wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Topic 1: What Is Management? (MCQ)

Total questions: 110

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Topic 1: What is management? What does “effectiveness” in management mean? Choose the best answer.

a)

Reducing costs

b)

Achieving organizational objectives

c)

Saving time

d)

Increasing the number of employees

2.

Topic 1: What is management? Who is responsible for ensuring work gets done through other people? Choose the best answer.

a)

Chief technician

b)

Manager

c)

Operations supervisor

d)

Marketing executive

3.

Topic 1: What is management? Conceptual skills are most important for which group? Choose the best answer.

a)

Frontline workers

b)

Supervisors

c)

Middle managers

d)

Top management

4.

Topic 1: What is management? The scientific management approach focuses primarily on which area? Choose the best answer.

a)

Employee satisfaction

b)

Productivity and work methods

c)

Human relations

d)

Organizational change

5.

Topic 1: What is management? What is the main focus of the human relations approach? Choose the best answer.

a)

Tight control

b)

Strict SOP compliance

c)

Employee satisfaction to increase productivity

d)

Close supervision of workers

6.

Topic 1: What is management? In Mintzberg’s theory, the role of “liaison” refers to what? Choose the best answer.

a)

Providing motivation

b)

Communicating information to outsiders

c)

Linking internal and external units

d)

Making strategic decisions

7.

Topic 1: What is management? Which of the following is NOT a management function? Choose the best answer.

a)

Planning

b)

Organizing

c)

Controlling

d)

Production

8.

Efficiency means

a)

Doing the right things

b)

Doing work using a minimum of resources

c)

Achieving results without targets

d)

Doing work without rules

9.

Who proposed the 14 principles of management?

a)

Elton Mayo

b)

Henry Fayol

c)

Max Weber

d)

F.W. Taylor

10.

The contingency approach emphasizes that

a)

One management style fits all situations

b)

Each situation requires a different approach

c)

Workers must follow orders 100% of the time

d)

All organizations must use the same SOPs

11.

Topic 2: Planning — The first step in the planning process is

a)

Evaluating results

b)

Determining objectives

c)

Preparing an action plan

d)

Reviewing performance

12.

Topic 2: Planning — A plan that is used repeatedly is called a

a)

Tactical plan

b)

Medium-term plan

c)

Standing plan

d)

Flexible plan

13.

Topic 2: Planning — Who is responsible for developing the strategic plan?

a)

Supervisor

b)

Middle manager

c)

Top management

d)

Team leader

14.

Which of the following is an advantage of planning?

a)

Reduces creativity

b)

Creates rigidity

c)

Provides direction

d)

Hinders innovation

15.

Contingency planning is used for:

a)

Daily activities

b)

Unexpected situations

c)

Scheduling employees

d)

Measuring performance

16.

One weakness of planning is:

a)

Increasing motivation

b)

Making the organization rigid

c)

Improving coordination

d)

Adding task clarity

17.

A good objective should be SMART. In SMART, the S stands for:

a)

Strong

b)

Simple

c)

Specific

d)

Systematic

18.

An operational plan typically covers a time frame of:

a)

More than 5 years

b)

3–5 years

c)

1 year or less

d)

10 years

19.

Environmental scanning is conducted to:

a)

Determine KPIs

b)

Assess competitor and market potential

c)

Determine employee salaries

d)

Measure only financial performance

20.

A single-use plan is most suitable for:

a)

A special project

b)

Routine tasks

c)

Standard work procedures

d)

Spontaneous decisions

21.

Decision making under certainty means:

a)

Information is unknown

b)

All outcomes are known

c)

Only partial information is available

d)

It depends on luck

22.

The first step in the rational decision-making process is:

a)

Evaluating alternatives

b)

Defining the problem

c)

Making the final choice

d)

Monitoring the decision

23.

Bounded rationality occurs when:

a)

Managers have perfect information

b)

Managers have limited resources

c)

Decisions are made without problems

d)

Information is not needed

24.

The Delphi technique involves:

a)

Open discussion

b)

Individual expert opinions without meeting

c)

Aggressive brainstorming

d)

Instant polling

25.

The phenomenon of groupthink occurs when:

a)

Group members encourage different viewpoints

b)

Group members agree without evaluation

c)

There is conflict of ideas

d)

The group has too few members

26.

