the middle of the band gap

b)

Closer to the conduction band

c)

Closer to the valence band

d)

At the edge of the valence band

18.

When a semiconductor is heated, which of the following increases?

a)

A) Band gap

b)

B) Intrinsic carrier concentration

c)

C) Resistivity

d)

D) Band width

19.

The process of adding impurities to a pure semiconductor is called:

a)

Diffusion

b)

Doping

20.

Holes in a semiconductor are created by:

a)

Adding pentavalent atoms

b)

Removing electrons from the valence band

c)

Adding electrons to the conduction band

d)

Thermal excitation only

21.

The mobility of charge carriers in semiconductors is:

a)

Independent of temperature

b)

Decreases with increasing temperature

c)

Increases with increasing temperature

d)

Constant at all temperatures

22.

At 0 K, an intrinsic semiconductor behaves as:

a)

A) A conductor

b)

B) An insulator

c)

C) A superconductor

d)

D) A metal

23.

The relationship between conductivity and carrier concentration is:

a)

σ = nqμ (where n is concentration, q is charge, μ is mobility)

b)

σ = n + q + μ

c)

σ = nq / μ

d)

σ = μ / nq

24.

In thermal equilibrium, the product of electron and hole concentrations in a semiconductor is:

a)

Always zero

b)

Always equal to ni2n_i^2

c)

Dependent on applied voltage

d)

Independent of dopant concentration

25.

A semiconductor diode in its simplest form is:

a)

A single p-n junction

b)

Two p-n junctions

c)

Multiple p-n junctions

d)

A single semiconductor crystal

26.

When a p-n junction is forward biased:

a)

Positive terminal is connected to p-side, negative to n-side

b)

Positive terminal is connected to n-side, negative to p-side

c)

Both sides are connected to positive terminal

d)

Both sides are connected to negative terminal

27.

When a p-n junction is reverse biased:

a)

Positive terminal is connected to p-side

b)

Positive terminal is connected to n-side

c)

No voltage is applied

d)

AC voltage is applied

28.

The barrier potential of a silicon junction at room temperature is approximately:

a)

0.3 V

b)

0.7 V

c)

1.4 V

d)

2.1 V

29.

The barrier potential of a germanium junction at room temperature is approximately:

a)

0.3 V

b)

0.7 V

c)

1.4 V

30.

The depletion region in a p-n junction consists of:

a)

Only mobile charge carriers

b)

Only immobile ionized donors and acceptors

c)

Both mobile and immobile charges

d)

No charges

31.

When a diode is forward biased, its resistance is:

a)

Very high (infinite)

b)

Very low (near zero)

c)

Moderate

d)

Undefined

32.

When a diode is reverse biased, its resistance is:

a)

Very low

b)

Very high

c)

Moderate

d)

Zero

33.

Reverse saturation current in a diode is due to:

a)

Thermal generation of electron-hole pairs

b)

Applied reverse voltage

c)

Doping concentration

d)

Barrier height

34.

The breakdown voltage of a p-n junction depends on:

a)

Applied voltage only

b)

Doping concentration and reverse bias voltage

c)

Temperature only

d)

Material and doping concentration

35.

Avalanche breakdown is caused by:

a)

Direct rupture of covalent bonds

b)

Impact ionization due to high-velocity carriers

c)

Thermal effects

d)

Light radiation

36.

A diode rectifier converts:

a)

DC to AC

b)

AC to DC

c)

DC to DC at different voltage

d)

AC to AC at different frequency

37.

In a half-wave rectifier, the diode conducts for:

a)

The complete cycle

b)

Half of the positive cycle

c)

The entire positive half-cycle

d)

The entire negative half-cycle

38.

In a full-wave rectifier using a center-tapped transformer:

a)

One diode is used

b)

Two diodes are used

c)

Three diodes are used

d)

Four diodes are used

39.

A bridge rectifier circuit uses:

a)

One diode

b)

Two diodes

c)

Three diodes

d)

Four diodes

40.

The transformer utilization factor (TUF) for a half-wave rectifier is:

a)

28.6%

b)

57.2%

c)

81%

d)

100%

41.

The transformer utilization factor (TUF) for a full-wave center-tapped rectifier is:

a)

28.6%

b)

57.2%

c)

81%

d)

100%

42.

The transformer utilization factor (TUF) for a bridge rectifier is:

a)

28.6%

b)

57.2%

c)

81%

d)

100%

43.

In a full-wave rectifier, if the input frequency is 50 Hz, the output frequency is:

a)

25 Hz

b)

50 Hz

c)

100 Hz

d)

200 Hz

44.

The ripple factor for a half-wave rectifier is:

a)

0.482

b)

0.812

c)

1.21

d)

2.0

45.

