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Worksheets

Topic: HNBS Worksheet

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Odontoid peg fractures Type II?

a)

Fractures of the upper third of the peg

b)

Fractures at the junction of the peg with the body of C2

c)

Fractures essentially of the body of C2 at the base of the peg

d)

None of these

2.

A patient was diagnosed to have spondylolisthesis with a forward displacement of upper lumbar vertebra by 20%. He has:

a)

Grade IV spondylolisthesis

b)

Grade III spondylolisthesis

c)

Grade II spondylolisthesis

d)

Grade I spondylolisthesis

3.

Defect of the pars interarticularis and is common cause of back pain in children and adolescents?

a)

Spondylosis

b)

Spondylolysis

c)

Spondylolisthesis

d)

Ankylosing spondylitis

4.

Has no pars interarticularis fracture occurs, so when there is slippage, stenosis of the central canal usually develops. This is most frequently noted at L4–L5. What is this type of spondylolisthesis?

a)

Isthmic

b)

Degenerative

c)

A and B

d)

None of the above

5.

The most commonly involved vertebra in spondylolysis

a)

L4

b)

SI

c)

L5

d)

None of the above

6.

What are the more common causes of lumbar pain by ages 20–60 years old?

a)

Spondylolysis

b)

Disc abnormalities

c)

Stenosis

7.

Atlantoaxial joint is an example of:

a)

Condyloid joint

b)

Ball and socket joint

c)

Hinge joint

d)

Pivot joint

8.

The first cervical vertebra (atlas) has all the following anatomic features EXCEPT:

a)

Lateral masses

b)

Inferior articular facets

c)

Anterior arch

d)

Spinous process

e)

Superior articular facets

9.

Characteristics of typical lumbar vertebrae, except:

a)

Vertebral body is kidney-shaped

b)

Spinal canal is circular in shape

c)

No transverse foramina

d)

No costal pits

e)

Spinous process are short, thick and broad, and quadrilateral in shape

10.

The cervical spinal segment marks a transition where permitted motion changes from rotation to flexion, extension, and lateral bending. This combined motion is facilitated by the ____ sagittal inclination of the cervical zygapophyseal joints.

a)

45 degrees

b)

60 degrees

c)

75 degrees

d)

90 degrees

11.

Characteristics of a neurogenic claudication? I. Pain increased with spine extension, walking downhill, and ambulation II. Pain pattern progresses from proximal to distal III. Pain decreased with spine flexion, walking uphill IV. Pain pattern progresses from distal to proximal

a)

I and III is correct

b)

II and IV is correct

c)

I, II and III is correct

d)

I, III, IV is correct

e)

I and IV is correct

12.

What is the normal TMJ arthrokinematics for protrusion?

a)

Bilateral anterior translation

b)

Bilateral posterior translation

c)

Ipsilateral rotation with contralateral translation

d)

Bilateral rotation

13.

Close-packed position of the TMJ?

a)

Mouth slightly open, lips together, teeth not in contact

b)

Teeth tightly clenched

c)

Limitation of mouth opening

d)

Mouth slightly closed

14.

A patient complains of pain with mouth opening that makes it difficult for her to eat foods that require chewing. Examination revealed active mouth opening to be within normal limits of:

a)

35–44 mm

b)

15–24 mm

c)

50–64 mm

d)

65–74 mm

15.

You are treating a patient who has been diagnosed with acute synovitis of the right temporomandibular (TMJ) joint. Your early intervention should focus on:

a)

Gentle mobilizations to the right TMJ and patient education on posture, a soft food diet, and the application of ice at home

b)

ROM exercises and grade III joint mobilizations to the TMJ

c)

The issuing of a TENS unit to help control pain

d)

Application of an intraoral appliance

16.

Mouth opening is 40 mm. There is negative pain and negative deviation. There is positive clicking as the mouth opens on the right and negative click on mouth closure. What is the problem?

a)

Right TMJ disc displacement with a reduction click only

b)

Left TMJ displacement with a displacement click only

c)

Left TMJ hypomobility

d)

Left TMJ synovitis

17.

All of the following muscles closes the jaw tightly EXCEPT:

a)

Temporalis

b)

Masseter

c)

Medial pterygoid

d)

Lateral pterygoid

18.

Which muscle has two heads?

a)

Lateral pterygoids

b)

Medial pterygoid

c)

Medial and lateral pterygoids

d)

Temporalis

19.

