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WorksheetsTopic: HNBS Worksheet
Total questions: 150
Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins
Odontoid peg fractures Type II?
Fractures of the upper third of the peg
Fractures at the junction of the peg with the body of C2
Fractures essentially of the body of C2 at the base of the peg
None of these
A patient was diagnosed to have spondylolisthesis with a forward displacement of upper lumbar vertebra by 20%. He has:
Grade IV spondylolisthesis
Grade III spondylolisthesis
Grade II spondylolisthesis
Grade I spondylolisthesis
Defect of the pars interarticularis and is common cause of back pain in children and adolescents?
Spondylosis
Spondylolysis
Spondylolisthesis
Ankylosing spondylitis
Has no pars interarticularis fracture occurs, so when there is slippage, stenosis of the central canal usually develops. This is most frequently noted at L4–L5. What is this type of spondylolisthesis?
Isthmic
Degenerative
A and B
None of the above
The most commonly involved vertebra in spondylolysis
L4
SI
L5
None of the above
What are the more common causes of lumbar pain by ages 20–60 years old?
Spondylolysis
Disc abnormalities
Stenosis
Atlantoaxial joint is an example of:
Condyloid joint
Ball and socket joint
Hinge joint
Pivot joint
The first cervical vertebra (atlas) has all the following anatomic features EXCEPT:
Lateral masses
Inferior articular facets
Anterior arch
Spinous process
Superior articular facets
Characteristics of typical lumbar vertebrae, except:
Vertebral body is kidney-shaped
Spinal canal is circular in shape
No transverse foramina
No costal pits
Spinous process are short, thick and broad, and quadrilateral in shape
The cervical spinal segment marks a transition where permitted motion changes from rotation to flexion, extension, and lateral bending. This combined motion is facilitated by the ____ sagittal inclination of the cervical zygapophyseal joints.
45 degrees
60 degrees
75 degrees
90 degrees
Characteristics of a neurogenic claudication? I. Pain increased with spine extension, walking downhill, and ambulation II. Pain pattern progresses from proximal to distal III. Pain decreased with spine flexion, walking uphill IV. Pain pattern progresses from distal to proximal
I and III is correct
II and IV is correct
I, II and III is correct
I, III, IV is correct
I and IV is correct
What is the normal TMJ arthrokinematics for protrusion?
Bilateral anterior translation
Bilateral posterior translation
Ipsilateral rotation with contralateral translation
Bilateral rotation
Close-packed position of the TMJ?
Mouth slightly open, lips together, teeth not in contact
Teeth tightly clenched
Limitation of mouth opening
Mouth slightly closed
A patient complains of pain with mouth opening that makes it difficult for her to eat foods that require chewing. Examination revealed active mouth opening to be within normal limits of:
35–44 mm
15–24 mm
50–64 mm
65–74 mm
You are treating a patient who has been diagnosed with acute synovitis of the right temporomandibular (TMJ) joint. Your early intervention should focus on:
Gentle mobilizations to the right TMJ and patient education on posture, a soft food diet, and the application of ice at home
ROM exercises and grade III joint mobilizations to the TMJ
The issuing of a TENS unit to help control pain
Application of an intraoral appliance
Mouth opening is 40 mm. There is negative pain and negative deviation. There is positive clicking as the mouth opens on the right and negative click on mouth closure. What is the problem?
Right TMJ disc displacement with a reduction click only
Left TMJ displacement with a displacement click only
Left TMJ hypomobility
Left TMJ synovitis
All of the following muscles closes the jaw tightly EXCEPT:
Temporalis
Masseter
Medial pterygoid
Lateral pterygoid
Which muscle has two heads?
Lateral pterygoids
Medial pterygoid
Medial and lateral pterygoids
Temporalis
AKA the external occipital protuberance?
Nasion
Inion
Glabella
Fontanelles
Lambdoidal suture:
between two parietal bones
between parietal and occipital bones
between parietal and frontal bones
between parietal and temporal bones
Sneering muscle:
Occipitofrontalis
Procerus
Zygomaticus minor
Levator anguli oris
A muscle responsible for about 20% of the eye opening?
Levator palpebrae
Mueller’s muscle
Orbicularis oculi
Corrugator supercilli
At what age does a human have the greatest amount of fluid in the IV disk?
1 year
4 years
7 years
10 years
Force generated by the annulus fibrosus once it is stretched?
