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TPC3 – Tour and Travel Management Worksheet Extraction

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which component of the tourism product (one of the "4 A’s") is described as the range of services, facilities, and equipment available at the destination to meet the needs of tourists (e.g., shopping, restaurants)?

a)

Accommodation

b)

Accessibility

c)

Amenities

d)

Attraction

2.

According to Module 11, which Information Technology (IT) application is described as an online media presentation that represents a real location in the most realistic form possible?

a)

Biometric Passport

b)

Audio Guide

c)

Virtual Tour

d)

Computerized Reservations System

3.

The function of tour operations management that involves identifying the needs of the target audience, securing their attention, and convincing them to buy the product is called?

a)

Research

b)

Documentation and Follow-up

c)

Promotion and Marketing

d)

Distribution

4.

Which generation cohort is noted for having more family-oriented vacations and is likely to travel to child-friendly destinations, according to travel statistics?

a)

Baby Boomers

b)

Millennial / Gen Y

c)

Gen Z

d)

Gen X

5.

In the context of Destination Marketing on social networks, which campaign feature is cited as giving the best results because the system itself determines where and when to show the ad?

a)

Instagram Stories only

b)

Video Creatives only

c)

Auto-placement campaigns

d)

Graphic Creatives only

6.

The direct stakeholder that specializes in the logistics, activities, and services within a specific location for an event is known as?

a)

Event head

b)

Destination management company (DMC)

c)

Corporate sponsor

d)

Travel insurance provider

7.

The direct stakeholder focused on organizing and managing large-scale trade shows or product launches is called?

a)

Convention and exhibition organizer

b)

In-flight catering supplier

c)

Local tourism office

d)

Foreign exchange bureau

8.

The indirect stakeholder that facilitates transactions and handles currency exchange for international attendees is the?

a)

Visa processing center

b)

Banking and financial services provider

c)

Airport ground handling team

d)

Security contractor

9.

An external provider often employed by organizers to handle the efficient and organized attendance process for attendees and VIP guests refers to the?

a)

Registration and ticketing service

b)

Destination welcome committee

c)

Transportation scheduler

d)

Rooming list coordinator

10.

The organization that promotes a specific location or region as a convention or event destination (Acronym) is the?

a)

CVB (Convention and Visitors Bureau)

b)

UNWTO

c)

DOT

d)

IATA

11.

The international body that develops and publishes standards for various industries, including MICE (Acronym), is?

a)

ISO

b)

ICAO

c)

ASTA

d)

PATA

12.

The British Standard (BS) that was the first intended to guide framework and implementing sustainable development for event organization is known as?

a)

BS 8901

b)

BS 7799

c)

BS 13500

d)

BS 65000

13.

What a firm can increase by becoming accredited, providing a key market advantage is its?

a)

Operational costs

b)

Competitive credibility

c)

Tax liabilities

d)

Inflight service quality

14.

The Philippine Department of Tourism (DOT) AO No. 2020-003 provided guidelines for MICE organizers under which specific circumstance (Acronym)?

a)

PPE

b)

GCQ

c)

COVID-19

d)

IATF

15.

The process that is the next step after putting an environmental management plan into action, as per sustainable standards, is called?

a)

Certification

b)

Monitoring and evaluation

c)

Stakeholder mapping

d)

Risk transfer

16.

A general term for the negative consequence of MICE events that includes pollution, excessive energy consumption, and increase in trash is?

a)

Greenwashing

b)

Environmental impact

c)

Carbon offsetting

d)

Ecotourism

17.

Legal formal measures that protect MICE travelers’ rights, such as the right to be compensated for cancelled services, are referred to as?

a)

Service level agreements

b)

Consumer protection laws

c)

Vendor codes of conduct

d)

Non-disclosure agreements

18.

The right of travelers to be notified of this crucial date regarding their contract with a service provider is the right to be informed of the?

a)

Option date

b)

Cut-off date

c)

Blackout date

d)

Cancellation window

19.