AKA the external occipital protuberance?

a)

Nasion

b)

Inion

c)

Glabella

d)

Fontanelles

20.

Lambdoidal suture:

a)

between two parietal bones

b)

between parietal and occipital bones

c)

between parietal and frontal bones

d)

between parietal and temporal bones

21.

Sneering muscle:

a)

Occipitofrontalis

b)

Procerus

c)

Zygomaticus minor

d)

Levator anguli oris

22.

A muscle responsible for about 20% of the eye opening?

a)

Levator palpebrae

b)

Mueller’s muscle

c)

Orbicularis oculi

d)

Corrugator supercilli

23.

At what age does a human have the greatest amount of fluid in the IV disk?

a)

1 year

b)

4 years

c)

7 years

d)

10 years

24.

Force generated by the annulus fibrosus once it is stretched?

a)

Ballistic stretch

b)

IV disc stretch

c)

Hoop’s stretch

d)

Stretch maneuver

25.

Resting position of cervical spine?

a)

Slight extension

b)

Full extension

c)

Side flexion and rotation equally limited, extension

d)

None of these

26.

Loose pack position of SI joint?

a)

Neutral

b)

Pain when joints are stressed

c)

Nutation

d)

Counternutation

27.

Innervated structures of the spine:

a)

Spinous process

b)

Z-joint

c)

Transversospinalis

d)

Intertransversae ligament

28.

Cricoid cartilage is at the level of:

a)

C3

b)

C4

c)

C6

d)

T7

e)

T2 spine

29.

The landmarks most helpful to palpate in order to locate the L4 vertebral trochanters:

a)

Greater trochanters

b)

Iliac crest

c)

ASIS

d)

PSIS

30.

Which eye muscles are contracting when the subject is looking downward and to the left?

a)

Left SR and right IO

b)

Right IR and left SO

c)

Right SR and IO

d)

Left IR and right SO

31.

The most appropriate therapeutic exercise to stretch the neck muscles for the patient with an acute right sided torticollis is:

a)

Right rotation and right lateral flexion

b)

Left rotation and right lateral flexion

c)

Left rotation and left lateral flexion

d)

Right rotation and left lateral flexion

32.

Facets of thoracic spine are oriented in what plane:

a)

Frontal

b)

Sagittal

c)

Horizontal

d)

Transverse

33.

Characterized by increased thoracic curve protracted scapula and usually accompanied by a forward head:

a)

Lordotic posture

b)

Sway back

c)

Flat low back

d)

Round back

34.

A positive Schober’s test is most commonly associated with:

a)

Ankylosing spondylitis

b)

Spinal stenosis

c)

Psoriasis

d)

Spondylosis

35.

The exercise program in mild idiopathic scoliosis should include exercises that:

a)

Strengthen the abdominals, strengthen the muscles on the concave side of the curve and improve posture

b)

Strengthen the abdominals, strengthen the muscles on the convex side of the curve and encourage trunk flexion

c)

Emphasize global spinal mobility without side-specific strengthening

d)

Avoid abdominal strengthening and focus on lumbar extension only

36.

A 14-year-old girl with right thoracic scoliosis is referred to PT. The therapist should expect which of the following findings:

a)

Left shoulder high, left scapula prominent, & right hip high

b)

Left shoulder low, right scapula prominent, & left hip high

c)

Right shoulder high, right scapula prominent, & right hip high

d)

Right shoulder low, right scapula prominent, & left hip high

37.

Absolute indications of surgery for patient with LBP? I. Intolerable pain II. Cauda equina syndrome III. Persistent pain that markedly compromises a patient’s functional abilities IV. Progressive neurologic deficit

a)

I and III is correct

b)

II and IV is correct

c)

I, II, and III is correct

d)

I, II, III and IV is correct

e)

None of these

38.

Ligament that is pierced when performing lumbar punctures?

a)

ALL

b)

PLL

c)

Intertransverse ligament

d)

Ligamentum flavum

39.

What is the name of the ligament that maintains the dens against the atlas?

a)

Alar ligament

b)

Anterior longitudinal ligament

c)

Transverse ligament

d)

Posterior longitudinal ligament

40.

A strong ligamentous band extending from the seventh cervical vertebra to the skull:

a)

Ligamentum flavum

b)

Ligamentum nuchae

c)

Transverse ligament

d)

Posterior longitudinal ligament

41.