Ballistic stretch
IV disc stretch
Hoop’s stretch
Stretch maneuver
Resting position of cervical spine?
Slight extension
Full extension
Side flexion and rotation equally limited, extension
None of these
Loose pack position of SI joint?
Neutral
Pain when joints are stressed
Nutation
Counternutation
Innervated structures of the spine:
Spinous process
Z-joint
Transversospinalis
Intertransversae ligament
Cricoid cartilage is at the level of:
C3
C4
C6
T7
T2 spine
The landmarks most helpful to palpate in order to locate the L4 vertebral trochanters:
Greater trochanters
Iliac crest
ASIS
PSIS
Which eye muscles are contracting when the subject is looking downward and to the left?
Left SR and right IO
Right IR and left SO
Right SR and IO
Left IR and right SO
The most appropriate therapeutic exercise to stretch the neck muscles for the patient with an acute right sided torticollis is:
Right rotation and right lateral flexion
Left rotation and right lateral flexion
Left rotation and left lateral flexion
Right rotation and left lateral flexion
Facets of thoracic spine are oriented in what plane:
Frontal
Sagittal
Horizontal
Transverse
Characterized by increased thoracic curve protracted scapula and usually accompanied by a forward head:
Lordotic posture
Sway back
Flat low back
Round back
A positive Schober’s test is most commonly associated with:
Ankylosing spondylitis
Spinal stenosis
Psoriasis
Spondylosis
The exercise program in mild idiopathic scoliosis should include exercises that:
Strengthen the abdominals, strengthen the muscles on the concave side of the curve and improve posture
Strengthen the abdominals, strengthen the muscles on the convex side of the curve and encourage trunk flexion
Emphasize global spinal mobility without side-specific strengthening
Avoid abdominal strengthening and focus on lumbar extension only
A 14-year-old girl with right thoracic scoliosis is referred to PT. The therapist should expect which of the following findings:
Left shoulder high, left scapula prominent, & right hip high
Left shoulder low, right scapula prominent, & left hip high
Right shoulder high, right scapula prominent, & right hip high
Right shoulder low, right scapula prominent, & left hip high
Absolute indications of surgery for patient with LBP? I. Intolerable pain II. Cauda equina syndrome III. Persistent pain that markedly compromises a patient’s functional abilities IV. Progressive neurologic deficit
I and III is correct
II and IV is correct
I, II, and III is correct
I, II, III and IV is correct
None of these
Ligament that is pierced when performing lumbar punctures?
ALL
PLL
Intertransverse ligament
Ligamentum flavum
What is the name of the ligament that maintains the dens against the atlas?
Alar ligament
Anterior longitudinal ligament
Transverse ligament
Posterior longitudinal ligament
A strong ligamentous band extending from the seventh cervical vertebra to the skull:
Ligamentum flavum
Ligamentum nuchae
Transverse ligament
Posterior longitudinal ligament
Tiziete’s syndrome is characterized by:
Cervical rib dislocation
Apical pleuritis of the lungs
Painful swelling of the costochondritis junction
Myodynia of the pectoralis major
Asking the patient to perform oblique sit-ups to the right would test which of the following muscles groups:
Rectus abdominis & right internal oblique
Left internal oblique & right external oblique
Right internal oblique & left external oblique
Rectus abdominis & left internal oblique
Left & right lateral flexion of the thoracic spine totals how much:
15 degrees
40 degrees
30 degrees
60 degrees
Lordotic curves in the cervical spines develop in infants when infants start to:
Sit
Stand
Raises head
None of the above
TRUE statements about the joint of Von Luschka, EXCEPT:
Involves C3–C7 vertebrae
Comprising of body of the superior vertebra and paired base of pedicles of the inferior vertebra
Found only in cervical vertebrae
Total of 10 joints
Also known as the uncovertebral joints
This condition refers to type of disc herniation, wherein the nucleus pulposus herniates posteriorly to an INCOMPLETE defect of the annulus fibrosus:
Sequestration
Prolapsed
Extrusions
Bulging
Protrusion
While examining an infant you note a pronounced tuft of hair on the center of the spinal column in the lumbar area. Your examination reveals no loss in motor or sensory function. This patient most likely has what form of spina bifida:
Meningocele
Spina bifida occulta
Arnold Chiari
Meningomyelocele
What comprises the ANTERIOR COLUMN of the three column theory?
