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Overview of Vietnamese Legal System

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The current legal system of Vietnam is

a)

Civil law from French legal traditions

b)

Common law with case precedents

c)

Civil law with Marxist-Leninist ideology

d)

Feudal law with royal decrees

2.

A significant change in the Socialist Republic of Vietnam occurred with

a)

Introduction of WTO membership

b)

Expansion of international cooperation

c)

Reunification in 1975

d)

Introduction of Doi Moi in 1986

3.

Vietnam’s legal system was formed gradually

a)

under socialist legality and decentralism

b)

under Communist Party and democratic centralism

c)

under liberal pluralism and elections

d)

under democratic centralism only

4.

Vietnamese law

a)

is independent of Party policies

b)

differs from the Party’s policies

c)

cannot conflict with Party policies

d)

completes the Party’s policies

5.

With international cooperation, the legal system in Vietnam

a)

has some new features

b)

remains like centrally planned era

c)

has completely changed

d)

becomes fully common law

6.

The principle of the State of Vietnam is

a)

Democratic decentralism

b)

Centralism and decentralism

c)

Democratic centralism

d)

Authoritarian central command

7.

The National Assembly of the Socialist Republic of Vietnam

a)

is the highest representative organ of people

b)

is the highest representative organ of government

c)

is the highest organ of the nation

d)

is the supreme judicial authority

8.

The President of the Socialist Republic of Vietnam

a)

is appointed by the Party Central Committee

b)

is elected by regional governments

c)

is elected by Government for 5 years

d)

is elected by National Assembly for 5 years

9.

People’s Council

a)

is the local organ of State Power

b)

is not an organ of State Power

c)

is the highest organ of State Power

d)

is the national executive organ

10.

People’s Committee

a)

is a local legislative body

b)

is a local executive body

c)

is a judicial supervisory body

d)

is a central executive body

11.

A Constitution is

a)

the fundamental law of a State

b)

a set of policy directives

c)

an important organization of a State

d)

the power expression of a Nation

12.

Fundamental rights of the people are protected by the Constitution

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Only during emergencies

d)

Only for citizens

13.

All laws incompatible with the Constitution are

a)

enforced by decree

b)

subject to judicial review only

c)

invalid

d)

valid until revised

14.

In Vietnam, the 2013 Constitution reflects

a)

new goals in CPV Political Program

b)

stable goals from earlier programs

c)

a difficult reform period

d)

market liberalization aims

15.

In Vietnam, the 1992 Constitution amended in 2013

a)

limits civil freedoms broadly

b)

modifies rights and duties heavily

c)

determines rights without change

d)

emphasizes human rights and citizen rights

16.

Vietnam’s economy is a socialist-oriented market economy where

a)

central planning returns fully

b)

the State still plays a key role

c)

the private sector leads fully

d)

the State sector will disappear

17.

The Vietnamese political system is constituted by

a)

the Party, legislature, executive, judiciary

b)

the Party, legislature, executive, departments

c)

government departments and judiciary only

d)

legislature and judiciary only

18.

According to the Patriarchal Theory, the State originates from

a)

company formation

b)

family under parental authority

c)

social group enlargement

d)

army consolidation

19.

According to the Natural Theory, the State originates from

a)

family under parental authority

b)

company growth

c)

social group enlargement

d)

army formation

20.

According to the Force Theory, States are created through

a)

social group activities

b)

familial parental authority

c)

commercial company power

d)

constant wars and invasions

21.

According to the Divine Theory, States are created by

a)

family under parents

b)

companies

c)

social groups

d)

God

22.

According to the Marxist Theory, the system of private property

a)

Destroys social group

b)

Is dangerous

c)

Is a potential cause of the rise of state

d)

Create army

23.

Feudal state is

a)

Based on the holding of land in fief or fee

b)

Based on the social contracts

c)

Based on democracy

d)

Based on the development of commerce

24.

