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Lifetime Wellness Final Exam

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the benefits of regular physical exercise?

a)

Regular exercise leads to weaker muscles and decreased endurance

b)

Sitting all day is better for overall health

c)

Physical activity has no impact on mental health or chronic diseases

d)

Improved cardiovascular health, increased muscle strength and endurance, better mental health, weight management, and reduced risk of chronic diseases.

2.

Explain the difference between aerobic and anaerobic exercise.

a)

Aerobic exercise is only for professional athletes, while anaerobic exercise is for beginners.

b)

Aerobic exercise is done indoors, while anaerobic exercise is done outdoors.

c)

Aerobic exercise is low intensity, while anaerobic exercise is high intensity.

d)

Aerobic exercise requires oxygen to produce energy, while anaerobic exercise does not require oxygen.

3.

What are some common types of stretching exercises?

a)

Yoga stretching

b)

Some common types of stretching exercises include static stretching, dynamic stretching, ballistic stretching, and proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) stretching.

c)

Pilates stretching

d)

Weightlifting stretching

4.

What are the key components of a healthy diet?

a)

Fried foods and fast food

b)

Fruits, vegetables, whole grains, lean proteins, and healthy fats

c)

Processed foods high in sodium and preservatives

d)

Sugary snacks and drinks

5.

How does the body use carbohydrates, proteins, and fats?

a)

Carbohydrates for insulation, proteins for energy, and fats for building and repairing tissues

b)

Carbohydrates for energy storage, proteins for insulation, and fats for building and repairing tissues

c)

Carbohydrates for energy, proteins for building and repairing tissues, and fats for energy storage and insulation

d)

Carbohydrates for building and repairing tissues, proteins for energy, and fats for energy storage

6.

What are some strategies for maintaining a balanced and nutritious diet?

a)

Eating a variety of fruits and vegetables, choosing whole grains, consuming lean proteins, staying hydrated, and limiting processed foods and added sugars.

b)

Skipping meals and fasting for long periods of time

c)

Consuming high amounts of sugary drinks and snacks

d)

Eating only fast food and junk food

7.

What are some common signs of stress and how can they be managed?

a)

Feeling happy, energetic, motivated; ignoring the symptoms, pushing through the stress, working harder

b)

Headaches, muscle tension, fatigue, changes in sleep or eating patterns; relaxation techniques, exercise, healthy eating, seeking support

c)

Skipping meals, overeating, excessive exercise; meditation, deep breathing, spending time with loved ones

d)

Caffeine, alcohol, smoking; watching TV, playing video games, staying up late

8.

Explain the relationship between mental health and overall wellness.

a)

Mental health and overall wellness are closely related as mental well-being significantly impacts physical health, social relationships, and overall quality of life.

b)

Mental health only affects social relationships

c)

Physical health has no impact on mental well-being

d)

Mental health has no impact on overall wellness

9.

What are some common substances that are often abused and their potential health effects?

a)

Alcohol, tobacco, marijuana, cocaine, heroin, prescription drugs

b)

Fruits, vegetables, whole grains

c)

Coffee, tea, energy drinks, soda

d)

Exercise, meditation, yoga

10.

What are some strategies for preventing substance abuse and addiction?

a)

Encouraging peer pressure and influence to experiment with substances

b)

Promoting substance abuse as a form of stress relief

c)

Limiting access to mental health and addiction treatment services

d)

Educating individuals about the risks and consequences of substance abuse and providing access to mental health and addiction treatment services.

11.

What are some common types of mental health disorders?

a)

Depression, anxiety, bipolar disorder, schizophrenia, post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

b)

Common cold, flu, pneumonia, bronchitis

c)

Diabetes, heart disease, cancer, stroke, arthritis

d)

Fractures, sprains, strains, dislocations

12.

What are some effective methods for managing stress?

a)

Ignoring the stress, working harder, pushing through the symptoms

b)

Relaxation techniques, exercise, healthy eating, seeking support

c)

Overeating, skipping meals, excessive exercise

d)

Watching TV, playing video games, staying up late

13.

