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CSIT TEST SAMPLE

Total questions: 110

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the main function of the command interpreter?

a)

to provide the interface between the API and application program

b)

to handle the files in the operating system

c)

to get and execute the next user-specified command

d)

none of the mentioned

2.

Which one of the following is not true?

a)

kernel remains in the memory during the entire computer session

b)

kernel is made of various modules which can not be loaded in running operating system

c)

kernel is the first part of the operating system to load into memory during booting

d)

kernel is the program that constitutes the central core of the operating system

3.

Where is the operating system placed in the memory?

a)

either low or high memory (depending on the location of interrupt vector)

b)

in the low memory

c)

in the high memory

d)

none of the mentioned

4.

When a process is in a “Blocked” state waiting for some I/O service. When the service is completed, it goes to the __________

a)

Terminated state

b)

Suspended state

c)

Running state

d)

Ready state

5.

In real time operating system ____________

a)

process scheduling can be done only once

b)

all processes have the same priority

c)

kernel is not required

d)

a task must be serviced by its deadline period

6.

To access the services of the operating system, the interface is provided by the ___________

a)

Library

b)

System calls

c)

Assembly instructions

d)

API

7.

In a timeshare operating system, when the time slot assigned to a process is completed, the process switches from the current state to?

a)

Suspended state

b)

Terminated state

c)

Ready state

d)

Blocked state

8.

Cascading termination refers to the termination of all child processes if the parent process terminates ______

a)

Normally or abnormally

b)

Abnormally

c)

Normally

d)

None of the mentioned

9.

The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for ____________

a)

operating systems

b)

multiprocessor systems

c)

time sharing systems

d)

multiprogramming systems

10.

The operating system is responsible for?

a)

bad-block recovery

b)

booting from disk

c)

disk initialization

d)

all of the mentioned

11.

The operating system maintains a ______ table that keeps track of how many frames have been allocated, how many are there, and how many are available.

a)

memory

b)

mapping

c)

page

d)

frame

12.

The _________ presents a uniform device-access interface to the I/O subsystem, much as system calls provide a standard interface between the application and the operating system.

a)

Device drivers

b)

I/O systems

c)

Devices

d)

Buses

13.

Which scheduling algorithm is non-preemptive?

a)

Round Robin

b)

SJF

c)

FCFS

d)

Multilevel Feedback Queue

14.

Which scheduling algorithm can lead to starvation?

a)

Round Robin

b)

FCFS

c)

Shortest Job First

d)

FIFO

15.

What is the major drawback of Round Robin scheduling?

a)

Starvation

b)

Poor throughput

c)

High context switching

d)

Low CPU utilization

16.

What does SRTF stand for?

a)

Shortest Remaining Time First

b)

Shortest Runtime First

c)

Smallest Ready Time First

d)

Shortest Remaining Turnaround First

17.

What technique can be used to prevent starvation in priority scheduling?

a)

Fragmentation

b)

Segmentation

c)

Aging

d)

Paging

18.

What is turnaround time?

a)

Completion Time - Arrival Time

b)

Start Time - Arrival Time

c)

Waiting Time + CPU Burst Time

d)

CPU Time only

19.

In which of the following is the process moved to the back of the queue after each time quantum?

a)

SJF

b)

FCFS

c)

Round Robin

d)

Priority Scheduling

20.

Which algorithm is used to avoid deadlock?

a)

Round Robin

b)

Banker’s Algorithm

c)

FIFO

d)

Paging

21.

What is used to avoid race conditions?

a)

Page Table

b)

Mutex

c)

Scheduler

d)

Loader

22.

What is the purpose of a semaphore?

a)

Scheduling

b)

Memory allocation

c)

Synchronization

d)

Deadlock detection

23.

Threads of the same process share:

a)

Registers

b)

Stack

c)

Memory space

d)

Program Counter

24.

In segmentation, address is specified as:

a)

Page number and offset

b)

Segment number and offset

c)

Physical address only

d)

None

25.

Which of the following is a preemptive scheduling algorithm?

a)

FCFS

b)

Round Robin

c)

Non-preemptive SJF

d)

Priority without aging

26.

