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Component 1 - Learning Aim C

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which warm-up best prepares football players and reduces injury risk?

a)

Skip warm-up and hydrate later

b)

Start with static long-held stretches

c)

Begin with gradual dynamic movements

d)

Jump straight into full-speed sprints

2.

Which planning step shows a coach understands how the body responds during exercise?

a)

Using the same pace throughout

b)

Ending abruptly without a cool-down

c)

Progressing intensity through phases

d)

Randomly picking drills each day

3.

You have 10 minutes and cones set up as shown. Which warm-up sequence is best?

a)

Maximum effort sprints, then stop

b)

Light jog, mobility, sport-specific

c)

Static holds only, no movement

d)

Ball work first, no raise in pulse

4.

What is a pulse raiser in a warm-up?

a)

A breathing drill to improve lung capacity

b)

A cooling strategy to lower body temperature

c)

A gradual elevation of heart rate before activity

d)

A brief static stretch routine for flexibility

5.

What is the main purpose of a pulse raiser before exercise?

a)

To reduce sweating during exercise

b)

To target specific muscles

c)

To save energy for the workout

d)

To prepare heart rate for exercise

6.

What is the ideal duration for a pulse raiser in a warm-up?

a)

At least three to five minutes

b)

More than twenty minutes

c)

Thirty seconds to one minute

d)

Ten to fifteen minutes

7.

Which sequence shows intensity increasing in a warm-up?

a)

Gentle jogging, running, sprinting

b)

Running, sprinting, gentle jogging

c)

Sprinting, running, gentle jogging

d)

Walking, static stretching, sprinting

8.

What happens to muscle temperature and readiness during a pulse raiser?

a)

Temperature stays the same, readiness unchanged

b)

Temperature decreases, performance worsens

c)

Temperature increases, performers become ready

d)

Temperature changes randomly, readiness varies

9.

Which of these are common pulse raiser activities?

a)

Jogging on the spot, high knees, jumping jacks

b)

Deadlifts, bench press, heavy squats

c)

Static hamstring hold, quad stretch, calf stretch

d)

Yoga poses, deep breathing, Pilates

10.

A coach observes players starting with jogging, then running, then sprints. Which training component does this represent?

a)

Speed endurance development phase

b)

Cool-down recovery protocol

c)

Main body strength conditioning

d)

Pulse raiser within the warm-up

11.

Which is the best five-minute basketball warm-up to gradually raise heart rate?

a)

Static stretches for five minutes

b)

Balance drills without intensity

c)

Jogging, high knees, then sprint drills

d)

Immediate full sprint tests

12.

Which of these is NOT usually a pulse raiser?

a)

Jumping jacks

b)

Walking lunges

c)

Heavy one-rep max back squats (using over 10kg)

d)

High knees

13.

Why should you do a pulse raiser before the main session?

a)

It prevents dehydration

b)

It increases calorie burn

c)

It prepares the body and reduces injury risk

d)

It replaces the need for cool-down

14.

Which change during a pulse raiser helps meet higher oxygen demand at muscles?

a)

Stable heart rate

b)

Increased heart rate

c)

Decreased heart rate

d)

Irregular heart rate

15.

Which response increases blood flow to where it is most needed during a warm-up?

a)

Decreased blood flow to cardiac muscle

b)

Increased blood flow to skeletal muscles

c)

Unchanged blood flow across all tissues

d)

Reduced blood flow to digestive organs

16.

A student feels short of breath after a pulse raiser. Which physiological change explains this?

a)

Increased breathing rate to address oxygen shortage

b)

Decreased breathing rate conserving respiratory effort

c)

Irregular breathing rate limiting airflow

d)

Unchanged breathing rate between breaths

17.

Which adjustment helps remove respiratory waste faster during a warm‑up?

a)

Rapid, shallow panting

b)

Shallow breaths with lower tidal volume

c)

Holding breath to stabilise carbon dioxide

d)

Deeper breaths with higher tidal volume

18.