Tiziete’s syndrome is characterized by:

a)

Cervical rib dislocation

b)

Apical pleuritis of the lungs

c)

Painful swelling of the costochondritis junction

d)

Myodynia of the pectoralis major

42.

Asking the patient to perform oblique sit-ups to the right would test which of the following muscles groups:

a)

Rectus abdominis & right internal oblique

b)

Left internal oblique & right external oblique

c)

Right internal oblique & left external oblique

d)

Rectus abdominis & left internal oblique

43.

Left & right lateral flexion of the thoracic spine totals how much:

a)

15 degrees

b)

40 degrees

c)

30 degrees

d)

60 degrees

44.

Lordotic curves in the cervical spines develop in infants when infants start to:

a)

Sit

b)

Stand

c)

Raises head

d)

None of the above

45.

TRUE statements about the joint of Von Luschka, EXCEPT:

a)

Involves C3–C7 vertebrae

b)

Comprising of body of the superior vertebra and paired base of pedicles of the inferior vertebra

c)

Found only in cervical vertebrae

d)

Total of 10 joints

e)

Also known as the uncovertebral joints

46.

This condition refers to type of disc herniation, wherein the nucleus pulposus herniates posteriorly to an INCOMPLETE defect of the annulus fibrosus:

a)

Sequestration

b)

Prolapsed

c)

Extrusions

d)

Bulging

e)

Protrusion

47.

While examining an infant you note a pronounced tuft of hair on the center of the spinal column in the lumbar area. Your examination reveals no loss in motor or sensory function. This patient most likely has what form of spina bifida:

a)

Meningocele

b)

Spina bifida occulta

c)

Arnold Chiari

d)

Meningomyelocele

48.

What comprises the ANTERIOR COLUMN of the three column theory?

a)

Anterior half of vertebral body & disc and the ALL

b)

Posterior half of vertebral body & disc and the PLL

c)

Vertebral spine, transverse process and related ligaments

d)

None of these

49.

Spondylolisthesis refers to:

a)

Slipped disc in the lumbar region

b)

Compression fracture in the lumbar region

c)

Adherent nerve root syndrome

d)

Gradual slipping of one vertebrae on another

50.

Externally laterally from the junction of the pedicle and a lamina:

a)

Vertebral foramen

b)

Transverse process

c)

Pedicle

d)

Axis

51.

Bone that is made up of five vertebrae which unites to form one bone:

a)

Sacrum

b)

Coccyx

c)

Sacral canal

d)

Sacral Foramina

52.

The height of this specific vertebrae may be used to determine the corresponding landmark:

a)

All of these

b)

T10 body–tip of the xiphoid process

c)

S2 height of posterior superior iliac spines

d)

L4 spinous process–level with the highest portion of the crest of the ilium

53.

Which of the muscles make up the erector spinae?

a)

Spinalis thoracis

b)

Longissimus thoracis

c)

Iliocostalis lumborum

d)

A & C

e)

AOTA

54.

Is the continuation of supraspinous ligament in the neck region?

a)

Ligamentum flavum

b)

Ligamentum nuchae

c)

Transverse ligament

d)

Interspinous ligament

55.

The spine of the scapula corresponds to what vertebral level?

a)

T5

b)

T3

c)

T7

d)

T12

56.

Hyoid bone is leveled with:

a)

C3

b)

C5

c)

C4

d)

C6

57.

This ligament united the laminae:

a)

Supraspinous ligament

b)

Ligamentum flava

c)

Ligamentum nuchae

d)

Transverse ligament

58.

The strongest extensors of the lumbar spine in strengthening up from a forward flexed bending position are the:

a)

Multifidus mm

b)

Gluteus maximus mm

c)

Hamstring mm

d)

Latissimus dorsi mm

59.

Facets of thoracic spine are oriented in what plane:

a)

Frontal

b)

Sagittal

c)

Horizontal

d)

Transverse

60.

The thoracolumbar fascia provides humans the ability to lift heavy weights overhead; nit also stabilize the trunk for throwing objects with high velocities:

a)

Both statements are false

b)

Both statements are true

c)

First statement is true, second statement is false

d)

First statement is false, second statement is true

61.

Limit skull and atlas rotation on the axis:

a)

Transverse ligament

b)

Alar ligament

c)

Ligamentum flavum

d)

Anterior longitudinal ligament

62.