What are the benefits of a balanced and nutritious diet?

a)

Increased risk of chronic diseases, poor mental health, decreased energy levels

b)

Weight gain, increased risk of heart disease, diabetes, and certain types of cancer

c)

Improved overall health, increased energy levels, better mental health, weight management, and reduced risk of chronic diseases.

d)

None of the above

14.

What are some common types of cardiovascular exercises and their benefits?

a)

Running, swimming, cycling; improved heart health, increased stamina, weight management

b)

Weightlifting, push-ups, squats; improved heart health, increased stamina, weight management

c)

Yoga, pilates, tai chi; improved heart health, increased stamina, weight management

d)

Watching TV, playing video games, sleeping; improved heart health, increased stamina, weight management

15.

What are the potential health risks of a diet high in processed foods?

a)

Increased risk of heart disease, diabetes, obesity, and certain types of cancer

b)

Improved overall health, increased energy levels, better mental health, weight management

c)

Increased muscle strength and endurance, better mental health, weight management

d)

None of the above

16.

What are some effective strategies for promoting mental health and well-being?

a)

Ignoring stress, working harder, pushing through the symptoms

b)

Regular physical activity, balanced diet, adequate sleep, social connections, stress management techniques

c)

Overeating, skipping meals, excessive exercise

d)

Watching TV, playing video games, staying up late

17.

What are the potential health benefits of regular meditation?

a)

Improved focus, reduced stress, better sleep, and increased self-awareness

b)

Increased muscle strength, improved cardiovascular health, weight loss

c)

Improved digestion, increased energy levels, better skin health

d)

None of the above

18.

What are some common types of strength training exercises and their benefits?

a)

Weightlifting, push-ups, squats; improved muscle strength, increased bone density, better balance and coordination

b)

Running, swimming, cycling; improved heart health, increased stamina, weight management

c)

Yoga, pilates, tai chi; improved flexibility, better balance, stress reduction

d)

Watching TV, playing video games, sleeping; improved heart health, increased stamina, weight management

19.

What are the potential health risks of a sedentary lifestyle?

a)

Increased risk of heart disease, diabetes, obesity, and certain types of cancer

b)

Improved overall health, increased energy levels, better mental health, weight management

c)

Increased muscle strength and endurance, better mental health, weight management

d)

None of the above

20.

How many hours of sleep do teenagers need?

a)

6-8 hours

b)

8-10 hours

c)

10-12 hours

d)

12+ hours

21.

Sleep can help reduce your ______

a)

Money

b)

Stress levels

c)

Happiness

d)

Sugar levels

22.

What is your 'emotional wellbeing'?

a)

A positive sense of wellbeing that allows you to function.

b)

A negative sense of wellbeing that doesn't allow you to function.

c)

A positive attitude towards your exams.

d)

Being overly emotional.

23.

A good night's sleep can help improve your ______

a)

Appetite

b)

Attention and Concentration

c)

Stress

d)

Tiredness

24.

What does the M in SMART stand for?

a)

Maximum - there are no limits for goals

b)

Memorable - a goal must be easily remembered

c)

Measurable - a goal must have some kind of number attached so you have a way to know if you are reaching the goal.

d)

Mental - you have to be able to think about the goal.

25.

What does the A in SMART stand for?

a)

Attainable - a goal must be reachable; you CAN do it.

b)

Admirable - a goal must impress people.

c)

Artistic - a goal must be creative.

d)

Academic - a goal must be scholarly and oriented towards learning.

26.
What does the R in SMART stand for?
a)
Responsible -a goal must allow you to take charge.
b)
Realistic - a goal must be realistic in how long it will take and the steps taken to achieve it.
c)
Respectful - a goal must allow you to be kind and polite.
d)
Repeatable - you must be able to do the goal over and over again.
27.
What does the T in SMART stand for?
a)
Time-bound - the goal must be reached within a specific length of time.
b)
Thoughtful - a goal must take into account the feelings of others.
c)
Transferable - a goal should be able to be shared with other people.
d)
Trust-worthy - a goal should be worthy.
28.
What part of SMART is missing from this goal? I will improve my grade in science by the end of the semester.
a)
Not time-bound
b)
Not attainable
c)
Not specific enough
d)
Not measurable
29.

