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Strategic Management Worksheet Questions

Total questions: 110

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The term ___ is used to refer to strategy formulation, implementation, and evaluation, with ___ referring only to strategy formulation.

a)

strategic evaluation; strategic management

b)

assessment; planning

c)

strategic management; strategic planning

d)

management cycle; brainstorming

2.

Which of these requires a firm to establish annual objectives, devise policies, and allocate resources?

a)

Strategy formulation

b)

Strategy implementation

c)

Strategy manipulation

d)

Strategy evaluation

3.

Anything that a firm does especially well compared to rival firms is referred to as:

a)

Competitive advantage

b)

Comparative advantage

c)

An external opportunity

d)

Opportunity cost

4.

___ help an organization gather, analyze, and organize information.

a)

Ethics officers

b)

Operatives

c)

Lobbyists

d)

Strategists

5.

___ and ___ refer to economic, social, cultural, demographic, environmental, political, legal, governmental, technological, and competitive trends and events that could significantly benefit or harm an organization in the future.

a)

Internal strengths; external threats

b)

External opportunities; external threats

c)

Internal weaknesses; external opportunities

d)

Internal strengths; internal weaknesses

6.

The term "environment" of PESTEL includes all of the following except:

a)

Air

b)

Water

c)

Firms

d)

Natural resources

7.

During what stage of strategic management are a firm's specific internal strengths and weaknesses determined?

a)

Formulation

b)

Implementation

c)

Advertisement

d)

Feedback

8.

Which phase of strategic management is called the action phase

a)

Strategy formulation

b)

Strategy implementation

c)

Strategy evaluation

d)

Allocating resources

9.

___ is not a strategy-implementation activity.

a)

Taking corrective actions

b)

Establishing annual objectives

c)

Devising policies

d)

Allocating resources

10.

Which individuals are most responsible for the success and failure of an organization?

a)

Strategists

b)

Financial planner

c)

Personnel directors

d)

Stakeholders

11.

The first step in strategic planning is generally:

a)

Developing a vision statement

b)

Establishing goals and objectives

c)

Making a profit

d)

Developing a mission statement

12.

What are enduring statements of purpose that distinguish one business from other similar firms?

a)

Policies

b)

Mission statements

c)

Objectives

d)

Rules

13.

Internal ___ are activities in an organization that are performed especially well.

a)

Opportunities

b)

Competencies

c)

Strengths

d)

Management

14.

Long-term objectives should be all of the following except:

a)

Measurable

b)

Continually changing

c)

Reasonable

d)

Challenging

15.

The strategic-management process

a)

Occurs once a year.

b)

Is a single process.

c)

Is a continuous process.

d)

Applies mostly to companies with sales greater than $100 million

16.

Which of the following is not included in the strategic management model?

a)

Measure and evaluate performance.

b)

Perform internal research to identify customers.

c)

Establish long-term objectives

d)

Implement strategies

17.

According to research, organizations using strategic management are ___ than those that do not.

a)

More profitable

b)

More complex

c)

Less profitable

d)

Less static

18.

Which statement should be created first and foremost?

a)

Strategic

b)

Vision

c)

Objectives

d)

Mission

19.

The purpose of a mission statement is to declare all of these except:

a)

A reason for being.

b)

An annual financial plan.

20.

A mission statement is sometimes called all of the following except:

a)

A statement of intent

b)

A statement of law

c)

A statement of beliefs

d)

A creed statement

21.

The mission statement answers which question?

a)

What is our business?

b)

How can we improve ourselves!

c)

What do we want to become?

d)

Who are our stakeholders?

22.

The vision statement answers which question?

a)

What is our business?

b)

How can we improve ourselves?

c)

What do we want to become?

d)

Who are our stakeholders?

23.

Which group would be classified as a stakeholder?

a)

Communities

b)

Banks

c)

Employees

d)

All of these

24.

The three characteristics of a mission statement are a declaration of attitude, a declaration of social policy and:

a)

An employee orientation.

b)

A customer orientation.

c)

A shareholder orientation.

d)

An environmental orientation

25.

Effective mission statements can vary in

a)

Content.

b)

Format.

c)

Specificity

d)

All of the above

26.

Which question(s) are answered in an effective mission statement?

a)

What is the purpose of our organization?

b)

What is our company philosophy or self-concept?

c)

What technology will we employ to achieve our objectives?

d)

All of the above

27.

___ are external forces affecting organizations

a)

Technological forces

b)

Political forces

c)

Economic forces

d)

All of the above

28.

To perform an external audit, a company first must

a)

Get an approval from the Securities and Exchange Commission.

b)

Perform an internal audit.

c)

Gather competitive intelligence and information about external trends.

d)

Hire a consultant to develop a comprehensive strategic plan

29.