A constitutional monarchy is a system of government in which

a)

A monarch rule with an alliance of the working class

b)

A president is guided by a constitution

c)

A monarch rule with charity

d)

A monarch is guided by a constitution

25.

A democracy is a government in which power and civic responsibility are exercised by

a)

A dominating class

b)

A monarch who rules with charity

c)

A ruler

d)

All adult citizens, directly or through their freely elected representative

26.

With a Presidential government

a)

The head of Government leads the legislative organ

b)

The head of Government doesn’t lead the executive organ

c)

The head of State is also the head of the legislature

d)

The head of Government is also the head of State

27.

Law is connected to the ideology

a)

False

b)

True

28.

Law refers to a system of political ideas

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Law and politics are separable

a)

False

b)

True

30.

Mode of production doesn’t have relationships with law

a)

False

b)

True

31.

Administrative justice relates to the law, procedures, and systems that individual members of society can use to challenge decisions

a)

False

b)

True

32.

Purposes and Functions of Law

a)

Establishing standards, Maintaining relationships, Resolving disputes

b)

Protecting conflicts

c)

Establishing standards, Maintaining order, Resolving disputes, Protecting liberties and rights

d)

Liberties and rights

e)

Establishing relationships, Maintaining order, Resolving disputes, Protecting

33.

The law will protect humans from

a)

Justice system

b)

Other people who want to harm mankind

c)

Groups fighting for specific rights

34.

The law

a)

Promote special organizations

b)

Promote the common good

c)

Promote special social groups

35.

In case of resolving the dispute, the law provides

a)

Support to people who cannot agree with another person

b)

Support to people who neglect conflict

c)

Support for divorce

36.

The law is a guidepost for minimally acceptable behavior in society

a)

False

b)

True

37.

The law provides order consistent with society’s guidelines.

a)

False

b)

True

38.

The law provides a INFORMAL means for resolving disputes

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Public Law includes

a)

Constitutional Law, Administrative Law, Business Law

b)

Constitutional Law, Administrative Law, and Civil Law

c)

Constitutional Law, Administrative Law, Criminal Law

d)

Property Law, Administrative Law, Civil Law

40.

Private Law includes

a)

Constitutional Law, Administrative Law, and Civil Law

b)

Property Law, Administrative Law, Civil Law

c)

Law of Contract, Law of Property, Family Law…

d)

Constitutional Law, Administrative Law, Criminal Law

41.

Law is best described as which characteristic?

a)

A stable and unified system

b)

A system of customs only

c)

Possesses multiple normative characters

d)

A system of social contracts

42.

What is a requirement for the content of law?

a)

Should be written in various manners

b)

May be modified freely

c)

Should be written in legal language

d)

May be expressed freely

43.

Vietnamese law is primarily characterized by what?

a)

Is a system of relations

b)

Is an unstable and diversified system

c)

Applies to a specific part of the country

d)

Is supported by state coercion

44.

In Vietnam, Customary rules are typically what?

a)

First choice for dispute settlements in minority ethnic communities

b)

Disregarded by the legislators

c)

A unified system

d)

Dominating all social relations

45.

In Vietnam the State tends to do which of the following regarding Customary Law?

a)

Apply Customary Law only for family relationships

b)

Harmonize Customary Law with State law

c)

Recognize all Customary Rules

d)

Abolish Customary Law

46.

In Common law systems, which is the most important source of law?

a)

Judges do not contribute

b)

Administrative circulars

c)

Codes and statutes

d)

Judicial cases

47.

In Civil law systems, which is the most important source of law?

a)

Judicial cases

b)

Codes and statutes covering all eventualities

c)

Judges can contribute to rules

d)

Customary practices

48.

In Common law, judges function most like which role?

a)

Investigators

b)

Arbiters

c)

Guides

d)

Mediators

49.

In Civil law, judges function most like which role?

a)

Negotiators

b)

Investigators

c)

Arbiters

d)

Guides

50.