Which of the following data structures uses LIFO (Last In First Out)?

a)

Queue

b)

Array

c)

Stack

d)

Linked List

27.

Which data structure is best suited for implementing recursion?

a)

Queue

b)

Stack

c)

Tree

d)

Graph

28.

What is the time complexity of binary search in a sorted array?

a)

O(n)

b)

O(log n)

c)

O(n log n)

d)

O(1)

29.

Which traversal visits nodes in the order: Left → Root → Right?

a)

Preorder

b)

Postorder

c)

Inorder

d)

Level Order

30.

In a circular queue, the condition for queue to be full is:

a)

rear == size - 1

b)

front == rear

c)

(rear + 1) % size == front

d)

rear == front - 1

31.

What is the value of the postfix expression 6 3 2 4 + – *?

a)

74

b)

-18

c)

22

d)

40

32.

Which sorting algorithm is best in average case and uses divide and conquer?

a)

Bubble Sort

b)

Selection Sort

c)

Insertion Sort

d)

Merge Sort

33.

What is the maximum number of nodes in a binary tree of height h?

a)

2^h – 1

b)

2h

c)

h^2

d)

h * log h

34.

What is the worst-case time complexity of linear search?

a)

O(1)

b)

O(log n)

c)

O(n)

d)

O(n²)

35.

Which of the following data structures is best for implementing BFS (Breadth First Search)?

a)

Stack

b)

Queue

c)

Recursion

d)

Heap

36.

Which of these is used in DFS (Depth First Search)?

a)

Queue

b)

Array

c)

Stack or Recursion

d)

Linked List

37.

Which of the following operations is the fastest in a hash table?

a)

Searching

b)

Sorting

c)

Traversing

d)

Merging

38.

Which traversal method is best to copy a binary tree?

a)

Preorder

b)

Inorder

c)

Postorder

d)

Level Order

39.

Which of the following tree data structures is not a balanced binary tree?

a)

Splay tree

b)

B-tree

c)

AVL tree

d)

Red-black tree

40.

What is an AVL tree?

a)

a tree which is unbalanced and is a height balanced tree

b)

a tree which is balanced and is a height balanced tree

c)

a tree with atmost 3 children

d)

a tree with three children

41.

A data structure in which elements can be inserted or deleted at/from both ends but not in the middle is?

a)

Priority queue

b)

Dequeue

c)

Circular queue

d)

Queue

42.

Which type of data structure is a ternary heap?

a)

Hash

b)

Array

c)

Priority Stack

d)

Priority Queue

43.

What is a dequeue?

a)

A queue implemented with both singly and doubly linked lists

b)

A queue with insert/delete defined for front side of the queue

c)

A queue with insert/delete defined for both front and rear ends of the queue

d)

A queue implemented with a doubly linked list

44.

Which is the most appropriate data structure for reversing a word?

a)

stack

b)

queue

c)

graph

d)

tree

45.

What is the need for a circular queue?

a)

easier computations

b)

implement LIFO principle in queues

c)

effective usage of memory

d)

to delete elements based on priority

46.

What is the height of a tree with only 1 node (root)?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

-1

d)

2

47.

Which of the following statement(s) about stack data structure is/are NOT correct?

a)

Top of the Stack always contain the new node

b)

Stack is the FIFO data structure

c)

Null link is present in the last node at the bottom of the stack

d)

Linked List are used for implementing Stacks

48.

Which data structure is needed to convert infix notation to postfix notation?

a)

Tree

b)

Branch

c)

Stack

d)

Queue

49.

Which of the following is NOT a type of SQL JOIN?

a)

INNER JOIN

b)

OUTER JOIN

c)

SIDE JOIN

d)

LEFT JOIN

50.

In the relational model, a tuple is also known as:

a)

Column

b)

Table

c)

Row

d)

Schema

51.

Which SQL command is used to remove all rows from a table without logging individual row deletions?

a)

DELETE

b)

ERASE

c)

TRUNCATE

d)

REMOVE

52.

Which of the following ensures atomicity in a DBMS transaction?

a)

SQL

b)

Normalization

c)

ACID

d)

Index

53.