Which response during a pulse raiser helps remove carbon dioxide?

a)

Delayed removal of carbon dioxide

b)

Unchanged carbon dioxide levels

c)

Decreased removal of carbon dioxide

d)

Increased removal of carbon dioxide

19.

Muscle contractions during a pulse raiser produce heat. What is the effect on muscles?

a)

Increased muscle temperature aiding performance

b)

Decreased muscle temperature limiting movement

c)

Unchanged muscle temperature at rest levels

d)

External temperature only affecting muscles

20.

What is the term for muscles and tissues stretching further when warm?

a)

Pliability of muscles improving flexibility

b)

Fragility of muscles increasing injury risk

c)

Density of muscles preventing elongation

d)

Rigidity of muscles resisting extension

21.

Why does a pulse raiser before activity lower injury risk?

a)

It warms muscles and reduces strain risk

b)

It increases strain risk by causing fatigue

c)

It does not affect muscle strain risk

d)

It hides muscle strain without preventing it

22.

Which sequence best shows how the cardio‑respiratory system responds during a warm‑up run?

a)

Irregular breathing rate then unstable oxygen supply

b)

Constant breathing rate then equal oxygen needs

c)

Higher breathing rate then greater oxygen uptake

d)

Lower breathing rate then less oxygen delivery

23.

Which changes best prepare muscles to generate force safely after a warm-up?

a)

Higher muscle temperature and greater pliability

b)

Lower muscle temperature and reduced pliability

c)

Stable muscle temperature and unchanged pliability

d)

Higher muscle temperature and increased rigidity

24.

During a pulse raiser, blood is redirected to working muscles. Which planning decision uses this to improve performance?

a)

Avoid movement to keep blood in core organs

b)

Hold breath to concentrate blood in lungs

c)

Include gradual intensity to increase muscle perfusion

d)

Start intense activity immediately without warm-up

25.

Which pair of changes best increases oxygen delivery to tissues at the start of exercise?

a)

Decreased heart rate and decreased breathing rate

b)

Increased heart rate and increased breathing rate

c)

Unchanged heart rate and unchanged breathing rate

d)

Increased heart rate and decreased breathing rate

26.

You feel light-headed during exercise. Which action helps your body recover?

a)

Slow and deepen breathing to improve gas exchange

b)

Hold your breath to raise carbon dioxide quickly

c)

Stop moving to cool muscles abruptly

d)

Sprint harder to force heart rate higher

27.

What is the main result of deeper breathing during a warm-up?

a)

Faster removal of waste gases from the body

b)

More carbon dioxide in the blood

c)

No change in gas movement

d)

Less oxygen exchange at the alveoli

28.

A coach says warm-ups only raise heart rate and don't affect injury risk. Which option disagrees?

a)

More strain risk from higher pulse

b)

No change in strain risk with higher heart rate

c)

Heart rate rise not linked to flexibility

d)

Less muscle strain risk after warming up

29.

Why should you mobilise joints before exercise?

a)

To instantly strengthen muscles

b)

To burn calories quickly

c)

To lower heart rate

d)

To safely increase range of motion

30.

A warm-up should start with small movements and progress to larger ones. Which plan is best for the shoulder?

a)

Start with gentle arm circles, then wider rotations

b)

Start with fast arm swings, then stop completely

c)

Begin with static holds, then no movement

d)

Begin with heavy weights, then slower circles

31.

Which exercise directly mobilises the wrists?

a)

Wrist circles in both directions

b)

Deep squats

c)

Hip open-and-close the gate

d)

Calf raises

32.

Which exercise best prepares the hips for multidirectional movement?

a)

Elbow flexion and extension

b)

Static knee extensions

c)

Rapid calf raises

d)

Open and close the gate drills

33.