Risky decision conditions occur when:

a)

There is no information at all

b)

Probabilities of outcomes are known

c)

All outcomes are guaranteed

d)

Only one alternative exists

27.

A weakness of group decision making is:

a)

More ideas are generated

b)

Decisions are more easily accepted

c)

Pressure to conform to the majority

d)

Knowledge is widely shared

28.

The Nominal Group Technique involves:

a)

Open debate

b)

Silent idea generation

c)

Only the supervisor’s opinion

d)

A process without voting

29.

A memory problem in decision making can result in:

a)

All information being processed

b)

Some information being forgotten

c)

More accurate decisions

d)

Perfect analysis

30.

Too much information can lead to:

a)

Accurate decisions

b)

Information overload

c)

Rapid analysis

d)

No disturbances

31.

Topic 4 — Organizational Design. Organizational structure refers to:

a)

Marketing activities

b)

Work arrangements and communication relationships

c)

Financial planning

d)

An IT monitoring system

32.

Topic 4 — Organizational Design. Functional departmentalization is appropriate when an organization:

a)

Has many different products

b)

Is small in scale and has homogeneous operating activities

c)

Has international markets

d)

Manages different types of customers

33.

A product-based departmental structure is used when an organization seeks which primary condition?

a)

A focus on specific types of outputs or products

b)

Only a single service offered

c)

The lowest possible cost above all else

d)

Employee preferences as the main priority

34.

A wide span of control is most likely when which condition exists?

a)

Employees are less experienced

b)

Work is complex

c)

Only minimal supervision is required

d)

Communication is difficult

35.

Line authority refers to which kind of power in an organization?

a)

Power to give advice

b)

Power to make decisions and issue orders

c)

Authority exercised by customers

d)

Power without responsibility

36.

A matrix organization involves which structural feature?

a)

Two sources of authority, functional and project

b)

No supervisors at any level

c)

Only a single, unified structure

d)

Informal appraisals only

37.

Centralization in an organization means what about decision-making power?

a)

Power resides at lower levels

b)

Power is concentrated at top management

c)

All employees make decisions equally

d)

There is no hierarchy

38.

Decentralization tends to increase which outcome?

a)

Slow decision-making

b)

A culture of uncertainty

c)

Rapid responses to customers

d)

Tight, centralized control

39.

Job design includes which of the following?

a)

Scheduling of employee leave

b)

How tasks are structured and performed

c)

Financial analysis activities

d)

Customer relations programs

40.

A mechanistic organization has which characteristic?

a)

Flexible

b)

Informal communication

c)

Tight chain of command

d)

Highly organic

41.

Job analysis is:

a)

A pay system

b)

A process to identify job tasks and requirements

c)

A method of product marketing

d)

A performance appraisal process

42.

A job description refers to:

a)

Responsibilities and duties of a position

b)

Minimum wage

c)

Performance records

d)

Education level only

43.

A job specification includes:

a)

Organizational structure

b)

Required qualifications, skills, and experience

c)

Marketing activities

d)

Succession plan

44.

Human resource forecasting involves:

a)

Reviewing leave

b)

Assessing the future number and types of employees

c)

Calculating utility costs

d)

Setting daily work schedules

45.

Internal recruitment increases:

a)

Training costs

b)

Employee development time

c)

Employee motivation and commitment

d)

Employee turnover rate

46.

On-the-job training means:

a)

A course at a hotel

b)

Training while performing actual tasks

c)

Online learning only

d)

A written test

47.

Performance appraisal is used to:

a)

Reduce salaries

b)

Support employee development

c)

Eliminate employees

d)

Reduce bonuses

48.

A 360-degree appraisal gathers feedback from:

a)

Managers only

b)

Customers only

c)

All relevant parties (superiors, peers, subordinates)

d)

Only the company owner

49.

Vestibule training is conducted when:

a)

Machines are hazardous and training cannot occur at the actual worksite

b)

The company has no budget

c)

All work is manual

d)

There is no instructor

50.

The primary purpose of HRM is to:

a)

Control employees

b)

Ensure the organization has competent employees

c)

Reduce the workforce

d)

Eliminate training

51.