In Common law systems, how extensive is freedom of contract?

a)

Contracts not negotiated

b)

Follows sophisticated models

c)

Very extensive

d)

Limited by rigid codes

51.

In Civil law systems, contracts typically do what?

a)

Rely on judge-made rules

b)

Are not negotiated

c)

Follow sophisticated models

d)

Have very extensive freedom

52.

In Common law trials, who primarily asks questions and demands production of evidence?

a)

Lawyers

b)

Jurors

c)

Judges

d)

Arbiters

53.

In Civil law trials, who primarily asks questions and demands evidence?

a)

Judges

b)

Lawyers

c)

Jurors

d)

Arbiters

54.

Constitutional law primarily regulates what?

a)

Private contractual relations

b)

Investigation and prosecuting authorities in criminal proceedings

c)

The activity of public authority

d)

All legal relationships concerned with the state and law

55.

Administrative law primarily regulates what?

a)

All legal relationships concerned with the state and law

b)

The activity of public authority

c)

Investigation and prosecuting authorities in criminal matters

d)

Private property rights

56.

Criminal procedural law regulates the activity of which bodies?

a)

Public authorities generally

b)

Civil registries and notaries

c)

All legal relationships with the state

d)

Investigation, prosecuting, and court authorities in criminal proceedings

57.

Criminal law primarily focuses on what?

a)

Family legal relations

b)

Behaviours sanctioned under the criminal code and defined as illegal

c)

Contractual obligations between parties

d)

Protecting rights of inventors, authors, and businesses

58.

Family law primarily focuses on what?

a)

Legal relations within the family context

b)

Behaviours sanctioned under the criminal code

c)

Protecting rights of inventors and businesses

d)

Employment relations

59.

Intellectual property law focuses on what?

a)

Public authority activities

b)

Legal relations in the family context

c)

Behaviours defined as illegal under the criminal code

d)

Protecting rights of inventors, authors, and businesses to tangible and intangible creations

60.

Procedural law determines the rules of court procedure.

a)

Only in criminal cases

b)

Sometimes true

c)

False

d)

True

61.

Civil procedural law is best described as what?

a)

International arbitration rules

b)

Relations between workers and their employers

c)

A set of treaties protecting the environment

d)

Related to civil law and its sub-branches

62.

Labor law concerns which relations?

a)

Between workers and their employers

b)

Treaties protecting the environment

c)

Sub-branches of civil law

d)

Criminal prosecution authorities

63.

Personal relations in civil law are

a)

attached to a specific subject only

b)

non-transferable to other persons

c)

transferable to other persons

64.

Personal relations are composed of

a)

relations associated or not associated with property

b)

relations only associated with property matters

c)

relations only associated with personal affairs

65.

Social relations that civil law regulates include

a)

personal and property relations

b)

property relations only

c)

personal relations only

66.

Property relations mean

a)

relations strictly between two owners

b)

relations between people about a property

c)

relations between certain properties

67.

Property relations include

a)

ownership, marriage, compensation, inheritance

b)

ownership, conflict, compensation, inheritance

c)

ownership, marriage, insurance, inheritance

68.

Civil legal capacity of a natural person (Art.16, 2015) is

a)

willingness to have civil rights and obligations

b)

ability to have civil rights and obligations

c)

possibility to have civil rights and obligations

69.

Legal act capacity of a natural person (Art.19, 2015) is the capability to

a)

exercise rights and perform obligations through acts

b)

establish and exercise rights and perform obligations

c)

establish rights and perform obligations through acts

70.

A juridical person is

a)

an organization meeting specific legal conditions

b)

an organization created by courts

c)

a person meeting specific legal conditions

71.

Family households and cooperative groups have juridical person capacity

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Only with court approval

72.

Legal personality of a natural person

a)

starts at 16 and ends at death

b)

starts at birth and ends at death

c)

starts at 18 and ends at death

73.