A student does squats and leg extensions. Which joint area is targeted?

a)

Wrists during circles

b)

Shoulders during rotations

c)

Hips during dynamic work

d)

Knees during mobiliser work

34.

Which option is a misconception about ankle mobilisation?

a)

Circles help prepare the joint

b)

Only static holds are needed

c)

Gentle range increases are useful

d)

Calf raises develop ankle control

35.

You have two minutes before a match. Which mini-routine best warms up your main joints?

a)

Press-ups, sit-ups, sprints, lunges, burpees

b)

Heavy barbell lifts, then static holds

c)

Arm rotations, wrist circles, hip gate, squats, ankle circles

d)

Arm stretches only, then rest quietly

36.

What cardio-respiratory change occurs when exercise intensity is reduced?

a)

Stable heart rate and unchanged breaths

b)

Slight drop in heart rate and breathing

c)

Irregular heartbeats with rapid breathing

d)

Rise in heart rate and faster breaths

37.

Why do joints move more easily after gentle mobilisation drills?

a)

Muscle fatigue loosens joint capsules

b)

Decreased synovial fluid thickens joints

c)

Increased synovial fluid boosts lubrication

d)

Reduced lubrication limits joint motion

38.

During a cooldown with mobilisers, what happens to breathing rate?

a)

Becomes irregular

b)

Stays constant

c)

Rises significantly

d)

Drops by about half

39.

Which sequence links a mobiliser action to its musculoskeletal effects?

a)

Mobiliser → more synovial fluid → more lubrication

b)

Mobiliser → less synovial fluid → less lubrication

c)

Mobiliser → unchanged fluid → same lubrication

d)

Mobiliser → fluid loss → wider movement

40.

Which option best helps increase range of movement before a flexibility test?

a)

Do intense sprints

b)

Skip warm-up

c)

Use controlled joint mobilisation exercises

d)

Hold long static stretches

41.

A coach notices a runner’s heart rate drop during technique drills. What is the most likely reason?

a)

Drills restrict blood flow

b)

Drills reduce exercise intensity

c)

Drills raise metabolic demand

d)

Drills cause dehydration

42.

Which change best shows effective cooldown with a mobiliser?

a)

Higher heart rate and deeper breaths

b)

Lower heart rate and slower breaths

c)

Unchanged heart rate and faster breaths

d)

Lower heart rate and faster breaths

43.

Why do mobilisers help prevent joint stiffness after activity?

a)

They cool the cartilage quickly

b)

They increase joint lubrication

c)

They reduce blood to muscles

d)

They dry the joint surfaces

44.

What is the main purpose of stretching before exercise?

a)

Build muscle size

b)

Boost heart rate

c)

Prepare muscles and reduce injury risk

d)

Increase joint stress

45.

What is it called when you hold a stretch in one position without moving?

a)

Static stretch method

b)

Ballistic stretch technique

c)

Compound stretch routine

d)

Dynamic stretch pattern

46.

What is a dynamic stretch?

a)

Holding a position briefly

b)

Moving whilst stretching

c)

Resting between sets

d)

Contracting the muscle without moving

47.

Which combination shows good dynamic stretches for a sprinting warm-up?

a)

Isometric plank and wall sit

b)

Quad hold and triceps hold

c)

Arm circles and trunk twists

d)

Hamstring hold and calf hold

48.

During a standing quad stretch, which muscle group is mainly targeted?

a)

Quadriceps at the front thigh

b)

Hamstrings at the back thigh

c)

Gastrocnemius in the calf

d)

Gluteus maximus in the hip

49.

Which muscle is at the front of the upper arm and bends the elbow?

a)

Erector spinae

b)

Deltoid

c)

Biceps

d)

Triceps

50.

Which muscle covers the shoulder and lifts the arm to the side?

a)

Quadriceps

b)

Gluteus maximus

c)

Deltoid

d)

Obliques

51.