The ripple factor for a full-wave rectifier is:

a)

0.482

b)

0.812

46.

47. (Options not fully visible, but answer is provided)

a)

1.21

b)

2.0

47.

A photodiode is a diode that:

a)

Emits light when forward biased

b)

Generates current when light falls on it

c)

Glows in the dark

d)

Reflects light

48.

A light-emitting diode (LED) emits light when:

a)

Reverse biased

b)

At breakdown

c)

Forward biased

d)

Not connected

49.

A Zener diode is primarily used as:

a)

A) A rectifier

b)

B) A voltage regulator

c)

C) A current amplifier

d)

D) A light source

50.

The current equation for an ideal diode is given by the Shockley equation:

a)

I = Is(e^{(V/KT)} - 1)

b)

I = Is( e(V/KT)e^{(V/KT)} )

c)

I = Is( e−V/KT−1e^{-V/KT} - 1 )

d)

I = Is(e^{(-V/KT)})

51.

In the Shockley diode equation, Is represents:

a)

Saturation current

b)

Source current

c)

Signal current

d)

Shift current

52.

The PIV (Peak Inverse Voltage) rating of a diode specifies:

a)

Maximum forward voltage it can handle

b)

Maximum reverse voltage it can withstand without breakdown

c)

Maximum current it can conduct

d)

Maximum power dissipation

53.

A varactor diode is used as:

a)

A) A rectifier

b)

B) A voltage-dependent capacitor

c)

C) An amplifier

d)

D) A voltage regulator

54.

When two diodes are connected in series with the same polarity:

a)

Current flow increases

b)

Forward voltage drop doubles

c)

Reverse voltage capacity doubles

d)

No current flows

55.

When two diodes are connected in parallel with the same polarity:

a)

Current capacity increases

b)

Voltage drop decreases

c)

Resistance increases

d)

No current flows

56.

The ideal diode characteristic assumes:

a)

Forward resistance = infinite

b)

Forward resistance = 0, Reverse resistance = infinite

c)

Forward resistance = backward resistance

d)

Both resistances are moderate

57.

Rectification efficiency of a rectifier is defined as:

a)

Ratio of DC output power to AC input power

b)

Ratio of AC input power to DC output power

58.

The Clipper circuit using a diode is used to:

a)

Amplify signals

b)

Rectify AC voltage

c)

Remove portions of a waveform exceeding a threshold

d)

Smooth the output

59.

The Clamper circuit using a diode is used to:

a)

Remove high-frequency components

b)

Shift the DC level of a signal

c)

Increase signal amplitude

d)

Filter the output

60.

A bipolar junction transistor (BJT) is made up of:

a)

One p-n junction

b)

Two p-n junctions

c)

Three p-n junctions

d)

Four p-n junctions

61.

In an NPN transistor, the majority carriers in the emitter are:

a)

Holes

b)

Electrons

c)

Both electrons and holes equally

d)

Ions

62.

In a PNP transistor, the majority carriers in the emitter are:

(a)  

63.

For a transistor to operate in the active region:

a)

Base-emitter junction is reverse biased

b)

Collector-base junction is reverse biased

c)

Both junctions are forward biased

d)

Both junctions are reverse biased

64.

The base-emitter junction forward bias voltage of a silicon transistor is approximately:

a)

0.3 V

b)

0.7 V

c)

1.4 V

d)

2.1 V

65.

The current gain (beta or β) of a transistor is defined as:

a)

β = I_C / I_B

b)

β = I_B / I_C

c)

β = I_E / I_C

d)

β = I_C / I_E

66.

The relationship between I_E, I_B, and I_C in a transistor is:

a)

I_E = I_B + I_C

b)

I_E = I_B - I_C

c)

I_E = I_B × I_C

d)

I_E = I_B / I_C

67.

The current gain α (alpha) is related to β by:

a)

α = β / (1 + β)

b)

α = β (1 + β)

c)

α = 1 / (1 + β)

68.

A transistor in saturation acts as:

a)

An open switch

b)

A closed switch (LOW resistance path)

c)

A current source

d)

A voltage regulator

69.

A transistor in cutoff acts as:

a)

A closed switch

b)

An open switch (HIGH resistance path)

c)

A current source

d)

An amplifier

70.

For a transistor to be used as an amplifier, it must operate in:

a)

Saturation region

b)

Cutoff region

c)

Active region

d)

Breakdown region

71.

The common-emitter configuration is the most widely used because:

a)

It provides both voltage and current amplification

b)

It has high input impedance

c)

It has low output impedance

d)

It is the simplest configuration

72.