Anterior half of vertebral body & disc and the ALL
Posterior half of vertebral body & disc and the PLL
Vertebral spine, transverse process and related ligaments
None of these
Spondylolisthesis refers to:
Slipped disc in the lumbar region
Compression fracture in the lumbar region
Adherent nerve root syndrome
Gradual slipping of one vertebrae on another
Externally laterally from the junction of the pedicle and a lamina:
Vertebral foramen
Transverse process
Pedicle
Axis
Bone that is made up of five vertebrae which unites to form one bone:
Sacrum
Coccyx
Sacral canal
Sacral Foramina
The height of this specific vertebrae may be used to determine the corresponding landmark:
All of these
T10 body–tip of the xiphoid process
S2 height of posterior superior iliac spines
L4 spinous process–level with the highest portion of the crest of the ilium
Which of the muscles make up the erector spinae?
Spinalis thoracis
Longissimus thoracis
Iliocostalis lumborum
A & C
AOTA
Is the continuation of supraspinous ligament in the neck region?
Ligamentum flavum
Ligamentum nuchae
Transverse ligament
Interspinous ligament
The spine of the scapula corresponds to what vertebral level?
T5
T3
T7
T12
Hyoid bone is leveled with:
C3
C5
C4
C6
This ligament united the laminae:
Supraspinous ligament
Ligamentum flava
Ligamentum nuchae
Transverse ligament
The strongest extensors of the lumbar spine in strengthening up from a forward flexed bending position are the:
Multifidus mm
Gluteus maximus mm
Hamstring mm
Latissimus dorsi mm
Facets of thoracic spine are oriented in what plane:
Frontal
Sagittal
Horizontal
Transverse
The thoracolumbar fascia provides humans the ability to lift heavy weights overhead; nit also stabilize the trunk for throwing objects with high velocities:
Both statements are false
Both statements are true
First statement is true, second statement is false
First statement is false, second statement is true
Limit skull and atlas rotation on the axis:
Transverse ligament
Alar ligament
Ligamentum flavum
Anterior longitudinal ligament
In which direction does the pelvis tilt in order to increase the lumbar lordosis?
Anteriorly
Posteriorly
Laterally
Medially
The specialized joint of the craniovertebral area formed by one centrally located articulation & two facet whose axis of motion is vertical through the dens, accounting to 50% of rotation in the cervical area:
None of these
Atlanto-occipital joint
Cervical vertebral articulation
Atlanto-axial joint
Level of iliac tubercle
L4
L5
S2
S1
Gel-like material in a disc is called:
Annulus fibrosus
Vertebral foramen
Nucleus fibrosus
Nucleus pulposus
Which of the following creates the greatest increase in intradiscal pressure at the lumbar spine?
Sit-up exercises with knees bent
Lifting a 20-kg weight with back straight and knees bent
Bending forward
Bilateral SLR
Laughing
Name of the ligament that prevents subluxation of dens when fractured?
Alar ligament
Anterior longitudinal ligament
Transverse ligament
Posterior longitudinal ligament
The bony landmark corresponding to the xiphoid process?
T7
T10
T12
T5
The infant spine is composed of ____ vertebrae:
37
33
36
28
26
The most limited motion in the lumbar spine is:
Flexion
Lateral bending
Rotation
Extension
The lumbar spine is not limited in any direction of movement
Leaning the trunk forward when standing from a sitting position is better accomplished because of _______:
Forward shifting of the line of gravity
Forward shifting of the center of gravity
Increased posterior torque
Increased anterior torque
The vertebral foramen is largest and triangular in shape in the ____ region of the vertebral canal:
Cervical
Thoracic
Lumbar
Sacral
The landmarks most helpful to palpate in order to locate the L4 vertebral trochanters:
Greater trochanters
Iliac crest
ASIS
PSIS
The tapered end of the spinal cord is called as ________:
Conus medullaris
Cauda Equina
Denticulate ligament
Sacral cord segment
When reaching toward the floor or the toes a coordinated movement between the lumbar spine and pelvis occurs during maximum forward bending of the trunk. This coordinated movement is called:
Anterior pelvic tilting
Lateral pelvic tilt
Pelvic shifting
Lumbopelvic rhythm
Flexion motion of the lumbar spine is about:
30 degrees
40 degrees
20 degrees
25 degrees
Therapist hand/ finger placements for posterior to anterior (PA) mobilization techniques to improve down gliding/closure of the T7-T8 facet joints should be located at the:
Spinous process of T8
Transverse processes of T7
Transverse processes of T8
Spinous process of T6
Extends posteriorly or back from the posterior border of the vertebral arch:
Vertebral foramen
Transverse process
Pedicles
Spinous process
Force generated by annulus fibrosus circulating the IV disk:
Hoop’s stretch
Crisis stretch
Sharp’s stretch
None of these
The spinous process of the following vertebrae lie above and below the interspace and since they do not overlap each other and mark the actual levels of the vertebral bodies, they make the excellent reference points from which to identify other vertebrae:
L4 and S1
L4 and L5
L3 and L4
S1 and S2
The anterior longitudinal ligament if injured due to a sprain may cause the affected spinal segment to:
Move excessively during spinal extension
Move less during spinal extension
Move excessively during spinal flexion
Move less during spinal flexion
Capsular pattern of the vertebral column:
Extension
Midway flexion & extension
Side flexion & rotation, extension
Flexion
A physician notes a vertebral fracture in the X-ray of a patient involved in a car accident. The fractured vertebra has a bifid spinous process. Which of the following vertebrae is the most likely to be involved?
