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Biology and Ecology Review Worksheet

Total questions: 61

Worksheet time: 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Define Biology.

a)

Study of the living world

b)

Study of rocks and minerals

c)

Study of chemical reactions only

d)

Study of celestial bodies

2.

Define Manipulated Variable.

a)

The variable the scientist changes (independent variable)

b)

The variable that responds (dependent variable)

c)

A constant that never changes

d)

The control group used for comparison

3.

Define Responding Variable.

a)

The variable that changes because of the independent variable (dependent variable)

b)

The variable the scientist manipulates

c)

A constant that does not change

d)

The control used to compare results

4.

Define Control.

a)

A setup that does not include the independent variable and is used to compare results

b)

The variable being measured

c)

The variable the scientist changes

d)

A random trial with no constants

5.

Define biotic factor. Give an example.

a)

A living factor such as plants or animals

b)

A nonliving factor such as sunlight

c)

A chemical process in rocks

d)

A human-made structure

6.

Define abiotic factor. Give an example.

a)

A nonliving factor such as temperature, sunlight, or water

b)

A living factor such as plants

c)

A behavior within a population

d)

A type of consumer in a food web

7.

List the levels of organization in order of complexity (largest to smallest).

a)

Biosphere, biome, ecosystem, community, population, species

b)

Species, population, community, ecosystem, biome, biosphere

c)

Biome, biosphere, ecosystem, community, species, population

d)

Ecosystem, biome, biosphere, community, species, population

8.

Where does most of the energy on Earth come from?

a)

The Sun

b)

The Moon

c)

Earth’s core

d)

Ocean tides

9.

Define autotroph/producer and give an example.

a)

An organism that produces its own food (for example, a plant)

b)

An organism that only eats other consumers

c)

An organism that decomposes dead matter

d)

An organism that migrates seasonally

10.

If a disease killed many grasshoppers in this food web, predict what would happen.

a)

The frog population may decrease because grasshoppers are its primary food source

b)

The frog population will increase immediately

c)

No change would occur in frog populations

d)

All producers would die out

11.

What percentage of energy transfers to each level in a food chain or food web?

a)

10%

b)

5%

c)

25%

d)

50%

12.

If the bottom level in a food chain is 5000 units of energy, what would the energy at the 4th level be using the 10% rule?

a)

5

b)

50

c)

500

d)

0.5

13.

Define invasive species.

a)

A non-native species that causes ecological problems

b)

A native species that supports biodiversity

c)

A species introduced that always improves habitats

d)

A rare species with no impact

14.

What is carrying capacity, and when does carrying capacity occur in the provided population-over-time graph?

a)

It is the maximum number of individuals an environment can support; it occurs where the graph levels off

b)

It is the minimum number of individuals needed for survival; it occurs at the graph’s starting point

c)

It is the average population size; it occurs at the steepest increase

d)

It is the total number of births; it occurs where the graph declines

15.

Define limiting factors.

a)

Factors that decrease the growth of a population

b)

Factors that always increase population size

c)

Traits inherited from parents

d)

Only weather-related events

16.

List examples of limiting factors.

a)

Predation

b)

Emigration (individuals leaving an area)

c)

Competition

d)

Natural disasters

e)

Human activity

17.

Describe the predator–prey relationship.

a)

If the predator population increases, the prey population decreases and vice versa

b)

If predators increase, prey always increase as well

c)

Predator and prey populations never affect each other

d)

Prey populations control predator populations only by increasing births

18.

Which scenario best explains a trophic cascade? Choose the example that matches the definition.

a)

Removal of a top predator causes herbivore populations to increase and plant populations to decrease, altering the entire ecosystem

b)

Introduction of a new plant increases soil nutrients without changing animal populations

c)

Seasonal migration of birds temporarily changes local food webs but returns to normal

d)

A drought reduces water availability but predators, herbivores, and plants keep the same relative numbers

19.

Which statement about biodiversity and ecosystem stability is correct?

a)

Biodiversity is the different types of organisms in an ecosystem, and greater diversity makes the ecosystem more stable

b)

Biodiversity is the total amount of sunlight in an ecosystem, and more sunlight makes it unstable

c)

Biodiversity refers only to the number of predators, and more predators always destabilize ecosystems

d)

Biodiversity is the variety of habitats, and more variety always decreases stability

20.

Select all processes that release carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.

a)

Respiration

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Decomposition

d)

Volcanic eruptions

e)

Burning of fossil fuels

21.