A civil transaction is

a)

a conversation changing civil rights or obligations

b)

a contract or unilateral act changing civil rights

c)

a document changing civil rights or obligations

74.

A civil transaction shall be expressed

a)

verbally or in writing only

b)

only in writing under legal seal

c)

verbally, in writing, or through acts

75.

Civil transactions are invalid if

a)

participants are aware and controlling their acts

b)

participants have sufficient act capacity

c)

participants lack sufficient civil act capacity

76.

Civil transactions are valid if

a)

they contain minor mistakes

b)

they violate prohibitory provisions

c)

participants have act capacity and act voluntarily

77.

Property comprises

a)

intangible things, money, papers, rights

b)

tangible things, money, valuable papers, rights

c)

intangible things and papers only

78.

A property right is a right which

a)

can be valued in money but not transferred

b)

cannot be valued in money or transferred

c)

can be valued in money and transferred

79.

Ownership rights comprise

a)

rights to possess, use, dispose by law

b)

rights to use and dispose by owner consent

c)

rights to possess, use, dispose freely

80.

Right to use (Art.189, 2015) means

a)

exploit yield and income from property only

b)

exploit usage, enjoy yield and income from property

c)

exploit usage, yield, income from all properties

81.

The right to use

a)

may be transferred upon agreement or by law

b)

should not be transferred under any agreement

c)

is forbidden to be transferred by any law

82.

Representation is

a)

acting in own name within representation

b)

acting in another’s name within representation

c)

acting for a transaction beyond representation

83.

Civil obligation is best described as which of the following?

a)

Legally binding, arising from regulations of law

b)

Legally binding, arising from obligation or regulations

c)

Legally binding, arising from agreements or regulations

84.

Obligees are those who have the lawful right to do what?

a)

Require obligors to perform all acts to satisfy benefits

b)

Require others to perform or not perform acts to satisfy benefits

c)

Require obligors to perform or not perform acts to satisfy benefits

85.

In an obligation relation, a third party is generally considered to be:

a)

Subject of obligation relation

b)

Not subject to obligation relation

c)

Subject or not subject to obligation relation

86.

A civil contract is an agreement between parties to:

a)

Establish, change or terminate civil rights and obligations

b)

Establish or terminate obligations only

c)

Establish or change civil rights only

87.

An obligor must perform his or her obligation:

a)

In an honest manner, contrary to ethics

b)

In cooperation, and not contrary to law and ethics

c)

In the spirit of obligation, contrary to ethics

88.

When entering a contract, the subject has the freedom to:

a)

Choose partners and contract contents

b)

Choose partners and force majeure alone

c)

Decide the consequence of contracts only

89.

The content of a contract generally comprises:

a)

Foundation, Optional, Basic articles

b)

Foundation, Regular, Optional articles

c)

Basic, Foundation, Specific articles

90.

Compensation for damage outside the contract arises due to:

a)

Infringement of others’ willingness, honour, property

b)

Infringement of others’ health, honour, reputation, property

c)

Infringement of ambition, reputation, property

91.

The quality of an object for sale and purchase shall be:

a)

As determined by the seller

b)

As agreed by the parties

c)

As determined by the purchaser

92.

A purchaser must pay the full price at the agreed place and time.

a)

False

b)

True

93.

Property shall be delivered:

a)

By method determined by the seller

b)

By method determined by the purchaser

c)

By the method as agreed by the parties

94.

A seller does not have the obligation to provide necessary information on the property for sale and instructions on its use.

a)

False

b)

True

95.

A contract for the exchange of property must be made:

a)

Verbally, in writing, or through specific acts

b)

Verbally or in writing

c)

In writing

96.

A contract for the loan of property means an agreement whereby:

a)

A lender delivers money to a borrower

b)

A lender delivers property to an owner

c)

A lender delivers property to a borrower

97.

A lease of property is an agreement whereby the lessor:

a)

Delivers property to a lessee for a long term

b)

Delivers property to a lessee for a short term

c)

Delivers property to a lessee for use during a fixed term

98.