Fourth lumbar vertebra
Fifth cervical vertebra
Twelfth thoracic vertebra
First sacral vertebra
The atlanto-occipital joint is an example of this joint
Ball and socket
Saddle
Condyloid
Trochoid
Hinge
At what age does a human have the greatest amount of fluid in the intervertebral disc?
1 year
4 years
7 years
10 years
The sixth thoracic vertebra is characterized by:
Its bifid spinous process
Its massive body
Having the superior articular processes face medially & the inferior articular processes face laterally
It’s heart-shaped body
It’s thick lamina
While assessing the posture of a patient you note that the T2 spinous process in the thoracic region appears to be rotated to the left. Which bony landmark would you be using to make this approximation of the vertebral level?
Inferior angle of the scapula
Superior angle of the scapula
Spine of the scapula
Xiphoid process of the sternum
All of the following statements describe the joints of Luschka, except:
Are called uncovertebral joints
Unique articulation seen in upper cervical vertebrae
No synovium; so not considered as true joints
Not present at birth; develop by end of first decade
ULTT4
AIN
Musculocutaneous
Radial
Ulnar
Test for expanding intracranial lesions:
Romberg’s Test
Neurological control test-Upper Limb
Neurological control test-Lower Limb
All of these
B and C
A relief of signs during shoulder abduction test is also known as:
Braggard’s test
Hyndman’s sign
Brudzinski sign
Linder sign
Bakody’s sign
The patient stands with the shoulders forward flexed to 90 degrees, elbows straight and forearms supinated, palms up and eyes closed, holding the position for 10 to 20 seconds. The test is considered positive if one arm slowly falls with simultaneous forearm pronation. The cause is thought to be diminished blood flow to the brainstem. This test is:
Barre’s Test
Naffziger Test
Vertebral artery test
All of these
Using Passive Scapular Approximation Test, the patient lied prone while the examiner passively approximates the scapulae by lifting the shoulders up and back. Pain in the scapular area may be indicative of:
Scapular fracture
T1 nerve root problem
TOS
Long thoracic Nerve entrapment
SLR 4. Movements listed: I. Hip IR, II. Hip flexion, III. PF, IV. Inversion, V. Knee Extension. Which combination applies?
I and III
II and IV
I, II, III are correct
Only IV is correct
All of these are correct
SLR 3. Movements listed: I. Hip IR, II. Hip Flexion, III. PF, IV. Knee flexion, V. Inversion. Which combination applies?
I and III
II and IV
I, II, III are correct
Only IV is correct
NOTA
The examiner finds the radial pulse and applies a downward traction on the test extremity while the patient’s neck is hyperextended and the head is rotated to the opposite side. Absence or disappearance of a pulse indicates a positive test for thoracic outlet syndrome. This test is also known as:
Adson
Halstead
Allen’s
Roos
Wright’s Test
The examiner flexes the patient’s elbow to 90 degrees while the shoulder is extended horizontally and rotated laterally. The patient then rotates the head away from the test side. The examiner palpates the radial pulse, which becomes absent (disappears) when the head is rotated away from the test side. The pulse disappearance indicates a positive test result for thoracic outlet syndrome. The test done in this fashion has also been called the:
Adson
Halstead
Allen’s
Roos
Wright’s test
SLR 5
Tibial
Sural
Peroneal
Disc prolapse
Sciatic
In this test, pt is supine as is asked to flex head on to his chest with his hand behind his head. The result is pain on the neck and lowback area, which is relieved by knee flexion.