The group is an event team responsible for managing the budget, securing sponsorship, and accounting for all expenses. This group is the?

a)

Marketing committee

b)

Finance committee

c)

Operations committee

d)

Program committee

20.

The team member who oversees all aspects related to the execution of the event concept is the?

a)

Event head

b)

Stage manager

c)

Front-of-house lead

d)

Security chief

21.

The group responsible for managing press releases, media kits, and all promotional materials is the?

a)

Public relations team

b)

Technical production team

c)

Risk management team

d)

Hospitality desk

22.

The group is responsible for crowd control, guest parking, and overall guest safety and security. Which group is this?

a)

Security and marshals

b)

Program committee

c)

Sponsorship team

d)

Catering operations

23.

The team member who assists the Event Head and supervises the whole team, especially in the Event Head’s absence, is the?

a)

Assistant event head

b)

Stage director

c)

Master of ceremonies

d)

Vendor liaison

24.

The final process is conducted after the event where audience feedback is collected to improve future events. This process is called?

a)

Post-event evaluation

b)

Pre-event briefing

c)

On-site registration

d)

Run-of-show rehearsal

25.

The specific meeting conducted after the event to discuss group performance, feedback, and objective fulfillment is the?

a)

Debriefing session

b)

Kick-off meeting

c)

Press conference

d)

Sales pitch

26.

The policies established by a company that govern how employees should book, manage, and pay for business trips are collectively known as?

a)

Travel allowance

b)

Travel policy

c)

Per diem guidelines

d)

Expense code

27.

The general term for the problem that arises from incomplete or inaccurate records submitted by travelers, often leading to wasted time is specifically?

a)

Data redundancy

b)

Incomplete records

c)

Policy non-compliance

d)

Fraudulent claims

28.

The situation where a company’s travel process was not designed for how they actually travel, leading to unmet needs, is termed?

a)

Process misalignment

b)

Supplier lock-in

c)

Budget leakage

d)

Rate parity issue

29.

The percentage of the entire business travel budget spent on accommodation, according to the Certify study, is closest to?

a)

About 10%

b)

About 25%

c)

About 40%

d)

About 60%

30.

The percentage of the company’s business travel budget spent on meals, which hotels may be able to cover a portion of, is approximately?

a)

5%

b)

10%

c)

20%

d)

35%

31.

The major cost factor, alongside flight availability, contributes the most to overall business travel costs. It is?

a)

Accommodation rates

b)

Visa fees

c)

Travel insurance premiums

d)

Ground transfers

32.

The most important component in the corporate travel industry, noted by Rajeev Singh as often “underrepresented,” is?

a)

Employee experience

b)

Supplier discounts

c)

Frequent flyer status

d)

Duty of care

33.

The top priority for a business traveler that balances professional obligations with leisure time is commonly described as?

a)

Bleisure balance

b)

Fare class optimization

c)

Mileage accrual

d)

Rate parity

34.

The goal for business travelers involves being able to maintain separation between professional duties and personal time while on a trip. This is best termed as?

a)

Work-life balance on the road

b)

Dynamic pricing control

c)

Cabin upgrade optimization

d)

Geo-fencing compliance

35.

What can be increased alongside productivity by reducing employee business travel stress?

a)

Loyalty program status

b)

Revenue per available seat

c)

Employee retention

d)

Carbon emissions

36.

The key factor that has had a profound impact on the travel industry, forcing it to undergo considerable changes and convert to an early adopter of technology, is?

a)

Digital transformation

b)

Seasonality

c)

Currency fluctuation

d)

Airport congestion

37.

The major trend that, if not adopted, will cause tourism companies to lose their competitive edge and become obsolete, is?

a)

Sustainable practices

b)

Cloud migration

c)

Virtual reality tours

d)

Contactless services

38.

The stage in the travel value chain where consumers check information and compare feedback before making a trip is?

a)

Dreaming

b)

Planning

c)

Booking

d)

Experiencing

39.

The ultimate goal of embracing change and adopting new technologies for tourism companies is to?

a)

Increase rack rates

b)

Preserve legacy systems

c)

Keep their competitive edge

d)

Eliminate human roles

40.