An example of a(n) ___ external variable is tax rates.

a)

Economic

b)

Political

c)

Governmental

d)

Demographic

30.

Consumption trend is an example of a(n) ___ variable.

a)

Political

b)

Economic

c)

Social

d)

Demographic

31.

Stock market trends, monetary policies and inflation rates are all ____

a)

Economic variables that could indicate opportunities and threats.

b)

Wildly unpredictable, and therefore not of any use to strategists.

c)

Moving up and down together.

d)

Good predictors of a company's profit margin

32.

Religion is an example of a(n) ___ of force.

a)

Economic

b)

Cultural

c)

Political

d)

Technological

33.

The number of marriages and divorces is an example of a(n) ___ force.

a)

Social

b)

Political

c)

Economic

d)

Governmental

34.

All of the following except ___ are examples of social trends.

a)

Increased level of education

b)

Delays in childbearing

c)

Rising interest rates

d)

Increasing numbers of women workers

35.

If a company benefits by way of a tariff against imports the company would be taking advantage of

a)

An economic trend

b)

A political trend

c)

A competitive trend

d)

A social trend

36.

Technological advancements can create new ___ advantages that are more powerful than existing advantages.

a)

Economic

b)

Social

c)

Environmental

d)

Competitive

37.

Technological advances are important for which of the following?

a)

Service organizations

b)

Computer organizations

c)

All organizations

d)

No organizations.

38.

According to Michael Porter, which of the following is not a competitive force?

a)

New entrants

b)

Rivalry among existing firms

c)

Bargaining power of unions

d)

Bargaining power of suppliers

39.

__, according to Porter, is usually the most powerful of the five competitive forces.

a)

Potential development of substitute products

b)

Bargaining power of suppliers

c)

Bargaining power of consumers

d)

Rivalry among competing firms

40.

Whenever new firms can easily enter a particular industry, the intensity of competitiveness among firms

a)

Stays the same

b)

Increases

c)

Decreases

d)

Neutralizes

41.

Bargaining power of consumers is when the products being purchased are standard or undifferentiated.

a)

Marginal

b)

Low

c)

High

d)

Negative

42.

The total weighted score ranges from ___ in an EFAS.

a)

0 to 4

b)

1 to 4

c)

0 to 5

d)

1 to 5

43.

___ is the first step in designing an EFAS.

a)

Identifying key external factors in the industry

b)

Summing the weighted score for each competitor

c)

Calculating the sales of each competitor

d)

Drawing the horizontal and vertical lines for the matrix

44.

In the EFAS Matrix, the range of weights is ____.

a)

1 to 4

b)

-10 to +10

c)

0 to 1

d)

0 to 10

45.

___ is the average weighted score on the EFAS.

a)

3.0

b)

2.0

c)

2.5

d)

4.0

46.

What is the range for a firm's total weighted score in an EFAS?

a)

0 to 5

b)

0 to 4

c)

1 to 5

d)

1 to 4

47.

A firm's strengths that cannot be easily matched or imitated by competitors are called

a)

Internal audits

b)

Distinctive competencies

c)

External audits

d)

Special properties

48.

Empirical indicators are resources that are either rare, hard to imitate, or ___

a)

Expensive

b)

Inexpensive

c)

Easily substitutable

d)

Not easily substitutable

49.

Which of the following is the first step in developing an IFAS?

a)

Determining the organization's structure

b)

Summing the weighted scores for each variable

c)

Identifying the organization's strengths and weaknesses

d)

Identifying the organization's functions of business

50.

Long-term objectives are needed at the ___ of an organization.

a)

corporate and divisional levels

b)

corporate levels

c)

corporate, business, and functional levels

d)

divisional and functional levels

51.

___ includes increasing the number of salespersons, increasing advertising expenditures, offering extensive sales promotion items, or increasing publicity efforts.

a)

Market Development

b)

Product development

c)

Horizontal integration

d)

Market penetration

52.

When employing a ___ strategy, a firm must be careful not to use such aggressive price cuts that their own profits are low or nonexistent.

a)

differentiation

b)

focus

c)

cost leadership

d)

product development

53.

Which strategy seeks to increase market share of present products or services in present markets through greater marketing efforts.

a)

Market penetration

b)

Forward integration

c)

Market development

d)

Product development

54.

When a domestic company first begins to export to India, it is an example of

a)

Product development

b)

Backward integration

c)

Forward integration

d)

Market development

55.

Which strategy generally requires large research and development expenditures?

a)

Market penetration

b)

Retrenchment

c)

Forward integration

d)

Product development

56.

All of the following situations are favorable to market development except:

a)

When an organization competes in a high-growth industry

b)

When an organization is very successful at what it does

c)

When new untapped or unsaturated markets exist

d)

When an organization has excess production capacity

57.