In which direction does the pelvis tilt in order to increase the lumbar lordosis?

a)

Anteriorly

b)

Posteriorly

c)

Laterally

d)

Medially

63.

The specialized joint of the craniovertebral area formed by one centrally located articulation & two facet whose axis of motion is vertical through the dens, accounting to 50% of rotation in the cervical area:

a)

None of these

b)

Atlanto-occipital joint

c)

Cervical vertebral articulation

d)

Atlanto-axial joint

64.

Level of iliac tubercle

a)

L4

b)

L5

c)

S2

d)

S1

65.

Gel-like material in a disc is called:

a)

Annulus fibrosus

b)

Vertebral foramen

c)

Nucleus fibrosus

d)

Nucleus pulposus

66.

Which of the following creates the greatest increase in intradiscal pressure at the lumbar spine?

a)

Sit-up exercises with knees bent

b)

Lifting a 20-kg weight with back straight and knees bent

c)

Bending forward

d)

Bilateral SLR

e)

Laughing

67.

Name of the ligament that prevents subluxation of dens when fractured?

a)

Alar ligament

b)

Anterior longitudinal ligament

c)

Transverse ligament

d)

Posterior longitudinal ligament

68.

The bony landmark corresponding to the xiphoid process?

a)

T7

b)

T10

c)

T12

d)

T5

69.

The infant spine is composed of ____ vertebrae:

a)

37

b)

33

c)

36

d)

28

e)

26

70.

The most limited motion in the lumbar spine is:

a)

Flexion

b)

Lateral bending

c)

Rotation

d)

Extension

e)

The lumbar spine is not limited in any direction of movement

71.

Leaning the trunk forward when standing from a sitting position is better accomplished because of _______:

a)

Forward shifting of the line of gravity

b)

Forward shifting of the center of gravity

c)

Increased posterior torque

d)

Increased anterior torque

72.

The vertebral foramen is largest and triangular in shape in the ____ region of the vertebral canal:

a)

Cervical

b)

Thoracic

c)

Lumbar

d)

Sacral

73.

The landmarks most helpful to palpate in order to locate the L4 vertebral trochanters:

a)

Greater trochanters

b)

Iliac crest

c)

ASIS

d)

PSIS

74.

The tapered end of the spinal cord is called as ________:

a)

Conus medullaris

b)

Cauda Equina

c)

Denticulate ligament

d)

Sacral cord segment

75.

When reaching toward the floor or the toes a coordinated movement between the lumbar spine and pelvis occurs during maximum forward bending of the trunk. This coordinated movement is called:

a)

Anterior pelvic tilting

b)

Lateral pelvic tilt

c)

Pelvic shifting

d)

Lumbopelvic rhythm

76.

Flexion motion of the lumbar spine is about:

a)

30 degrees

b)

40 degrees

c)

20 degrees

d)

25 degrees

77.

Therapist hand/ finger placements for posterior to anterior (PA) mobilization techniques to improve down gliding/closure of the T7-T8 facet joints should be located at the:

a)

Spinous process of T8

b)

Transverse processes of T7

c)

Transverse processes of T8

d)

Spinous process of T6

78.

Extends posteriorly or back from the posterior border of the vertebral arch:

a)

Vertebral foramen

b)

Transverse process

c)

Pedicles

d)

Spinous process

79.

Force generated by annulus fibrosus circulating the IV disk:

a)

Hoop’s stretch

b)

Crisis stretch

c)

Sharp’s stretch

d)

None of these

80.

The spinous process of the following vertebrae lie above and below the interspace and since they do not overlap each other and mark the actual levels of the vertebral bodies, they make the excellent reference points from which to identify other vertebrae:

a)

L4 and S1

b)

L4 and L5

c)

L3 and L4

d)

S1 and S2

81.

The anterior longitudinal ligament if injured due to a sprain may cause the affected spinal segment to:

a)

Move excessively during spinal extension

b)

Move less during spinal extension

c)

Move excessively during spinal flexion

d)

Move less during spinal flexion

82.

Capsular pattern of the vertebral column:

a)

Extension

b)

Midway flexion & extension

c)

Side flexion & rotation, extension

d)

Flexion

83.