Maslow stated that the highest need is:

a)

Safety

b)

Social

c)

Esteem

d)

Self-actualization

52.

Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory divides factors into:

a)

Internal & external

b)

Motivators & hygiene

c)

Cognitive & affective

d)

Social & psychological

53.

A hygiene factor includes:

a)

Responsibility

b)

Recognition

c)

Relationship with the supervisor

d)

Achievement

54.

Theory X and Theory Y were introduced by:

a)

Herzberg

b)

McClelland

c)

McGregor

d)

Elton Mayo

55.

Theory X assumes that workers:

a)

Like to work independently

b)

Are naturally diligent and creative

c)

Dislike work and need close supervision

d)

Have high motivation

56.

The affiliation need (McClelland) refers to:

a)

Full power

b)

Desire for social relationships

c)

Feeling respected

d)

Need for safety

57.

Job enrichment means:

a)

Increasing the amount of work

b)

Increasing the depth and autonomy of work

c)

Reducing tasks

d)

Distributing work

58.

Expectancy Theory states that motivation depends on:

a)

Fixed salary

b)

Relationships with coworkers

c)

The expectation that effort leads to performance and rewards

d)

Managerial control

59.

Employee involvement increases motivation because:

a)

Employees work less

b)

Employees feel valued

c)

Rewards are reduced

d)

Rules are decreased

60.

A financial incentive is an example of:

a)

Intrinsic motivation

b)

Extrinsic motivation

c)

Social need

d)

Physical need

61.

Communication is a process of:

a)

Storing information

b)

Conveying and understanding messages

c)

Punishing employees

d)

Only making decisions

62.

Formal communication occurs through:

a)

Gossip

b)

The official chain of command

c)

Informal WhatsApp groups

d)

Idle chatter

63.

Nonverbal communication includes:

a)

Email

b)

Tone of voice and body language

c)

Memo

d)

Written report

64.

Barriers to communication include:

a)

Sufficient time

b)

Inconsistent language

c)

Clear information

d)

No interference

65.

Downward communication is:

a)

From subordinates to superiors

b)

Between coworkers

c)

From superiors to subordinates

d)

Between external departments

66.

Active listening in communication includes:

a)

Cutting off the conversation

b)

Giving response and attention

c)

Ignoring the message

d)

Changing the topic

67.

The grapevine is:

a)

A formal communication system

b)

An informal channel that spreads quickly

c)

A company report

d)

A filing system

68.

Feedback is important because it:

a)

Avoids conflicts

b)

Helps to understand the message

c)

Reduces salaries

d)

Eliminates hierarchy

69.

Horizontal communication occurs between:

a)

Superiors to subordinates

b)

Employees at the same level

c)

The CEO to frontline workers

d)

Customers to suppliers

70.

Effective communication requires:

a)

An incomplete message

b)

Difficult language

c)

Accurate and clear information

d)

No feedback

71.

Leadership means:

a)

Directing by force

b)

The ability to influence others

c)

Managing files

d)

Reducing employees

72.

A task‑oriented leader focuses on:

a)

Social relationships

b)

Achievement of work objectives

c)

Internal motivation

d)

Interpersonal conflict

73.

Trait Theory believes leaders:

a)

Are born with certain traits

b)

Are developed only through training

c)

Cannot change

d)

Are defined by years of service

74.

Fiedler’s theory states a leader’s style is:

a)

Easy to change

b)

Fixed and difficult to change

c)

Entirely dependent on experience

d)

Based on bonuses

75.

A transformational leader focuses on:

a)

Rewards and punishments

b)

Inspiration and behavioral change

c)

Forcing compliance

d)

Reducing workload

76.

A transactional leader focuses on:

a)

Deep inspiration

b)

Personal relationships

c)

Rewards and penalties

d)

Moral leadership

77.

Leader charisma involves:

a)

A passive attitude

b)

Exceptional influence

c)

Disregard for employees

d)

Rigid and bureaucratic behavior

78.

Democratic leadership style:

a)

Ignores employees’ opinions

b)

Encourages participation

c)

Uses coercion

d)

Prohibits communication

79.

A laissez-faire leader:

a)

Is very controlling

b)

Gives full freedom

c)

Sets strict SOPs

d)

Controls all decisions

80.