Which muscle group runs along the spine and extends the back?

a)

Abdominals across the belly

b)

Erector spinae along the spine

c)

Hip flexors at the front hip

d)

Triceps on the upper arm

52.

You feel tightness at the side of your abdomen when twisting. Which muscle is being stretched most?

a)

Gastrocnemius in the lower calf

b)

Hamstrings on the back thigh

c)

External obliques on the trunk sides

d)

Quadriceps on the front thigh

53.

Which pair correctly matches function and location?

a)

Gastrocnemius—hip rotation in upper leg

b)

Hamstrings—knee extension on back thigh

c)

Hip flexors—bending hip at front pelvis

d)

Triceps—elbow flexion on upper arm back

54.

Design a simple stretch for the hamstrings. Which choice fits the definition of simple?

a)

Forward fold holding one position

b)

Step-back lunge to knee drive

c)

Walking lunges with arm reach

d)

Squat with trunk rotation

55.

Which example best illustrates a compound stretch?

a)

Wall triceps hold

b)

Seated hamstring hold

c)

Arm swing while stepping forward

d)

Static calf hold only

56.

For athletes with tight hip flexors, which stretch would be most directly targeted?

a)

Kneeling lunge with hip push

b)

Standing calf raise hold

c)

Seated forward hamstring hold

d)

Cross-body triceps arm hold

57.

You are programming a warm-up for jumping activities. Which muscles should be prioritized for stretching to help knee drive and landing control?

a)

Deltoid and obliques

b)

Quadriceps and gastrocnemius

c)

Erector spinae and abdominals

d)

Biceps and triceps

58.

Which stretch choice best prevents lower back strain during lifting practice?

a)

Dynamic trunk rotations for obliques

b)

Static back extension for erector spinae

c)

Cat-camel mobility for spine control

d)

Seated biceps curl isometric hold

59.

Which scenario best explains why static stretching may lower heart rate and breathing rate during a warm-up?

a)

Holding a stretch quietly for thirty seconds

b)

Jogging while swinging arms and legs

c)

Performing quick lunges in short bursts

d)

Skipping drills with increasing tempo

60.

During dynamic stretching, what is the typical cardio-respiratory response compared to static stretching?

a)

No change in heart or breathing rates

b)

Significant drop in heart and breathing rates

c)

Maintained elevated heart and breathing rates

d)

Irregular heart and breathing rates

61.

A coach wants to reduce muscle tear risk before a match. Which stretching outcome supports this goal?

a)

Extends the muscle beyond normal state

b)

Shortens the muscle to resting length

c)

Prevents any muscle activation at all

d)

Keeps muscle tension completely absent

62.

You have five minutes for warm-up. Plan the order to optimize cardio-respiratory readiness and injury prevention.

a)

Dynamic stretches then static then sprinting

b)

Static only then immediately high-intensity work

c)

Light activity then dynamic stretches then static

d)

Static stretches then dynamic stretches then rest

63.

Which explanation best justifies choosing dynamic stretches over static right before a fast-paced drill?

a)

They keep heart and breathing rates elevated

b)

They eliminate all risk of muscle tears

c)

They perfectly match resting physiological state

d)

They reduce movement by promoting stillness

64.

Which factor should primarily govern how hard a warm-up is performed?

a)

Weather conditions on the day

b)

Coach’s personal training style

c)

The sport’s rulebook wording

d)

Athlete’s fitness and age/ability

65.

A group of younger students begins class. What is the best way to set warm-up intensity for them?

a)

Skip warm-up to save time

b)

Avoid any cardio movements

c)

Force a fixed high intensity

d)

Let students self-regulate intensity

66.

Older participants are joining a recreational session. Which intensity choice is most appropriate?

a)

Sustain low intensity throughout

b)

No warm-up needed

c)

Alternate extreme sprints

d)

Immediate maximum effort

67.