Which of the following normal forms removes partial dependency?

a)

1NF

b)

2NF

c)

3NF

d)

BCNF

54.

The ability to query data, as well as insert, delete, and alter tuples, is offered by ____________

a)

TCL (Transaction Control Language)

b)

DCL (Data Control Language)

c)

DDL (Data Definition Langauge)

d)

DML (Data Manipulation Langauge)

55.

What is the purpose of normalization in databases?

a)

Reduce query time

b)

Remove data redundancy

c)

Increase data size

d)

Increase complexity

56.

Which property of a transaction ensures that either all operations are completed or none are?

a)

Consistency

b)

Isolation

c)

Atomicity

d)

Durability

57.

Which normal form eliminates transitive dependency?

a)

1NF

b)

2NF

c)

3NF

d)

BCNF

58.

Which of the following is true about views in SQL?

a)

Views store data physically

b)

Views improve insert speed

c)

Views are always updatable

d)

Views are virtual tables created using SELECT queries

59.

A clustered index:

a)

Is stored separately from the data

b)

Can be created on multiple columns

c)

Sorts and stores rows in table according to the index

d)

Is the default index for all tables

60.

Which of the following statements about triggers is TRUE?

a)

Triggers execute manually

b)

Triggers can’t call procedures

c)

Triggers run automatically on specified DB events

d)

Triggers are deprecated in modern DBMS

61.

Which join returns only matching rows from both tables?

a)

LEFT OUTER JOIN

b)

FULL OUTER JOIN

c)

INNER JOIN

d)

RIGHT OUTER JOIN

62.

Which of the following can cause a dirty read?

a)

Read committed isolation

b)

Serializable isolation

c)

Repeatable read

d)

Read uncommitted isolation

63.

Which of the following command is correct to delete the values in the relation teaches?

a)

Delete from teaches;

b)

Delete from teaches where Id ='Null';

c)

Remove table teaches;

d)

Drop table teaches;

64.

What does an RDBMS consist of?

a)

Collection of Records

b)

Collection of Keys

c)

Collection of Tables

d)

Collection of Fields

65.

What is information about data called?

a)

Hyper data

b)

Tera data

c)

Meta data

d)

Relations

66.

Which of the following is a component of the DBMS?

a)

Data

b)

Data Languages

c)

Data Manager

d)

All of the above

67.

Which of the following is not a feature of DBMS?

a)

Minimum Duplication and Redundancy of Data

b)

High Level of Security

c)

Single-user Access only

d)

Support ACID Property

68.

Which of the following is not a function of the database?

a)

Managing stored data

b)

Manipulating data

c)

Security for stored data

d)

Analysing code

69.

What is the main purpose of encapsulation?

a)

Code reusability

b)

Hiding data

c)

Inheritance

d)

Overloading

70.

Which concept allows a subclass to use the methods of a superclass?

a)

Encapsulation

b)

Inheritance

c)

Polymorphism

d)

Abstraction

71.

What is function overriding an example of?

a)

Static binding

b)

Constructor chaining

c)

Runtime polymorphism

d)

Data hiding

72.

Which of the following is NOT a feature of OOP?

a)

Inheritance

b)

Encapsulation

c)

Compilation

d)

Polymorphism

73.

Which feature of OOP indicates code reusability?

a)

Abstraction

b)

Polymorphism

c)

Encapsulation

d)

Inheritance

74.

Which of the following supports function overloading?

a)

Compile-time polymorphism

b)

Run-time polymorphism

c)

Encapsulation

d)

Abstraction

75.

What type of access modifier hides data from outside classes?

a)

public

b)

private

c)

protected

d)

default

76.

How many types of access specifiers are provided in OOP (C++)?

a)

4

b)

3

c)

2

d)

1

77.

Which of these concepts is used to separate implementation from interface?

a)

Inheritance

b)

Abstraction

c)

Polymorphism

d)

Encapsulation

78.

Which of the following is true about constructors?

a)

They return an int

b)

They must have the same name as the class

c)

They can be private only

d)

They are inherited

79.