The specific company mentioned in the conclusion that assists the travel industry by developing innovative solutions (Acronym) is?

a)

SAP

b)

SABRE

c)

Amadeus

d)

BCD

41.

The US National Association for Interpretation describes this as a communication process that forges emotional and intellectual connections. What is it?

a)

Interpretation

b)

Promotion

c)

Persuasion

d)

Instructional design

42.

The types of interpretation where interpretive leaders have developed certain habits and skills that are heavily influenced by persuasive communication are called?

a)

Personal and non-personal interpretation

b)

On-site and off-site narration

c)

Guided and unguided commentary

d)

Digital and analog facilitation

43.

The five C’s of threat management tools that includes rationality, rules and regulations, and zoning are collectively known as?

a)

Control tools

b)

Compliance tools

c)

Containment tools

d)

Credibility tools

44.

The goal that the choice of a visitor management tool should not impact, along with effectiveness and efficiency, is?

a)

Visitor experience

b)

Budget control

c)

Vendor selection

d)

Ticket pricing

45.

The type of sign that is inscribed with information on the protected area, its boundaries, and facilities is a?

a)

Directional sign

b)

Interpretive sign

c)

Information sign

d)

Prohibitory sign

46.

The type of sign inscribed with symbols showing the location and direction of facilities and featured sites is a?

a)

Directional sign

b)

Interpretive sign

c)

Information sign

d)

Warning sign

47.

The type of sign that is written, visual, or interactive way to improve visitor understanding and appreciation is an?

a)

Emergency instruction

b)

Interpretive sign

c)

Parking guide

d)

Admission notice

48.

The pollutant emitted by increased vehicular traffic is successful tourist destinations should not exceed the sound level (dBA) that the World Health Organization (WHO) states. This sound level threshold is approximately?

a)

4545

b)

5555

c)

6565

d)

7575

49.

The sector assumed by the tourism industry’s global carbon footprint is primarily?

a)

Accommodation energy use

b)

Air transport emissions

c)

Cruise ship waste

d)

Food and beverage sourcing

50.

The mitigation measure category that fully or partially prevents an impact by changing the means or technique (e.g., using coating material on aircraft) is called?

a)

Avoidance

b)

Reduction at source

c)

Compensation

d)

Rehabilitation

51.

The unwanted consequence of tourism development where light from streets or buildings overcomes stars is known as?

a)

Sky glow

b)

Light trespass

c)

Glare

d)

Clutter

52.

The mitigation measure category that involves restoring or cleaning up an environment is termed?

a)

Avoidance

b)

Reduction at source

c)

Compensation

d)

Rehabilitation

53.

The type of tourism that must use previously disturbed areas for development is referred to as?

a)

Brownfield tourism

b)

Greenfield tourism

c)

Urban heritage tourism

d)

Community-based tourism

54.

The source of value that derives from originality, uniqueness, authenticity, historicity, and excellence is called?

a)

Intrinsic value

b)

Use value

c)

Market value

d)

Option value

55.

The principle of good design that belongs to the biodiversity to fulfill its worth and sustaining environment is?

a)

Stewardship

b)

Harmony

c)

Resilience

d)

Functionality

56.

The principle of good design that involves the use of locally-sourced materials and natural energy systems is?

a)

Locality and natural systems

b)

Modularity

c)

Aesthetics

d)

Minimalism

57.

Man-made elements that could cause damage to life and property, such as crimes and insurgency, are categorized as?

a)

Natural hazards

b)

Anthropogenic hazards

c)

Operational issues

d)

Visitor impacts

58.

The design aspect that requires signage to be easily understood based on the target nationality groups visiting the area is?

a)

Language appropriateness

b)

Graphic minimalism

c)

Color harmony

d)

Typeface uniformity

59.

The principle of design that ensures people of all abilities and physical sizes can access the facilities is known as?

a)

Accessibility and universal design

b)

Visual balance

c)

Historic continuity

d)

Material integrity

60.