Which strategy is appropriate when an organization competes in an industry characterized by rapid technological developments?

a)

Product development

b)

BackWard integration

c)

Liquidation

58.

According to Porter, which strategy offers products or services to a small range of customers at the lowest price available on the market?

a)

Low-cost

b)

Best-value

c)

Low-cost focus

d)

Best-value focus

59.

___ are defensive tactics directed at reducing internal weakness and avoiding external threats.

a)

SW Strategies

b)

WO Strategies

c)

WT Strategies

d)

ST Strategies

60.

Which strategies aim at improving internal weaknesses by taking advantage of external opportunities?

a)

SO

b)

WO

c)

ST

d)

WT

61.

If an organization were to match high employee turnover with increased local competition, what type of strategies would be appropriate?

a)

SO strategies

b)

WO strategies

c)

ST strategies

d)

WT strategies

62.

Which strategies use a firm's strengths to avoid or reduce the impact of external threats?

a)

SW

b)

WO

c)

SW

d)

ST

63.

___ strategies are defensive tactics directed at reducing internal weaknesses and avoiding environmental threats.

a)

SO

b)

WO

c)

SW

d)

WT

64.

Which of the following is not a step of a TOWS Matrix?

a)

List the firm's key external threats

b)

Match strengths with external opportunities and record the resultant SO strategies in the appropriate cell

c)

Match internal weaknesses with external threats and record the resultant WT strategies

d)

List the firm's external weaknesses

65.

Which of these is true about strategy implementation?

a)

It is positioning forces before the action.

b)

It is primarily an operational process.

c)

It focuses on effectiveness

d)

It requires intuitive rather than leadership skills

66.

Which of these does NOT belong to strategy implementation?

a)

Setting short-term objectives

b)

Resources allocation

c)

Redefining mission statement

d)

Promoting corporate culture

67.

What is the first step in the comprehensive strategic-management model?

a)

Developing vision and mission statements

b)

Performing external and internal audits

c)

Measuring and evaluating performance

d)

Establishing long-term objectives

68.

___ can be defined as a disagreement between two or more parties on one or more issues.

a)

Avoidance

b)

Conflict

c)

Compromise

d)

Rational discussion

69.

Which of these does NOT belong to marketing policies?

a)

Market segmentation policy

b)

Market positioning policy

c)

Recruitment policy

d)

4Ps policy

70.

Setting short-term objectives are needed for which stage of strategic management?

a)

Strategic formulation

b)

Strategic implementation

c)

Strategic evaluation

d)

All of above

71.

In order to deploy strategic successfully, strategic implementation requires:

a)

To manage forces during the actions

b)

To get special leadership skill

c)

To coordinate among many individuals

d)

All of above

72.

Perhaps the most important limitation of a divisional structure is that it:

a)

Allows local control of situations

b)

Leads to a competitive climate within a firm

c)

Streamlines staff services too much

d)

Is more expensive than functional structure

73.

The most widely used structure is the ___ type

a)

Divisional

b)

SBU

c)

Functional

d)

Matrix

74.

Which of the following is not one of the ways divisional structures can be organized

a)

By geographic area

b)

By product

c)

By suppliers

d)

By process

75.

Strategy formulation:

a)

Is managing forces during the action.

b)

Focuses on effectiveness

c)

Is primarily an operational process.

d)

Requires coordination among many people

76.

Which of these is true about strategy implementation?

a)

It is positioning forces before the action.

b)

It focuses on effectiveness.

c)

It is necessary to establishing annual goals.

d)

All of these

77.

Strategy implementation is primarily a(n) ___ process

a)

Intellectual

b)

Operational

c)

Analytical

d)

Top-management

78.

All of the following are tasks of strategy implementation except

a)

Establishing long-term objectives

b)

Establishing annual objectives.

c)

Establishing policies.

d)

Allocating resources

79.

Because annual objectives ___, they are important for strategy implementation

a)

Represent the basis for allocating resources

b)

Are a primary mechanism for evaluating managers

c)

Help establish organizational, divisional and departmental strategies

d)

All of the above

80.

Which of the following is not true about objectives?

a)

They should be communicated throughout the organization.

b)

They should have an appropriate time dimension.

c)

They should incorporate policies.

d)

They should be measurable

81.

Which of these would not be a good objective statement?

a)

Increase production of product A by 15 percent yearly

b)

Reduce overhead costs 2 percent yearly

c)

Increase the number of customers yearly by 50

d)

Increase inventory sufficient to meet yearly increases in demand

82.

What should annual objectives be?

a)

As specific as possible

b)

As general as possible

c)

Tied into short-term profits

d)

Similar to long-term objectives

83.

A(n) ___ would not be considered a policy

a)

Rule

b)

Form

c)

Milestone

d)

Administrative practice

84.