Brudzinki-Kernig’s Test
Braggard’s Test
Slump Test
SLR Test
You are examining a patient who appears to be over suspicious, and demonstrate delusions of persecution. Which of the following describe this personality type?
Paranoid
Catatonic
Passive aggressive
Passive dependent
You are examining a patient who appears to be demonstrating sensory disturbance as a conversion reaction. Which of the following findings would lead you to suspect this?
Stocking-like distribution of sensations over an extremity
Dermatomal distribution of sensations changes
No specific line of demarcation of symptoms
Myotomal pattern of weakness
You are examining a teenage girl who has been diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. Anorexia nervosa is a disorder that causes:
Severe vomiting
Severe weight gain
Severe weight loss
Severe diarrhea
You are examining a patient with a diagnosis of Osteogenesis imperfecta (OI). Which of the following statements does not apply to this condition:
OI is a rare congenital skeletal disease
The bones are extremely fragile and multiple fractures are common
The etiology of OI is unknown
The bone fragility and the tendency for fractures is more severe following puberty
While treating a patient in the ICU, you accidentally pull out the patient’s catheter. Which of the following problems can occur if a catheter becomes disconnected or accidentally removed?
Hemorrhage
Air emboli
Catheter contamination
All of the above
You are working in an outpatient clinic and your supervisor tells you never to charge less than 6 charges per visit for all of your patients. You should:
Schedule a time to speak to your supervisor about the fact that this policy is in conflict with the Code of Ethics
Ignore your supervisor’s instructions and continue to charge your patients in a manner you feel is appropriate
Resign from the clinic and report the supervisor to the state’s licensing board
Carry out the supervisor’s instructions
You are about to examine a patient in his room who was admitted to the hospital the day before with severe low back pain of unknown etiology. Upon reviewing the patient’s chart, you note that tests carried out earlier that day reveal he is at the end stage of pancreatic cancer. When you begin your examination, it is clear that the patient does not know he has cancer. If the patient asks you what his prognosis is, your BEST response would be to:
Tell him to ask the nurse
Tell him to ask his physician
Tell him that everything will be fine
Avoid answering the question
Your patient had a fall while getting off the treadmill. With the exception of a slight cut and some bruising the patient was okay. The incident report of the event should include:
The name of those involved, any witnessed, and what, when and where the incident occurred
The cause of the incident, the corrective actions taken, and the names of the staff involved
The witnesses and where it occurred
This does not qualify for an incident report as the patient was not seriously hurt
As the Director of a department you have noticed a recent spate of accidents in your department involving the exercise equipment. All of the following would be appropriate courses of action, except:
Scheduling regular (at least annually) equipment’s inspections
Reminding staff about the importance of adhering to policies and procedures addressing the maintenance of exercise equipment
Safety training for staff in the use and care of the equipment
All of the above would be appropriate steps to take
You have been asked to develop an incontinence program in the local community. The correct sequence of steps to take includes:
Needs assessment, program evaluation, program planning, program implementation
Needs assessment, program planning, program implementation, program evaluation
Program planning, needs assessment, program implementation, program evaluation
Program planning, needs assessment, program evaluation, program implementation
All of the following are recognized gait deviations resulting from disease, except:
Tabetic
Festinating
Waddling
Strutting
All of the following are examples of autosomal recessive diseases except:
Muscular dystrophy
Cystic fibrosis
Sickle cell anemia
All of the following are examples of medical terminology seen in the NICU, except:
ROP-Retinopathy of prematurity
AGA-Appropriate for gestational age
PDA-Patent ductus arteriosus
All are examples of medical terminology seen in the NICU
All of the following are considered to be functions of a healthy liver, except:
Breakdown a bile
Detoxification of numerous drugs and hormones
Carbohydrate, protein, and fat metabolism
Synthesis of clotting factors, and plasma proteins
All of the following are signs and symptoms of Vitamin D deficiency except:
Osteomalacia
Muscular Dystrophy
Keratomalacia
Spontaneous fractures
Which of the following tissues show the best conductivity electrical current?