Too much carbon dioxide in the atmosphere causes which effect, and what can it lead to?

a)

Greenhouse effect, which may cause global warming

b)

Ozone formation, which may cause acid rain

c)

Coriolis effect, which may cause stronger winds

d)

Albedo increase, which may cause cooling

22.

Organisms need nitrogen primarily to make what?

a)

Proteins

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Lipids

d)

Minerals

23.

Which organisms can directly use atmospheric nitrogen gas?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Animals

c)

Most plants

d)

Fungi

24.

What is nitrogen fixation?

a)

The process of bacteria converting nitrogen gas into nitrogen compounds

b)

Plants absorbing nitrates from soil to build sugars

c)

Animals breaking down proteins to release ammonia

d)

Lightning converting carbon dioxide into ammonium

25.

Which biogeochemical cycle does not pass through the atmosphere as a gas?

a)

Phosphorus cycle

b)

Nitrogen cycle

c)

Carbon cycle

d)

Water cycle

26.

Which option correctly lists characteristics of a prokaryotic cell and provides one example?

a)

No nucleus and no membrane-bound organelles; example: bacterium

b)

Nucleus and membrane-bound organelles; example: plant cell

c)

Nucleus but no membrane-bound organelles; example: animal cell

d)

No nucleus but membrane-bound organelles; example: fungus cell

27.

Which option correctly lists characteristics of a eukaryotic cell and provides two examples?

a)

Nucleus and membrane-bound organelles; examples: plants and animals

b)

No nucleus and no membrane-bound organelles; examples: bacteria and archaea

c)

No nucleus but membrane-bound organelles; examples: bacteria and plants

d)

Nucleus only; examples: viruses and bacteria

28.

What is the main function of the cell membrane?

a)

Regulates what enters and leaves the cell

b)

Produces most of the cell’s ATP

c)

Contains the cell’s DNA

d)

Carries out photosynthesis as its primary role

29.

What is the primary function of the nucleus?

a)

Controls the cell and contains the DNA

b)

Synthesizes proteins directly

c)

Regulates what enters and leaves the cell

d)

Stores pigments for photosynthesis

30.

Which statement correctly defines passive transport?

a)

Moves molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration without using energy

b)

Moves molecules from low concentration to high concentration using ATP

c)

Transports large particles by endocytosis and exocytosis using energy

d)

Moves water only and requires energy

31.

Define active transport.

a)

Movement of molecules from high to low concentration without energy

b)

Movement of molecules from low to high concentration using energy

c)

Diffusion of water across a semi‑permeable membrane

d)

Bulk movement of water into a cell only

32.

The movement of particles from a high concentration to a low concentration to reach equilibrium is called what?

a)

Osmosis

b)

Active transport

c)

Diffusion

d)

Endocytosis

33.

Osmosis is the diffusion of what?

a)

Proteins

b)

Water

c)

Ions

d)

Gases

34.

What does an isotonic solution have relative to the cell?

a)

Higher concentration of molecules than the cell

b)

Lower concentration of molecules than the cell

c)

The same concentration of molecules as the cell

d)

Only water molecules present

35.

What characterizes a hypertonic solution relative to the cell?

a)

A high concentration of molecules

b)

A low concentration of molecules

c)

The same concentration of molecules

d)

No solutes present

36.

What characterizes a hypotonic solution relative to the cell?

a)

A high concentration of molecules

b)

A low concentration of molecules

c)

The same concentration of molecules

d)

No water present

37.

A type of passive transport that moves particles across a protein channel to reach equilibrium is called what?

a)

Facilitated diffusion

b)

Active transport

c)

Endocytosis

d)

Exocytosis

38.

When particles or molecules are even throughout a space, the cell has reached what?

a)

Homeostasis

b)

Equilibrium

c)

Turgor pressure

d)

Plasmolysis

39.

Look at the diagram showing a cell in a solution labeled 10% salt. Identify the tonicity of the solution relative to the cell and the direction of water flow.

a)

Hypotonic; water into the cell

b)

Isotonic; no net water movement

c)

Hypertonic; water out of the cell

d)

Hypertonic; water into the cell

40.

Look at the diagram showing a cell in a solution labeled 2% salt. Identify the tonicity of the solution relative to the cell and the direction of water flow.

a)

Hypotonic; water into the cell

b)

Isotonic; no net water movement

c)

Hypertonic; water out of the cell

d)

Hypertonic; water into the cell

41.