An elite sprinter is preparing to train. Which warm-up approach best supports performance?

a)

Focus only on static stretching time

b)

Avoid dynamic movements entirely

c)

Use very low intensity to conserve energy

d)

Use higher intensity to activate muscles

68.

Which pair correctly matches impact level to example movement for inclusivity?

a)

High impact—slow walking

b)

Low impact—jump squats

c)

High impact—gentle arm circles

d)

Low impact—marching in place

69.

A mixed-ability class includes a student with a lower limb disability. Which adaptation best balances inclusion and safety?

a)

Mandatory jogging laps for all

b)

No warm-up for that student

c)

High-impact bounding drills

d)

Seated dynamic upper-body warm-up

70.

Which statement best explains why warm-up intensity should be individualized?

a)

Intensity should always be maximal

b)

Identical intensity maximizes fairness

c)

Different fitness levels require different demands

d)

Warm-ups replace skill practice entirely

71.

When planning a warm-up for beginners, which sequencing shows sound reasoning?

a)

Start maximal, then abruptly stop

b)

Start low intensity, build gradually

c)

Begin static holds, avoid movement

d)

Skip mobility, add only sprints

72.

Which outcome is linked to a well-designed high-intensity warm-up for advanced performers?

a)

Slower reaction times

b)

Greater risk only without benefits

c)

Improved speed activation

d)

Reduced muscle activation

73.

You must adapt warm-up impact for a hardwood gym with joint-sensitive participants. What is the best choice?

a)

Run continuous stairs for time

b)

Add repeated jump tests

c)

Perform maximal plyometric sets

d)

Choose low-impact, controlled drills

74.

A 15-minute warm-up is planned for a mixed-age class. Which adjustment best matches the principle that timing depends on age and ability?

a)

Keep the same time for everyone

b)

Reduce time for elite performers

c)

Shorten time for younger children

d)

Extend time for elite performers

75.

Which statement best explains why low impact movements are recommended for older participants?

a)

They avoid excessive jumping and bounding

b)

They focus only on upper-body strength

c)

They require maximum anaerobic effort

d)

They increase joint stress significantly

76.

An athlete without joint injuries is preparing for a sprint session. Which warm-up activity aligns with high impact guidance?

a)

Walking lunges for five minutes

b)

Squat jumps in short intervals

c)

Gentle arm circles and breathing

d)

Static calf stretches only

77.

You are designing a warm-up for a wheelchair basketball session. Which option shows activity-specific movements?

a)

Standing balance exercises

b)

General jogging in place

c)

Static hamstring holds

d)

Propulsion drills and turns

78.

A school PE group includes older adults visiting. What change best demonstrates adapting warm-up timings?

a)

Replace dynamic stretches with static

b)

Remove the mobility phase entirely

c)

Shorten overall duration slightly

d)

Add longer high-intensity intervals

79.

Which choice correctly distinguishes simple from compound stretches?

a)

Simple target one muscle group

b)

Simple use fast bouncing motions

c)

Compound avoid using joints entirely

d)

Compound target only the calves

80.

A netball team wants a sport-specific warm-up. Which sequence best shows specificity?

a)

Jogging, random stretches, meditation

b)

Dynamic ankle taps, chest passes, pivots

c)

Burpees, sit-ups, heavy resistance sets

d)

Static quad holds, toe touches, wall sits

81.

Which adjustment is most appropriate for a participant with a physical disability affecting lower limbs?

a)

Include bounding drills to build power

b)

Increase squat jump volume substantially

c)

Remove the warm-up entirely

d)

Shift to upper-body dynamic mobility

82.

When planning warm-up length for elite athletes, what is the best approach?

a)

Skip and start the main set

b)

Shorten to save energy

c)

Keep very brief and minimal

d)

Extend to prepare thoroughly

83.

Which option best matches relevant muscles for a soccer-specific warm-up?

a)

Work solely the abdominal obliques

b)

Emphasize trapezius exclusively

c)

Target calves, hamstrings, hip flexors

d)

Focus wrists and forearms only

84.