One way to increase your chances of achieving your goals is to ______ them down.

a)

lay

b)

run

c)

throw

d)

write

30.

Which goal is MEASURABLE?

a)

I will do the grocery shopping.

b)

I will fix my own breakfast.

c)

I will learn to make 3 different sandwiches.

d)

I will eat more vegetables.

31.

Which goal has a deadline?

a)

By October 1, I will be able to use the vacuum cleaner by myself.

b)

Someday I will learn how to load the dishwasher.

c)

I will drive a car.

d)

I will find a job when I am older.

32.

What does the S in SMART stand for?

a)

Specific - a goal must be clear and well defined.

b)

Simple - a goal must be easy to understand.

c)

Shared - a goal must be agreed upon by everyone involved.

d)

Safe - a goal must not involve any risk or danger.

33.

What are some common types of aerobic exercises and their benefits?

a)

Running, swimming, cycling; improved cardiovascular health, increased stamina, weight management

b)

Weightlifting, push-ups, squats; improved muscle strength, increased bone density, better balance and coordination

c)

Yoga, pilates, tai chi; improved flexibility, better balance, stress reduction

d)

Watching TV, playing video games, sleeping; improved cardiovascular health, increased stamina, weight management

34.

What are some strategies for promoting physical health and well-being?

a)

Regular physical activity, balanced diet, adequate sleep, regular check-ups

b)

Ignoring physical discomfort, working harder, pushing through the pain

c)

Overeating, skipping meals, excessive exercise

d)

Watching TV, playing video games, staying up late

35.

Which health related component of fitness involves the range of motion in and around your joints.

a)

Cardio-respiratory endurance

b)

Body Composition

c)

Flexibility

d)

Muscular Strength

36.

The health related component of fitness that covers what the body is composed of. The amount of lean mass compared to fat mass.

a)

Body Composition

b)

Muscular Endurance

c)

Flexibility

d)

Cardio-Respiratory Endurance

37.
The ability of your muscles to exert force 
a)
Muscular Strength
b)
Muscular Endurance
c)
Flexibility
d)
Cardio-Respiratory Endurance
38.
The ability of your muscles to exert force for an extended period of time
a)
Muscular Strength
b)
Muscular Endurance
c)
Cardio-Respiratory Endurance
d)
Flexibility
39.

The ability of you heart to pump blood and lungs to receive oxygen so that you have the ability to sustain an activity for an extended period of time

a)

Muscular Strength

b)

Muscular Endurance

c)

Flexibility

d)

Cardio-Respiratory Endurance

40.
Which is a good example of an activity that would increase flexibility?
a)
Playing basketball
b)
Yoga
c)
Golf
d)
Tennis
41.
Jackson's ability to perform 45 pushups is an example of which component of fitness
a)
Cardio-Respiratory Endurance
b)
Muscular Endurance
c)
Muscular Strength
d)
Flexibility
42.
The Pacer test is a fitness assessment that measures
a)
Flexibility
b)
Muscular Strength
c)
Cardio-Respiratory Endurance
d)
Muscular Endurance
43.

Power is...

a)

The ability to move as fast as possible

b)

Strength required for a short burst of movement

c)

Strength at a rapid pace.

d)

Combination of reaction time and movement time

44.

This skill related component is not needed in a 100m sprint

a)

Agility

b)

Power

c)

Speed

d)

Co-ordination

45.
What  component would be most important to a long distance runner?
a)
Reaction time 
b)
Cardio-Respiratory Endurance
c)
Agility
d)
Muscular Strength
46.

What is the ability of body parts to work together when you perform an activity?

a)

Flexibility

b)

Balance

c)

Coordination

d)

Reaction Time

47.

What is the ability to move quickly once a signal to start moving is received?

a)

Speed

b)

Reaction Time

c)

Power

d)

Body Composition

48.