The participatory planning component that documents participants and maps a view of their village or barangay is the?

a)

Community profile

b)

Stakeholder registry

c)

Participatory rural appraisal (PRA) mapping

d)

Visitor flow analysis

61.

The specific practice related to men and women that affects participation levels is?

a)

Gender roles

b)

Age cohorts

c)

Educational attainment

d)

Household size

62.

The feeling community members get from participating in consultations that do not translate to actual benefits is known as?

a)

Consultation fatigue

b)

Tokenism

c)

Empowerment

d)

Collective efficacy

63.

A prerequisite to genuine participation that requires focus on the agreed-upon method or steps of planning is?

a)

Process orientation

b)

Budget neutrality

c)

Outcome fixation

d)

Stakeholder exclusion

64.

A prerequisite to genuine participation that requires focus on the agreed-upon final result is?

a)

Process orientation

b)

Goal orientation

c)

Budget neutrality

d)

Outcome fixation

65.

The self-perception that influences a stakeholder’s attitude and approach to participation (e.g., that one is better or worse than others) is called?

a)

Social identity

b)

Self-esteem

c)

Power distance

d)

Collective memory

66.

The reason why some stakeholders are unable to participate, citing lack of money, is best categorized as?

a)

Resource constraint

b)

Cultural barrier

c)

Information asymmetry

d)

Regulatory hurdle

67.

What community leaders may feel is threatened by "open discussion," leading them to dominate meetings, is their?

a)

Authority and status

b)

Time availability

c)

Technical knowledge

d)

Budget control

68.

The specific type of planning that involves preparing a concept, securing funding, and assembling a project team is known as?

a)

Project planning

b)

Tour routing

c)

Marketing planning

d)

Crisis planning

69.

What meetings facilitate the cultivation of stakeholder groups?

a)

Consultative meetings

b)

Sales roadshows

c)

Safety drills

d)

Contract signings

70.

Which team is primarily responsible for coordinating the logistics and operations of an event, ensuring everything runs smoothly?

a)

Finance team

b)

Marketing team

c)

Event management team

d)

Logistics team

71.

In the context of event planning, what is the term for the assessment conducted to evaluate the success of an event after its completion?

a)

Post-event analysis

b)

Impact assessment

c)

Event debriefing

d)

Feedback session

72.

The type of marketing strategy that focuses on creating a unique experience for visitors at a destination is known as?

a)

Experiential marketing

b)

Content marketing

c)

Influencer marketing

d)

Direct marketing

73.

Which aspect of the tourism product (one of the "4 A’s") refers to the attractions that draw visitors to a destination, such as landmarks and events?

a)

Attraction

b)

Accommodation

c)

Accessibility

d)

Amenities

74.

The practice of using data analytics to enhance customer experience and optimize marketing efforts in the travel industry is referred to as?

a)

Big data utilization

b)

Market segmentation

c)

Customer profiling

d)

Predictive analytics

75.

The type of sign that provides essential information about rules and regulations in a specific area is known as a?

a)

Regulatory sign

b)

Informational sign

c)

Directional sign

d)

Interpretive sign

76.

The meeting held before an event to outline objectives, roles, and responsibilities is referred to as the?

a)

Pre-event briefing

b)

Debriefing session

c)

Wrap-up meeting

d)

Kick-off meeting

77.

The term for the process of evaluating the effectiveness of an event based on participant feedback and outcomes is called?

a)

Post-event analysis

b)

Event debrief

c)

Feedback session

d)

Performance review

78.

The practice of combining business travel with leisure activities is often referred to as?

a)

Travel blending

b)

Business leisure

c)

Workcation

d)

Corporate retreat

79.

The challenge faced by companies when employees do not adhere to travel policies is known as?

a)

Compliance failure

b)

Travel misconduct

c)

Policy deviation

d)

Expense mismanagement

80.

The primary environmental concern associated with large-scale events is typically?

a)

Noise pollution

b)

Carbon emissions

c)

Water usage

d)

Waste generation