Bailment of property means an agreement whereby:

a)

Bailee accepts the property of a bailor for use

b)

Bailee accepts the property of a bailor for safekeeping

c)

Bailee accepts the property of a bailor for rent

99.

Borrowing of property means an agreement whereby:

a)

Lender delivers property to a borrower for use and charge

b)

Lender delivers property to a borrower for use during a fixed time

c)

Lender delivers property to a borrower for free of charge

100.

A contract for the transport of passengers may be made:

a)

Verbally, in writing, or through specific acts

b)

In writing

c)

Verbally or in writing

101.

A crime is an act dangerous to society and defined in Criminal Code, committed by:

a)

A person who may or may not have criminal capacity

b)

A person with criminal capacity or corporate legal entity

c)

A person with no criminal capacity or legal entity

102.

Less serious crime means a crime whose danger to society:

a)

Is not significant

b)

Is great

c)

Is significant

103.

Serious crime means a crime whose danger to society:

a)

Is minimal

b)

Is significant

c)

Is not significant

104.

A less serious crime means a crime whose danger to society

a)

is great

b)

is significant

c)

is not significant

d)

is enormous

105.

A very serious crime means a crime whose danger to society

a)

is great

b)

is significant

c)

is enormous

d)

is not significant

106.

An extremely serious crime means a crime whose danger to society

a)

is great

b)

is significant

c)

is enormous

d)

is not significant

107.

A person who commits an act that results in harmful consequences is exempt from criminal responsibility

a)

if such consequences cannot be foreseen or have to be foreseen

b)

if such consequences are foreseen or have to be foreseen

c)

if such consequences can be foreseen or have to be foreseen

d)

if such consequences were reasonably predictable by experts

108.

A person who commits a dangerous act while suffering from a mental disease causing loss of awareness or control

a)

is not exempt from criminal responsibility

b)

cannot be exempt from criminal responsibility

c)

is exempt from criminal responsibility

d)

is exempt only if damage was minor

109.

The use of justifiable force

a)

constitutes a civil wrong by default

b)

does not constitute self-defense

c)

does constitute a criminal offense

d)

does not constitute a criminal offense

110.

If damage inflicted is reasonably unnecessary in an urgent circumstance, the person who inflicts such damage

a)

shall bear criminal responsibility

b)

must compensate in civil liability automatically

c)

shall not bear criminal responsibility

d)

is exempt from criminal responsibility

111.

If bodily harm inflicted by the use of violence is obviously more than necessary, the person who inflicts such damage

a)

shall bear criminal responsibility

b)

shall not bear criminal responsibility

c)

is exempt from criminal responsibility

d)

is disciplined administratively only

112.

The time limit for criminal prosecution is a time limit set by the Code and upon its expiration

a)

the offender must face civil liability proceedings

b)

the offender does not face any criminal prosecution

c)

the offender does not face any responsibility

d)

the offender does face certain criminal prosecutions

113.

Actions taken against juvenile offenders depend on

a)

their ages and the gravity of social danger alone

b)

their ages, reasons, and circumstances in which offenses are committed

c)

their ambition, awareness of their criminal acts, reasons, and circumstances

d)

their ages, awareness of their criminal acts, reasons, and circumstances

114.

Life imprisonment and death sentence shall

a)

be imposed for all extremely serious crimes

b)

not be imposed upon a juvenile offender

c)

be imposed upon a juvenile offender

d)

be discretionary for juvenile offenders

115.

Additional punishments

a)

shall be or not be imposed upon a juvenile offender

b)

shall not be imposed upon a juvenile offender

c)

shall be imposed upon a juvenile offender

d)

are always imposed when crime is serious

116.

Abuse of power means acts of infringement upon rightful activities of an agency or organization committed

a)

by a worker in performance of official duties

b)

by an important person in performance of official duties

c)

by an officer-holder in the performance of official duties

d)

by any citizen outside official duties

117.