A physician notes a vertebral fracture in the X-ray of a patient involved in a car accident. The fractured vertebra has a bifid spinous process. Which of the following vertebrae is the most likely to be involved?

a)

Fourth lumbar vertebra

b)

Fifth cervical vertebra

c)

Twelfth thoracic vertebra

d)

First sacral vertebra

84.

The atlanto-occipital joint is an example of this joint

a)

Ball and socket

b)

Saddle

c)

Condyloid

d)

Trochoid

e)

Hinge

85.

At what age does a human have the greatest amount of fluid in the intervertebral disc?

a)

1 year

b)

4 years

c)

7 years

d)

10 years

86.

The sixth thoracic vertebra is characterized by:

a)

Its bifid spinous process

b)

Its massive body

c)

Having the superior articular processes face medially & the inferior articular processes face laterally

d)

It’s heart-shaped body

e)

It’s thick lamina

87.

While assessing the posture of a patient you note that the T2 spinous process in the thoracic region appears to be rotated to the left. Which bony landmark would you be using to make this approximation of the vertebral level?

a)

Inferior angle of the scapula

b)

Superior angle of the scapula

c)

Spine of the scapula

d)

Xiphoid process of the sternum

88.

All of the following statements describe the joints of Luschka, except:

a)

Are called uncovertebral joints

b)

Unique articulation seen in upper cervical vertebrae

c)

No synovium; so not considered as true joints

d)

Not present at birth; develop by end of first decade

89.

ULTT4

a)

AIN

b)

Musculocutaneous

c)

Radial

d)

Ulnar

90.

Test for expanding intracranial lesions:

a)

Romberg’s Test

b)

Neurological control test-Upper Limb

c)

Neurological control test-Lower Limb

d)

All of these

e)

B and C

91.

A relief of signs during shoulder abduction test is also known as:

a)

Braggard’s test

b)

Hyndman’s sign

c)

Brudzinski sign

d)

Linder sign

e)

Bakody’s sign

92.

The patient stands with the shoulders forward flexed to 90 degrees, elbows straight and forearms supinated, palms up and eyes closed, holding the position for 10 to 20 seconds. The test is considered positive if one arm slowly falls with simultaneous forearm pronation. The cause is thought to be diminished blood flow to the brainstem. This test is:

a)

Barre’s Test

b)

Naffziger Test

c)

Vertebral artery test

d)

All of these

93.

Using Passive Scapular Approximation Test, the patient lied prone while the examiner passively approximates the scapulae by lifting the shoulders up and back. Pain in the scapular area may be indicative of:

a)

Scapular fracture

b)

T1 nerve root problem

c)

TOS

d)

Long thoracic Nerve entrapment

94.

SLR 4. Movements listed: I. Hip IR, II. Hip flexion, III. PF, IV. Inversion, V. Knee Extension. Which combination applies?

a)

I and III

b)

II and IV

c)

I, II, III are correct

d)

Only IV is correct

e)

All of these are correct

95.

SLR 3. Movements listed: I. Hip IR, II. Hip Flexion, III. PF, IV. Knee flexion, V. Inversion. Which combination applies?

a)

I and III

b)

II and IV

c)

I, II, III are correct

d)

Only IV is correct

e)

NOTA

96.

The examiner finds the radial pulse and applies a downward traction on the test extremity while the patient’s neck is hyperextended and the head is rotated to the opposite side. Absence or disappearance of a pulse indicates a positive test for thoracic outlet syndrome. This test is also known as:

a)

Adson

b)

Halstead

c)

Allen’s

d)

Roos

e)

Wright’s Test

97.

The examiner flexes the patient’s elbow to 90 degrees while the shoulder is extended horizontally and rotated laterally. The patient then rotates the head away from the test side. The examiner palpates the radial pulse, which becomes absent (disappears) when the head is rotated away from the test side. The pulse disappearance indicates a positive test result for thoracic outlet syndrome. The test done in this fashion has also been called the:

a)

Adson

b)

Halstead

c)

Allen’s

d)

Roos

e)

Wright’s test

98.

SLR 5

a)

Tibial

b)

Sural

c)

Peroneal

d)

Disc prolapse

e)

Sciatic

99.

In this test, pt is supine as is asked to flex head on to his chest with his hand behind his head. The result is pain on the neck and lowback area, which is relieved by knee flexion.

a)

Brudzinki-Kernig’s Test

b)

Braggard’s Test

c)

Slump Test

d)

SLR Test

100.