Skin
Tendon
Bone
Muscle
You are explaining what affects ultrasound has on membrane permeability to physical therapy student. Ultrasound has the following effect on membrane permeability:
Produces no charge
It alternates the permeability
It decreases the permeability
It increases the permeability
You are reviewing a patient’s lab values in the medical record. Which of the following would you consider to be an abnormal lab value in an adult male?
Arterial pH: 7.4
Low density lipoprotein (LDL): 190mg/dl
140mg/dl
High density lipoprotein (HDL): 60mg/dl
All of the following are functions of the skin except:
Secretion of oils that lubricate the skin
Vitamin A synthesis
Insulation
Storage of nutrients
All of the following are types of wound closures, except:
Primary closure
Secondary intention
Delayed primary closure
Delayed secondary intention
All of the following are complications associated with electrical burns except:
Renal failure
Spinal cord damage
Cardiac arrhythmias
Liver failure
All of the following are considered to be the correct open-packed position of the joint, except:
Ulnohumeral: 70 degrees of flexion, 10 degrees supination
Radiohumeral: 70 degrees of flexion, 35 degrees of supination
Glenohumeral: 55 degrees of abduction, 30 degrees of horizontal adduction
Distal radioulnar: 10 degrees of supination
You are recommending an adjustment to patient’s prosthesis in order to increase knee extension. How would you position the foot component in relation to the socket to accomplish this?
Anterior
Posterior
Medial
Lateral
You are assessing a patient for gait who is using an above knee prosthesis. You notice that the prosthetic knee appears unstable as you determine that knee flexion is occurring prematurely. After you have ruled out the prosthetic causes, which of the following patient causes could be at fault
The amputee may have hip extensor weakness
The amputee may be using too much force
The amputee may have faulty walking habits
None of these would explain the problem
You are inspecting a patient’s wound and notice there is an excessive accumulation of exudate and a white appearance to the skin. What term would you use to describe this
Hematoma
Maceration
Desiccation
Seroma
You are assessing a patient’s arm and shoulder strength. When assessing internal rotation at the shoulder, which of the following muscles would not be involved:
Pectoralis major
Infraspinatus
Latissimus dorsi
Subscapularis
You are performing a manual muscle test of a patient’s hip. The patient reports pain with resisted hip external rotation. Which of the following muscles are not involved with hip external rotation:
Sartorius
Pectineus
Quadratus femoris
Gluteus Minimus
A 60-year-old wheelchair bound patient is being discharged home from your hospital. In preparation for discharge, you visit the home and find he has 3 standard height steps going into his home, requiring a ramp to be constructed for his wheelchair. The recommended length of his ramp should be:
252 inches ( 21 feet)
72 inches ( 6 feet)
96 inches ( 8 feet)
240 inches ( 20 feet)
You are examining a patient who sustained a left-sided injury to her back while playing tennis. She was serving the ball when she felt an immediate sharp pain in her right low back. She reports that her low back is stiff in the morning but that her pain eases after taking a shower. Based on the above information, the structure MOST likely involved is:
Lumbar facet joint
A spinal nerve root
The transverse ligament
A lumbar disc
You read on an x-ray report that your patient has a problem with the pars interarticularis at the L5 level. A dysfunction of this part of the vertebra could possibly lead to:
Spondylolisthesis with possible anterior slippage of the vertebral body
Spondylolysis
Spinal nerve root compression
Disc herniation
You are examining a 65-year-old male who has a long history of lumbar pain and a diagnosis of degenerative joint disease (DJD) of his lumbar facet joints. During the exam, the patient complained of numbness, paresthesia and weakness of his bilateral lower extremities which increase with lumbar extension positions. However, he also reports he can ride a stationary bike for 30 minutes without any problems. What would be your provisional diagnosis for this patient :
Spinal stenosis
Degenerative arthritis
Spondylolysis
Discal dysfunction
You are examining a college soccer player who sustained a hyperextension knee injury during a game the previous day. The patient went to the emergency room of a local hospital and was diagnosed with “knee sprain”. You decide to test the patient’s anterior cruciate ligament of the involved knee. Which of the following tests would the best to use?