The most suitable situation for autocratic leadership is:

a)

Skilled workers

b)

An emergency situation

c)

A creative project

d)

A brainstorming team

81.

Control is a process to:

a)

Produce reports only

b)

Ensure activities follow the plan

c)

Increase the number of workers

d)

Reduce inventory

82.

The first step of the control process is:

a)

Making comparisons

b)

Taking corrective action

c)

Setting standards

d)

Reporting performance

83.

Time standard refers to:

a)

Labour cost

b)

Time to complete a task

c)

Quality of raw materials

d)

Number of customers

84.

Pre-control is also called:

a)

Action control

b)

Preventive control

c)

Tactical control

d)

Spontaneous control

85.

Objective control includes:

a)

Behavior and output control

b)

Culture control

c)

Marketing control

d)

Risk control

86.

Normative control depends on:

a)

Formal rules

b)

Organizational culture and values

c)

Financial penalties

d)

Technical processes

87.

Concertive control is suitable for:

a)

Self-managed teams

b)

Only large organizations

c)

Untrained workers

d)

Emergency situations

88.

Performance deviations should be:

a)

Ignored

b)

Punished only

c)

Corrected through corrective action

d)

Presented without action

89.

Financial control includes:

a)

Annual leave

b)

Labor costs, sales, and profit

c)

Recreational activities

d)

Customer relationships

90.

The purpose of control is to:

a)

Reduce workload

b)

Achieve performance standards

c)

Eliminate reporting

d)

Avoid communication

91.

A team is:

a)

A group of people without the same objective

b)

Individuals working separately

c)

A group that shares goals and a coordinated effort

d)

A conflicting group

92.

An advantage of teamwork includes:

a)

Slow decision making

b)

Increased job satisfaction

c)

Reduced creativity

d)

Limited communication

93.

A weakness of teams is:

a)

Diversity of ideas

b)

Social support

c)

The social loafing phenomenon

d)

Rapid implementation

94.

Virtual teams communicate through:

a)

Face-to-face only

b)

Physical tickets

c)

Technology and digital platforms

d)

Printed documents

95.

A self-designed team has:

a)

No autonomy

b)

Moderate autonomy

c)

Full autonomy

d)

Restricted to physical work

96.

The team development process begins with:

a)

Storming

b)

Forming

c)

Norming

d)

Performing

97.

The phase with the most conflict is:

a)

De-forming

b)

Storming

c)

Performing

d)

Norming

98.

A team should be formed when:

a)

Work does not require cooperation

b)

Objectives can be achieved individually

c)

Work requires complex coordination

d)

There are no group rewards

99.

The optimum team size is:

a)

Very large

b)

Very small

c)

Small and focused

d)

No limit

100.

A high-performing team is characterized by:

a)

Uncontrolled conflict

b)

Weak communication

c)

Strong trust and collaboration

d)

No leadership

101.

Planned change aims to:

a)

Reduce employees

b)

Enhance organizational capability

c)

Increase conflict

d)

Eliminate work culture

102.

A change agent is:

a)

Only an external consultant

b)

An individual who leads the change process

c)

Only a new employee

d)

A finance manager

103.

First-order change is:

a)

Radical and drastic

b)

Linear, gradual and incremental

c)

Removing all structure

d)

Without planning

104.

Second-order change is:

a)

Slow

b)

Does not involve structure

c)

Drastic and multidimensional

d)

Does not require leadership

105.

Individual barriers to change include:

a)

Lack of motivation

b)

Fear of new things

c)

Full support

d)

Clarity of objectives

106.

Organizational barriers include:

a)

Lack of training

b)

Threats to group authority

c)

High morale

d)

Clear objectives

107.

A tactic that reduces barriers through information and explanation is:

a)

Negotiation

b)

Facilities and support

c)

Communication and learning

d)

Coercion

108.

Negotiation is appropriate when:

a)

Employees are not involved

b)

Powerful parties feel threatened

c)

There is no conflict

d)

Everyone agrees

109.

Coercion is used as a last resort when:

a)

Employees accept the change

b)

Time is extremely pressing

c)

The situation is stable

d)

There is no leadership

110.

Innovation refers to:

a)

Imitating other products

b)

The process of creating new ideas

c)

Reducing creativity

d)

Eliminating R&D