In OOP, what is a class?

a)

A variable

b)

A collection of objects

c)

A template for objects

d)

A datatype

80.

What is the default access modifier for class members in C++?

a)

public

b)

protected

c)

private

d)

internal

81.

Which keyword among the following can be used to declare an array of objects in java?

a)

allocate

b)

arr

c)

new

d)

create

82.

How to access the private member function of a class?

a)

Using class address

b)

Using object of class

c)

Using object pointer

d)

Using address of member function

83.

Which keyword should be used to declare static variables?

a)

const

b)

common

c)

static

d)

stat

84.

How to overcome diamond problem?

a)

Using seperate derived class

b)

Using virtual keyword with same name function

c)

Can’t be done

d)

Using alias name

85.

What is an abstraction in object-oriented programming?

a)

Hiding the implementation and showing only the features

b)

Hiding the important data

c)

Hiding the implementation

d)

Showing the important data

86.

The feature by which one object can interact with another object is _____________

a)

Message reading

b)

Message Passing

c)

Data transfer

d)

Data Binding

87.

How many bits are in an IPv4 address?

a)

64

b)

128

c)

32

d)

16

88.

Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for routing?

a)

Transport

b)

Network

c)

Session

d)

Data Link

89.

Which protocol is faster but does not guarantee delivery?

a)

TCP

b)

IP

c)

UDP

d)

FTP

90.

Which layer of OSI handles error detection?

a)

Network

b)

Data Link

c)

Transport

d)

Session

91.

Which one is a connection-oriented protocol?

a)

UDP

b)

IP

c)

TCP

d)

FTP

92.

Which of the following devices operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model?

a)

Hub

b)

Router

c)

Switch

d)

Modem

93.

Which address is used at the Data Link layer?

a)

IP address

b)

MAC address

c)

Domain name

d)

Port number

94.

Which protocol resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses?

a)

DNS

b)

DHCP

c)

ARP

d)

RARP

95.

Which class of IP addresses is used for multicasting?

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class D

d)

Class E

96.

DNS operates on which port number?

a)

80

b)

53

c)

25

d)

110

97.

Which protocol is used to fetch emails from a server?

a)

SMTP

b)

FTP

c)

POP3

d)

HTTP

98.

What is the loopback address in IPv4?

a)

0.0.0.0

b)

127.0.0.1

c)

192.168.0.1

d)

255.255.255.255

99.

Which of the following is not a valid private IP address?

a)

192.168.1.1

b)

172.16.0.1

c)

10.0.0.1

d)

8.8.8.8

100.

How is a single channel shared by multiple signals in a computer network?

a)

multiplexing

b)

phase modulation

c)

analog modulation

d)

digital modulation

101.

What is the term for an endpoint of an inter-process communication flow across a computer network?

a)

port

b)

machine

c)

socket

d)

pipe

102.

The data link layer takes the packets from _________ and encapsulates them into frames for transmission.

a)

network layer

b)

physical layer

c)

transport layer

d)

application layer

103.

A 4 byte IP address consists of __________

a)

only network address

b)

only host address

c)

network address & host address

d)

network address & MAC address

104.

The network layer protocol for internet is __________

a)

ethernet

b)

internet protocol

c)

hypertext transfer protocol

d)

file transfer protocol

105.

Which of the following are transport layer protocols used in networking?

a)

TCP and FTP

b)

TCP and FTP

c)

TCP and UDP

d)

HTTP and FTP

106.

Which layer provides the services to user?

a)

physical layer

b)

presentation layer

c)

session layer

d)

application layer

107.

Which topology requires a multipoint connection?

a)

Ring

b)

Bus

c)

Star

d)

Mesh

108.

What is the basic unit of data in UDP?

a)

Packet

b)

Segment

c)

Frame

d)

Datagram

109.

What is the functionality of the following piece of code?

a)

display the list

b)

reverse the list

c)

reverse the list excluding top-of-the-stack-element

d)

display the list excluding top-of-the-stack-element

110.

What is the advantage of a hash table as a data structure?

a)

easy to implement

b)

faster access of data

c)

exhibit good locality of reference

d)

very efficient for less number of entries

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