The Civil Procedure Code provides for basic principles, order, and procedures for initiating lawsuits at People’s Court to settle cases of

a)

criminal lawsuits in civil courts

b)

civil negotiation, civil marriage, civil dispute

c)

civil lawsuits, civil marriage, civil dispute

d)

civil lawsuits, civil matters, civil cases

118.

The Civil Procedure Code applies to

a)

Both a, b, and c are true

b)

the settlement of civil cases with foreign elements subject to treaties

c)

civil proceedings conducted by consular offices abroad

d)

all civil proceedings throughout the territory of Vietnam

119.

Courts shall only accept settlement of civil cases

a)

when they receive lawsuit petitions and/or requests and shall settle beyond the scope requested

b)

when a court believes a case needs social resolution

c)

when they receive lawsuit petitions or requests from an involved party and settle only within the scope of such petition or request

d)

when they receive lawsuit petitions from an involved party and shall settle any civil cases they want

120.

During civil case settlement, the involved parties

a)

can request courts to terminate or change petitions or voluntarily reach agreement contrary to law and social ethics

b)

shall have a right to terminate or change petitions or voluntarily reach agreement with one another, not contrary to law and social ethics

c)

don’t terminate or change petitions or voluntarily reach agreement with one another

d)

must keep petitions unchanged until judgment

121.

The responsibility to transfer court judgments, decisions, summons, invitations, and other papers at the Court’s request belongs to

a)

Commune-level People’s Committee or related agencies, organizations, and individuals

b)

Procuracy

c)

People’s Committees at all levels or relevant agencies, organizations, and individuals

d)

Court only

122.

Mediation in civil procedures:

a)

the Courts have the responsibility to conduct mediation

b)

the Courts don’t have the responsibility to conduct mediation

c)

the Procuracies have the responsibility to conduct mediation

d)

mediation is optional and done by private mediators only

123.

The Courts shall assist the involved parties to collect evidence and

a)

enforce judgments without trial

b)

clarify facts, ensure lawful resolution

c)

prepare appeals automatically

d)

determine guilt for criminal charges

124.

First-instance judgments or decisions of the Courts become legally effective when which condition is met?

a)

They are not appealed within the appellate time limit

b)

They are appealed within the appellate time limit

c)

They are reviewed by a higher court

d)

They are proposed again by the courts

125.

Which are included as representatives in civil proceedings?

a)

Only authorized representative

b)

Only legal representative

c)

Neither representative types

d)

Both legal and authorized representative

126.

In which case do involved parties not authorize others to act on their behalf?

a)

All answers are wrong

b)

Making a birth certificate

c)

For divorce

d)

Marriage registration

127.

A witness is entitled to refuse to testify in which situation?

a)

Before opening first-instance court

b)

When not wanting to participate

c)

When information relates to personal and family secrets

d)

If the witness is a minor

128.

When do individuals have the right to request the Court to apply provisional urgent measures?

a)

After the court issues the Judgment

b)

In the process of solving the case

c)

Before opening the first instance court

d)

During the investigation of the case

129.

In which case must the plaintiff bear the entire first-instance court cost?

a)

In the case of consent divorce

b)

In the divorce case

c)

When court accepted the request

d)

When court did not accept the request

130.

The criminal procedure code does which of the following functions?

a)

Prescribes procedures for charges and adjudication

b)

Regulates missions and authorities to institute proceedings

c)

Regulates rights and duties of entities and cooperation

d)

All of the listed functions

131.

The criminal procedure code governs what scope of activities?

a)

Abroad activities with representative organizations

b)

None of the listed options

c)

Every criminal procedure activity in Vietnam and abroad

d)

Every criminal procedure activity in Vietnam

132.

Every activity of criminal procedures must do what?

a)

Abide by this Law and international treaties

b)

Abide by this Law and other Vietnamese laws

c)

Abide by this Law with exceptions

d)

Abide by this Law

133.