Which activity is most effective for increasing heart rate at the start of a warm-up?

a)

Holding a plank position

b)

Standing still

c)

Gentle stretching

d)

Jogging on the spot

85.

What is the primary benefit of performing joint mobilisation exercises before intense physical activity?

a)

Improved joint lubrication and movement

b)

Reduced oxygen supply

c)

Lowered body temperature

d)

Immediate muscle growth

86.

During a cool-down, which physiological change is expected?

a)

Sudden muscle contraction

b)

Rapid rise in breathing rate

c)

Decrease in heart rate

d)

Increase in muscle temperature

87.

Which activity is most effective for increasing joint lubrication before exercise?

a)

Sitting quietly and relaxing

b)

Performing heavy weightlifting sets

c)

Holding static stretches for several minutes

d)

Gentle joint mobilisation movements

88.

What is the primary benefit of performing dynamic stretches in a warm-up routine?

a)

Improved muscle flexibility and increased blood flow

b)

Reduced heart rate and slower breathing

c)

Decreased joint lubrication

d)

Lower muscle temperature

89.

During a cool-down, which physiological response is expected?

a)

Muscle temperature rises sharply

b)

Joint stiffness increases immediately

c)

Heart rate spikes and breathing becomes rapid

d)

Heart rate and breathing rate gradually decrease

90.

Which benefit is most associated with performing dynamic mobilisation exercises before activity?

a)

Improved joint lubrication and movement range

b)

Reduced muscle temperature and stiffness

c)

Decreased blood flow to working muscles

d)

Increased risk of injury

91.

What is the primary effect of a gradual warm-up on the cardiovascular system?

a)

Sudden drop in heart rate

b)

Immediate muscle fatigue

c)

Steady increase in heart rate and blood flow

d)

No change in breathing rate

92.

Which exercise is best for mobilising the shoulder joint before upper body training?

a)

Gentle arm circles

b)

Static calf stretch

c)

Deep squats

d)

Wrist flexion holds

93.

Which benefit is most associated with performing a proper cool-down after exercise?

a)

Immediate boost in energy levels

b)

Rapid dehydration of muscles

c)

Gradual reduction in heart rate and muscle soreness

d)

Sudden increase in muscle tension

94.

What is the primary reason for including joint mobilisation in a warm-up routine?

a)

To decrease blood flow to muscles

b)

To limit movement and prevent stretching

c)

To reduce oxygen supply to tissues

d)

To increase joint lubrication and flexibility

95.

Which type of stretch is best performed at the end of a workout to aid recovery?

a)

Static stretching

b)

Isometric stretching

c)

Ballistic stretching

d)

Dynamic stretching

96.

Which activity is most effective for increasing blood flow before a workout?

a)

Light jogging followed by dynamic movements

b)

Sitting quietly for five minutes

c)

Standing still and stretching arms

d)

Holding deep static stretches only

97.

What is a key benefit of including joint mobilisation in a warm-up routine?

a)

Decreases blood flow to muscles

b)

Limits oxygen delivery to tissues

c)

Increases range of movement and flexibility

d)

Reduces joint lubrication

98.

Which statement best describes the effect of a proper cool-down after exercise?

a)

Heart rate and breathing rate gradually decrease

b)

Muscle temperature rises sharply

c)

Blood pools in the lower body suddenly

d)

Flexibility is reduced immediately

99.

Which warm-up activity is most effective for increasing joint lubrication?

a)

Doing maximum effort sprints immediately

b)

Holding static stretches for several minutes

c)

Performing gentle dynamic movements like lunges

d)

Sitting quietly before exercise

100.

What is the main benefit of including mobility drills in a warm-up routine?

a)

They improve joint range of motion

b)

They reduce muscle temperature

c)

They limit blood flow to muscles

d)

They increase muscle fatigue