What is the ability to keep the body in a steady position while standing or moving?

a)

Body Composition

b)

Coordination

c)

Muscular Strength

d)

Balance

49.
The integration of eye, hand, and foot movements is called, what?
a)
Power
b)
Flexibility
c)
Muscular Endurance
d)
Coordination
50.
You HAVE to be an athlete to be physically fit?
a)
True
b)
False
51.

What is physical fitness?

a)

The ability to do everyday tasks without getting tired.

b)

The way your body adapts to the stress of exercise.

c)

Any physical activities that improves your ability to complete tasks.

d)

All of the above.

52.

Which one is an example of a skill related component?

a)

Flexibility

b)

Balance

c)

Muscular Strength

d)

Body Composition

53.

Which one is an example of a health related component?

a)

Speed

b)

Coordination

c)

Flexibility

d)

Power

54.

Being able to change direction quickly in a game of basketball is a good example of which skill related component?

a)

Speed

b)

Power

c)

Coordination

d)

Agility

55.

Which of the following is a risk of consuming too much caffeine

a)

Exhaustion

b)

Headache

c)

Slow heart rate

d)

Sleepiness

56.

Which of the following is NOT an ingredient in energy drinks:

a)

Caffeine

b)

Sweeteners

c)

Guarana

d)

Electrolytes

57.

Energy drinks contain large amounts of caffeine, added sugar, and stimulants

a)

True

b)

False

58.
Tobacco that is chewed or sniffed is called
a)
smoking tobacco
b)
refer
c)
smokeless tobacco
d)
lite tobacco
59.

Nicotine falls in the Stimulant category. Stimulants are drugs that 

a)

improve the quality of life

b)

help the cardiovascular system

c)

cause cancer in humans

d)

increase the activity of the nervous system

60.
Which of the following is a short term effect of nicotine?
a)
reduced heart rate
b)
decreased mucus and saliva production
c)
increased blood pressure
d)
decreased blood pressure
61.
Tobacco smoke contains carcinogens, chemicals that causes
a)
addiction
b)
cancer
c)
bad breath
d)
high blood pressure
62.
The sticky substance that forms when tobacco burns is called
a)
yuck
b)
tar
c)
benzene
d)
acetone
63.
Which tobacco products are considered safe?
a)

Vaping

b)

cigar

c)

chew

d)

none

64.
Smoke exhaled from a smokers lungs is called
a)
mainstream smoke
b)
sidestream smoke
c)
environmental smoke
d)

third hand smoke

65.
Sidestream smoke comes from
a)
the end of the burning cigarrette
b)
only cigars
c)
 the smokers lungs
d)
the can of smokeless tobacco
66.
Besides nicotine, the two most harmful substances in tobacco are
a)
the filter and paper
b)
tar and carbon monoxide
c)
leukoplakia and arteriosclerosis
d)
smoke and fire
67.
Smokeless tobacco is safe because 
a)
it contains fewer carcinogens than smoking
b)
it is not inhaled
c)
it is not lit
d)
none of the above
68.
Quitting tobacco can be difficult because
a)
nicotine is highly addictive
b)
withdrawal can be uncomfortable
c)
they may be using tobacco as a coping mechanism
d)
all of the above
69.

Vaping is less dangerous and harmful than smoking cigarettes'.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

Vaping has been linked to

a)

Lung damage

b)

seizures

c)

nicotine addiction

d)

All of the above

71.

Alcohol is more addictive to teens because

a)

they have more social drama to deal with

b)

it's easy to get addicted when something is prohibited

c)

their brain is still growing in certain ways

d)

they weigh less than adults

72.

The MOST influential factor that determines teens decisions about drinking is...

a)

who they choose to surround themselves with (friends)

b)

family/homelife

c)

their genetics

d)

what they watch on TV or movies

73.

A hangover is...

a)

the body craving more alcohol

b)

the body gaining more tolerance to alcohol

c)

the body being tired from the night before

d)

the body being dehydrated

74.

The body can metabolize (break down) ___ an hour.

a)

one drink

b)

a few drinks

c)

two drinks

d)

no more than 5

75.