Conservation of legal equality means what?

a)

People subject to different laws of justice

b)

All people subject to same justice regardless of status

c)

State-owned enterprises enjoy priority rights

d)

Authorities apply flexible justice tiers

134.

A principle of sustainment of bodily integrity includes which condition?

a)

No arrest without court warrant or procuracy approval

b)

No arrest without procuracy decision only

c)

No arrest without warrant or approval, except flagrante

d)

No arrest only without acts in flagrante

135.

Vietnamese citizens cannot be deported or handed to a foreign state. True or False?

a)

True with exceptions

b)

False except for treaties

c)

False

d)

True

136.

Search and seizure or temporary confiscation of private communication data must comply with which law?

a)

Criminal procedural law

b)

Administrative law

c)

Civil law

d)

Criminal law

137.

If grounds for conviction do not suffice, competent authorities shall do what?

a)

Wait until there are conditions for conviction

b)

Adjudge the accused to be guilty

c)

Adjudge the accused to be not guilty

d)

Decline responsibility for adjudication

138.

Is anyone convicted twice for the same crime?

a)

True

b)

False

c)

True in special circumstances

d)

False unless retried

139.

Who holds the responsibility to prove the crime?

a)

Competent authorities; not obligatory on accused

b)

Solely the accused person

c)

Competent authorities; obligatory on accused

d)

Only competent authorities

140.

An accused person is entitled to which defense right?

a)

Defend himself without lawyer only

b)

Be defended only by a lawyer

c)

Defend himself or be defended by a lawyer or person

d)

Be defended only by another person

141.

First-instance Court's judgments or rulings become legally effective under what condition?

a)

Appealed within appellate time limit

b)

Not appealed within appellate time limit

c)

Reviewed by Supreme Court

d)

After procuracy approval

142.

Which statement aligns with the principle of legal equality?

a)

Equal justice across race and social class

b)

Priority justice for specific social statuses

c)

Flexible justice based on regional policy

d)

Different justice for enterprises and citizens

143.

Which act is prohibited for employers during labor relations?

a)

Labor discrimination and forced labor

b)

Flexible scheduling by mutual consent

c)

Providing safety training and equipment

d)

Offering optional apprenticeships with pay

144.

Nam’s written work agreement defined job, wages, and working time. After illness, he was replaced and lost wages. What makes his agreement enforceable as an employment contract?

a)

It was posted on a notice board

b)

It was verbally agreed at the shop

c)

It mentions only weekly schedules

d)

It specifies job, pay, and working conditions

145.

Are electronically concluded employment contracts via compliant data messages as valid as physical contracts?

a)

No, validity requires notarization always

b)

Yes, but only for part-time jobs

c)

No, only handwritten originals count

d)

Yes, if conforming to e-transaction laws

146.

Ms. Huong plans to hire a cashier and asked to keep the employee’s original ID papers. Which rule applies?

a)

Employers may hold originals during probation

b)

Employers may retain originals with consent

c)

Employers can swap for certified copies temporarily

d)

Employers must not keep original identity documents

147.

Who may conclude the employment contract on the employee’s side without representation?

a)

A group representative for all employees

b)

The employee aged 15 with no guardian

c)

The employer’s legal representative

d)

The employee aged 18 or older

148.

What is the maximum probationary period for positions requiring a junior college degree or above?

a)

60 working days

b)

90 calendar days

c)

180 calendar days

d)

30 working days

149.

An employee may unilaterally terminate the contract without prior notice if the employer fails to provide adequate pay or schedule, except for which specific case?

a)

Clause 4 Article 97

b)

Clause 2 Article 36

c)

Article 29 exceptions

d)

Clause 1 Article 169

150.

An employer may unilaterally terminate when an employee repeatedly fails to perform duties according to criteria established how?

a)

By the employer with union input

b)

By government inspectorates

c)

Only by the HR manager

d)

By the labor mediation board