What are guidelines, methods, procedures, rules, forms and administrative practices known as?

a)

Long-term objectives

b)

Policies

c)

Annual objectives

d)

Strategies

85.

All organizations have what four types of resources?

a)

Buildings, money, human and goodwill

b)

Human, compilers, boards of directors and physical

c)

Financial, physical, human and technological

d)

Accounting, marketing, management and financial

86.

Which of the following are not resources that can be used by an organization to achieve desired objectives?

a)

Financial resources

b)

Natural resources

c)

Technological resources

d)

Physical resources

87.

What type of organizational structure do most small businesses follow?

a)

Divisional structure by product

b)

Functional structure

c)

Divisional structure by customer

d)

Matrix structure

88.

Which of the following statements is false?

a)

Small firms tend to be functionally structured.

b)

Small firms tend to be centralized.

c)

Medium-sized firms tend to be divisionally structured.

d)

Large firms that use an SBU structure often violate the unity-of-command principle.

89.

What is the major disadvantage of a functional structure?

a)

It forces accountability to the top

b)

It enhances career development opportunities

c)

It is often characterized by high employee spirit

d)

All of the above

90.

___ is NOT one of the basic ways a divisional structure can be organized.

a)

By geographic area

b)

By product or service

c)

By customer

d)

By cost

91.

Which organizational structure is the most commonly used in Vietnam?

a)

Divisional

b)

Functional

c)

Strategic business unit

d)

Matrix

92.

A ___ structure is the most simple and inexpensive.

a)

Departmental

b)

Strategic business unit

c)

Functional

d)

Process

93.

A divisional structure by product form of organization is most effective when

a)

Special emphasis needs to be placed on specific customers.

b)

An organization offers many products.

c)

Different marketing approaches are required for various products.

d)

All of the above

94.

A divisional structure by geographic area is most appropriate when

a)

Organizations have similar branch facilities located in widely dispersed areas.

b)

An organization offers only a limited number of products or services.

c)

An organization has many skilled managers.

d)

The firm serves one geographic area

95.

Which is the most costly type of structure?

a)

Divisional

b)

Functional

c)

Centralized

d)

Matrix

96.

A transporting company that organizes activities around customer groups such as colleges, secondary schools and private schools is an example of which type of structure?

a)

Divisional

b)

Centralized

c)

Functional

d)

Matrix

97.

____ is the most complex structure.

a)

Divisional

b)

SBU

c)

Matrix

d)

Functional

98.

What level of management is directly affected by strategy implementation?

a)

Plant managers

b)

Sales managers

c)

Project managers

d)

All of these

99.

Which two variables are marketing policy?

a)

Diversification and budgeting.

b)

Marketing penetration and competition.

c)

Product development and human development.

d)

Market segmentation and product positioning

100.

Subdividing a market into distinct subsets of customers according to their needs and the way they buy and use a product or service is:

a)

Market penetration.

b)

Product diversification.

c)

Price policy.

d)

Positioning

101.

Why is market segmentation an important variable in marketing policy?

a)

It allows a firm to operate with limited resources.

b)

Mass production, mass distribution and mass advertising are not always required.

c)

Market segmentation decisions directly affect marketing mix variables.

d)

All of the above

102.

Which of the following variables are not directly affected by market segmentation?

a)

Product

b)

Place

c)

Process

d)

Promotion

103.

Which variable would be considered part of the product element of the marketing mix?

a)

Advertising

b)

Packaging

c)

Payment terms

d)

Inventory levels and location

104.

Which variable would be considered part of the place element of the marketing mix?

a)

Product-line

b)

Numbers of distributors

c)

Personal selling

d)

Sales territory

105.

Which variable would not be considered part of the promotion element of the marketing mix?

a)

Advertising

b)

Public relations

c)

Sale promotion

d)

Career promotion

106.

Which of the following is (are) true about two different market segments?

a)

They can usually be served with the same marketing strategy.

b)

They usually require different marketing strategies.

c)

They are always in different geographic locations.

d)

They are usually incompatible

107.

Strategy evaluation includes all of the following basic activities, EXCEPT:

a)

Examining the underlying bases of a firm's strategy.

b)

Comparing expected results with actual results.

c)

Comparing results of competitors' strategies.

d)

Taking corrective actions to ensure that performance conforms to plans

108.

The purpose of strategy evaluation is to:

a)

Improve R&D programs.

b)

Evaluate employees' performance.

c)

Make budget changes.

d)

Alert management to problems or potential problems

109.

A revised ____ matrix should indicate how effective a firm's strategies have been in response to key opportunities and threats

a)

FAS

b)

BCG

c)

SPACE

d)

EFAS

110.

One of action in strategic evaluation process is:

a)

Forecasting external opportunities and threats

b)

Creating annual objectives

c)

Adjusting the mistakes in strategic implementation

d)

None of these