In a common-emitter amplifier, the input signal is applied to the:

a)

Collector

b)

Emitter

c)

Base

d)

Base-collector junction

73.

In a common-emitter amplifier, the output is taken from the:

a)

Base

b)

Collector

c)

Emitter

d)

Base-emitter junction

74.

The voltage gain of a common-emitter amplifier is given by:

a)

Av = β

b)

Av = β × (Rc/Re)

c)

Av = -β × (Rc/re)

d)

Av = Rc × Re

75.

The input impedance of a common-emitter amplifier is:

a)

Very high

b)

Very low

c)

Moderate (typically 1-10 kΩ)

d)

Infinite

76.

The output impedance of a common-emitter amplifier is:

a)

Very high

b)

Very low

c)

Equal to collector load resistance

d)

Equal to emitter resistance

77.

The phase shift between input and output in a common-emitter amplifier is:

a)

0°

b)

90°

c)

180°

d)

270°

78.

In a common-collector amplifier, the voltage gain is:

a)

Greater than 1

b)

Less than 1 (typically 0.9 to 1)

c)

Equal to 1

d)

Zero

79.

A common-collector amplifier is also known as:

a)

Emitter follower

b)

Voltage amplifier

c)

Power amplifier

d)

Differential amplifier

80.

The input impedance of a common-collector amplifier is:

a)

Very low

b)

Very high

c)

Moderate

d)

Equal to load resistance

81.

The output impedance of a common-collector amplifier is:

a)

Very high

b)

Very low

c)

Moderate

d)

Infinite

82.

In a common-base amplifier, the current gain is:

a)

Very high (>100)

b)

Low (approximately 1)

c)

Very low (<0.1)

d)

Zero

83.

The input impedance of a common-base amplifier is:

a)

Very high

b)

Very low (approximately 20-100 Ω)

c)

Moderate

d)

Infinite

84.

The output impedance of a common-base amplifier is:

a)

Very high

b)

Very low

85.

RC coupling is used in amplifiers to:

a)

Amplify the signal

b)

Block DC and allow AC to pass between stages

c)

Provide impedance matching

d)

Increase voltage gain

86.

The coupling capacitor in an RC-coupled amplifier should:

a)

Be very small

b)

Be very large (so that AC impedance is small at signal frequency)

c)

Equal the load resistance

d)

Equal the source resistance

87.

Transformer coupling is used in amplifiers to:

a)

Block DC components

b)

Provide impedance matching and voltage transformation

c)

Reduce noise

d)

Increase input impedance

88.

Direct coupling between amplifier stages:

a)

Cannot pass DC signals

b)

Passes both DC and AC signals

c)

Causes low-frequency loss

d)

Requires large coupling capacitors

89.

Feedback in an amplifier:

a)

Always increases gain

b)

Always decreases distortion

c)

Can stabilize gain and reduce distortion but may decrease gain

d)

Is always used in all amplifiers

90.

91. Negative feedback in an amplifier:

a)

reduces distortion and increases stability

b)

increases distortion and decreases stability

c)

has no effect on distortion or stability

d)

only affects the power output

91.

Which of the following is true about negative feedback in amplifiers?

a)

Increases gain and distortion

b)

Reduces gain but improves stability and reduces distortion

c)

Has no effect on gain or distortion

d)

Increases input impedance and decreases output impedance

92.

The bandwidth of an amplifier is:

a)

The frequency at maximum gain

b)

The difference between upper and lower cutoff frequencies (-3dB points)

c)

The maximum input frequency

d)

The resonant frequency

93.

The gain-bandwidth product of an amplifier is:

a)

Always constant for a given transistor

b)

Depends only on the load resistance

c)

Depends on bias point

d)

Independent of circuit configuration

94.

Thermal runaway in a transistor occurs when:

a)

Temperature decreases

b)

Collector current increases with temperature, causing more heat, which further increases current

c)

Bias voltage increases

d)

Load resistance increases

95.

A Class A amplifier:

a)

Has high efficiency but high distortion

b)

Has low efficiency but low distortion

c)

Conducts for 360° of the input cycle

d)

Uses push-pull configuration

96.

A Class B amplifier:

a)

Conducts for 180° of the input cycle

b)

Conducts for 360° of the input cycle

c)

Uses a single transistor

97.

A Class AB amplifier:

a)

Conducts for 360° of the input cycle

b)

Conducts for 180° of the input cycle

c)

Conducts for approximately 180° to 360° (between Class A and Class B)

d)

Has the lowest efficiency among all classes

98.

Power amplifiers differ from voltage amplifiers in that they:

a)

Operate with larger signal levels and supply more current to the load

b)

Have higher gain

c)

Have smaller output impedance

d)

Always use transformers

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