___ will help you sober up faster.

a)

a cold shower

b)

a cup of coffee

c)

time passing

d)

run it off

76.

Which factor does not directly influence your BAC?

a)

gender

b)

how many drinks you have

c)

weight

d)

age

77.

You will get a DWI at ___ BAC or higher.

a)

.05

b)

.08

c)

1.0

d)

1.5

78.

"One drink" is equal to:

a)

One 12 oz beer

b)

One shot (1.5 oz) of liquor

c)

One 5 oz wine

d)

all of the answers

79.

What does blood alcohol concentration (BAC) measure?

a)

the number of drinks a person has consumed in one night of drinking

b)

how well someone's brain functions after drinking alcohol

c)

the amount of alcohol in a person's blood

d)

the rate at which oxidation occurs in a person's liver

80.

Exercise increases stress levels

a)

True

b)

False

81.

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of exercise

a)

improved cell health

b)

prevention of injuries

c)

reduced risk of premature death

d)

increased risk of certain diseases

82.

What part of your body will be most benefited from exercise?

a)

Your bones

b)

Your muscles

c)

Your heart

d)

All of these

83.
The more active we are, the more .... we burn.
a)
muscles
b)
meals
c)
calories
84.

Which 3 are examples of PHYSICAL health benefits after being physically active?

a)

Your bones are stronger.

b)

You gain confidence.

c)

Your heart and lungs work more efficiently.

d)

You burn calories.

85.

Which 3 are examples of EMOTIONAL health benefits after being physically active?

a)

Your brain thinks more clearly and you are able to concentrate.

b)

You gain confidence and build self-esteem.

c)

You are better able to handle stress and challenges.

d)

Your coordination improves.

86.

Which 3 are examples of SOCIAL health benefits after being physically active?

a)

Your balance improves.

b)

You have higher self-esteem.

c)

You have the opportunity to meet new people.

d)

Your ability to work with others improves.

87.

Which of the following would be considered benefits in the cardiovascular and respiratory because of physical exercise?

a)

Strengthening the cardiac muscle that surrounds your heart

b)

Decrease in resting heart rate

c)

Lungs become weaker and cannot supply enough oxygen to your body

d)

Lungs become stronger and more easily supply oxygen to your body

88.

Which of the following would be considered benefits in the reduction of health risk factors because of physical exercise?

a)

Reduced risk of cardiovascular disease

b)

Reduced risk of type 2 diabetes

c)

Increased risk of obesity

d)

Reduced risk of some cancers

89.

Performing physical exercise can help with which of the following?

a)

Weight loss and reduced obesity

b)

Burning more calories

c)

Increasing muscle mass

d)

Increasing fat deposits

90.

Which of the following would be considered benefits in the improved brain function because of physical exercise?

a)

Reduction in fatigue

b)

Better alertness

c)

Better blood circulation

d)

Sharper thinking

91.

Performing physical activity can increase your self-esteem by improving body shape and giving you a sense of accomplishment.

a)

True

b)

False

92.

Which is the correct definition of physical activity

a)

Movement of the body, including everyday activities and exercises

b)

Movement of some of the body, including sports and exercises

c)

Doing activities and exercises

d)

Going to the gym

93.

Energy drinks are loaded with caffeine and what other substance?

a)

refreshments

b)

moderation

c)

stimulants

d)

water

94.

Approximately what amount of caffeine is found in an energy drink?

a)

20mg

b)

200mg

c)

2000mg

d)

2mg

95.

Which of the following are potential side effects of drinking energy drinks often? (select all)

a)

irregular heartbeat

b)

potential mental health problems

c)

lower energy over time

d)

exhaustion

96.

True or False? Caffeine can be used as a substitute for food.

a)

True

b)

False

97.

True or False? Energy drinks can lead to health issues.

a)

True

b)

False

98.

True or False? Many energy drinks contain over the recommended amount of sugar and caffeine

a)

True

b)

False

99.

Consuming energy drinks doesn't affect sleep quality

a)

True

b)

False

100.

List 5 things you learned in this class that will help you throughout your lifetime.

4 lines