Look at the diagram showing a cell in a solution labeled 30% salt. Identify the tonicity of the solution relative to the cell and the direction of water flow.

a)

Hypotonic; water into the cell

b)

Isotonic; no net water movement

c)

Hypertonic; water out of the cell

d)

Hypotonic; water out of the cell

42.

Type of active transport that releases large amounts of materials from the cell.

a)

Endocytosis

b)

Exocytosis

c)

Facilitated diffusion

d)

Osmosis

43.

In the membrane diagram with labels A and B, identify the structure marked A.

a)

Phospholipids

b)

Protein channel

c)

Cholesterol

d)

Carbohydrate chain

44.

In the membrane diagram with labels A and B, identify the structure marked B.

a)

Phospholipids

b)

Protein channel

c)

Cholesterol

d)

Carbohydrate chain

45.

Write the equation for photosynthesis. Choose the correct balanced equation.

a)

CO2+H2O+sunlightC6H12O6+O2\mathrm{CO_2 + H_2O + sunlight \to C_6H_{12}O_6 + O_2}

b)

O2+C6H12O6CO2+H2O+energy\mathrm{O_2 + C_6H_{12}O_6 \to CO_2 + H_2O + energy}

c)

N2+H2NH3\mathrm{N_2 + H_2 \to NH_3}

d)

CO2+H2OH2CO3\mathrm{CO_2 + H_2O \to H_2CO_3}

46.

Where does photosynthesis occur?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Ribosome

47.

Write the equation for cellular respiration. Choose the correct balanced equation.

a)

CO2+H2O+sunlightC6H12O6+O2\mathrm{CO_2 + H_2O + sunlight \to C_6H_{12}O_6 + O_2}

b)

C6H12O6+O2CO2+H2O+energy\mathrm{C_6H_{12}O_6 + O_2 \to CO_2 + H_2O + energy}

c)

N2+H2NH3\mathrm{N_2 + H_2 \to NH_3}

d)

H2OH2+O2\mathrm{H_2O \to H_2 + O_2}

48.

Where does cellular respiration happen in the cell?

a)

Chloroplast

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

Endoplasmic reticulum

49.

In the ATP diagram, where does ATP break to release energy?

a)

Between adenine and ribose

b)

Between ribose and the first phosphate

c)

Between the second and third phosphate

d)

Between adenine and the second phosphate

50.

After ATP releases energy by breaking a phosphate bond, what is the molecule called?

a)

AMP

b)

ADP

c)

ATP

d)

NADH

51.

Why is the molecule called ADP after ATP releases energy?

a)

It has one phosphate group

b)

It has two phosphate groups instead of three

c)

It has an extra ribose

d)

It has no adenine

52.

What is the purpose of mitosis?

a)

Growth and tissue repair

b)

Producing sex cells for reproduction

c)

Reducing chromosome number by half

d)

Creating genetic diversity

53.

How many cells are produced at the end of mitosis, and how alike are they?

a)

Two identical cells

b)

Two genetically different cells

c)

Four identical cells

d)

Four genetically different cells

54.

Which statement best defines haploid cells and gives two examples?

a)

Cells with one set of chromosomes; examples: sperm and egg

b)

Cells with two sets of chromosomes; examples: liver and skin cells

c)

Cells with one set of chromosomes; examples: liver and skin cells

d)

Cells with two sets of chromosomes; examples: sperm and egg

55.

How many times does cell division occur during meiosis?

a)

Once

b)

Twice

c)

Three times

d)

Four times

56.

How many cells are created in meiosis, and how alike are they?

a)

Two identical cells

b)

Two genetically different cells

c)

Four identical cells

d)

Four genetically different cells

57.

How does the chromosome number change during meiosis?

a)

It doubles

b)

It stays the same

c)

It is halved

d)

It increases by one

58.

Why must the chromosome number be half in cells produced by meiosis?

a)

To ensure sex cells combine to form a diploid zygote with the correct chromosome number

b)

To speed up cell division and growth

c)

To prevent chromosomes from replicating during fertilization

d)

To make daughter cells identical to the parent cell

59.

Select the pair that correctly completes the statement: A sperm cell is a ______ and is ______.

a)

gamete; haploid

b)

gamete; diploid

c)

zygote; haploid

d)

zygote; diploid

60.

If the diploid number in a liver cell is 52, how many chromosomes are in the egg of this organism?

a)

13

b)

26

c)

52

d)

104

61.

Select the pair that correctly completes the statement: When a sperm cell and an ovum merge during fertilization, they give rise to a ______, which is ______.

a)

zygote; diploid

b)

zygote; haploid

c)

gamete; diploid

d)

gamete; haploid