Lachman
McMurray
Ober
Ely
You are examining a tennis player who was referred to physical therapy with progressive posterior shoulder pain and weakness of the shoulder abductors and external (lateral) rotators. You notice muscle atrophy superior and inferior to the scapular spine. The patient’s problem is MOST LIKELY attributable to damage involving the:
Median Nerve
Suprascapular nerve
Spinal accessory nerve
Long thoracic nerve
During gait assessment of a patient who is beginning ambulation training with a right above-knee prosthesis, you observe that the heel rises excessively during early swing. Possible causes for this are:
The prosthesis is too long
Too much tension in the extension aid
Weakness of the hip extension
Inadequate knee friction or too little tension in the extension aid
You are examining a 21 year-old man who suffered a gunshot wound and now exhibits Brown-Sequard syndrome. The classic signs and symptoms of this syndrome are:
Preservation of perianal sensation, normal lower extremity reflexes, and active toe flexion
Ipsilateral weakness and loss of proprioception and vibration below the lesion level with contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation
Loss of motor function and pain and temperature sensation below the level of the lesion on both sides of the body
Loss of upper extremity function with preservation of lower extremity function
You are performing a gait assessment on a patient using a patellar-tendon bearing prosthesis, and you observe excessive knee flexion in early stance of the involved side. The most likely reason for this is:
The socket is aligned too far posteriorly
The socket is aligned too far forward or tilted anteriorly
The foot component is outset too much
The foot component is inset too much
Independent community ambulation as the primary means of functional mobility is a realistic functional expectation for a patient with the highest level of spinal cord injury at:
T9-10
T12-L1
T6-T9
L4-L5
You are performing a gait assessment on a patient using a below-knee prosthesis who demonstrates an uneven heel rise on the prosthetic side. What is the most likely cause of this?
The hip extensors are weak
Insufficient knee friction
The prosthesis is externally rotated
The prosthesis is not providing sufficient support
What is the minimal blood glucose level that is considered too high for a diabetic patient to begin exercise?
250mg/dl
400mg/dl
500mg/dl
609mg/dl
A patient is sitting at a table and performing elbow flexion exercises using a dumbbell as resistance. This exercise demonstrates what class of lever?
First class
Second class
Third class
Fourth class
Which of the following tissues absorbs the least amount of an ultrasound beam at 1MHz ?
Blood
Muscle
Bone
Skin
You are examining a patient with a history of congestive heart failure. You notice that the patient has some peripheral edema. Which of the following factors are pathogenetic of this edema?
Increased blood supply to the various organs and tissues
Increased excretion of sodium by the kidneys
Decrease cardiac output
Decreased blood volume and elevated venous pressure
You are presenting a departmental in-service on the lymphoid system. The lymphoid system is composed of all the following except:
Bone marrow
Thymus
Liver
Spleen
You are examining a patient with a history of congestive heart disease. In addition to the heart, which of the following organs is most seriously affected due to the decreased blood supply that ensures?
Lungs
Kidneys
Brain
Spleen
You are examining a patient with diabetes insipidus. Which of the following is a true statement?
Diabetes insipidus is closely related to diabetes mellitus
Diabetes insipidus is associated with pituitary disease
Diabetes insipidus results from insulin deficiency
Diabetes insipidus is a disorder of carbohydrate
What structural change to the heart is associated with aortic stenosis?
Hypertrophy to the left ventricle
Hypertrophy of the right ventricle
Hypertrophy of the right aorta
Hypertrophy of the left aorta
You are examining a patient with a history of congestive heart disease with right ventricular hypertrophy. You would expect to find all of the following in this patient except:
Cyanosis
Ascites
Edema of the lower extremities
Dyspnea
You are presenting a departmental in-service about bronchiectasis. Which of the following are true statements?
It affects the lower lobes of the lungs more commonly than the upper lobes
It affects the right lung more frequently than the left
It is a chronic bronchitis condition
It is the result of emphysema
You are reviewing the medical records of the patient you’re about to examine in the intensive care unit. According to the patient’s chart the patient suffered an intracranial bleed due to trauma. Which of the following is the most common type of intracranial bleeding due to trauma:
Subdural hemorrhage
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Intercranial bleed
Extracranial bleed
You are examining a patient with diagnosis of chronic disease of the lungs. Of the following, which is the most chronic disease of the lungs?
Pulmonary tuberculosis
Asthma
Emphysema
Bronchiectasis
You are taking the history of a patient who reports that he becomes short of breath and wheezes when he runs, mows the lawn, or does other heavy work. Which of the following lung diseases do you suspect the patient has?
Bronchial asthma
Pulmonary emphysema
Chronic bronchitis
Acute bronchitis