You are examining a patient who appears to be over suspicious, and demonstrate delusions of persecution. Which of the following describe this personality type?

a)

Paranoid

b)

Catatonic

c)

Passive aggressive

d)

Passive dependent

101.

You are examining a patient who appears to be demonstrating sensory disturbance as a conversion reaction. Which of the following findings would lead you to suspect this?

a)

Stocking-like distribution of sensations over an extremity

b)

Dermatomal distribution of sensations changes

c)

No specific line of demarcation of symptoms

d)

Myotomal pattern of weakness

102.

You are examining a teenage girl who has been diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. Anorexia nervosa is a disorder that causes:

a)

Severe vomiting

b)

Severe weight gain

c)

Severe weight loss

d)

Severe diarrhea

103.

You are examining a patient with a diagnosis of Osteogenesis imperfecta (OI). Which of the following statements does not apply to this condition:

a)

OI is a rare congenital skeletal disease

b)

The bones are extremely fragile and multiple fractures are common

c)

The etiology of OI is unknown

d)

The bone fragility and the tendency for fractures is more severe following puberty

104.

While treating a patient in the ICU, you accidentally pull out the patient’s catheter. Which of the following problems can occur if a catheter becomes disconnected or accidentally removed?

a)

Hemorrhage

b)

Air emboli

c)

Catheter contamination

d)

All of the above

105.

You are working in an outpatient clinic and your supervisor tells you never to charge less than 6 charges per visit for all of your patients. You should:

a)

Schedule a time to speak to your supervisor about the fact that this policy is in conflict with the Code of Ethics

b)

Ignore your supervisor’s instructions and continue to charge your patients in a manner you feel is appropriate

c)

Resign from the clinic and report the supervisor to the state’s licensing board

d)

Carry out the supervisor’s instructions

106.

You are about to examine a patient in his room who was admitted to the hospital the day before with severe low back pain of unknown etiology. Upon reviewing the patient’s chart, you note that tests carried out earlier that day reveal he is at the end stage of pancreatic cancer. When you begin your examination, it is clear that the patient does not know he has cancer. If the patient asks you what his prognosis is, your BEST response would be to:

a)

Tell him to ask the nurse

b)

Tell him to ask his physician

c)

Tell him that everything will be fine

d)

Avoid answering the question

107.

Your patient had a fall while getting off the treadmill. With the exception of a slight cut and some bruising the patient was okay. The incident report of the event should include:

a)

The name of those involved, any witnessed, and what, when and where the incident occurred

b)

The cause of the incident, the corrective actions taken, and the names of the staff involved

c)

The witnesses and where it occurred

d)

This does not qualify for an incident report as the patient was not seriously hurt

108.

As the Director of a department you have noticed a recent spate of accidents in your department involving the exercise equipment. All of the following would be appropriate courses of action, except:

a)

Scheduling regular (at least annually) equipment’s inspections

b)

Reminding staff about the importance of adhering to policies and procedures addressing the maintenance of exercise equipment

c)

Safety training for staff in the use and care of the equipment

d)

All of the above would be appropriate steps to take

109.

You have been asked to develop an incontinence program in the local community. The correct sequence of steps to take includes:

a)

Needs assessment, program evaluation, program planning, program implementation

b)

Needs assessment, program planning, program implementation, program evaluation

c)

Program planning, needs assessment, program implementation, program evaluation

d)

Program planning, needs assessment, program evaluation, program implementation

110.

All of the following are recognized gait deviations resulting from disease, except:

a)

Tabetic

b)

Festinating

c)

Waddling

d)

Strutting

111.

All of the following are examples of autosomal recessive diseases except:

a)

Muscular dystrophy

b)

Cystic fibrosis

c)

Sickle cell anemia

112.

All of the following are examples of medical terminology seen in the NICU, except:

a)

ROP-Retinopathy of prematurity

b)

AGA-Appropriate for gestational age

c)

PDA-Patent ductus arteriosus

d)

All are examples of medical terminology seen in the NICU

113.

All of the following are considered to be functions of a healthy liver, except:

a)

Breakdown a bile

b)

Detoxification of numerous drugs and hormones

c)

Carbohydrate, protein, and fat metabolism

d)

Synthesis of clotting factors, and plasma proteins

114.

All of the following are signs and symptoms of Vitamin D deficiency except:

a)

Osteomalacia

b)

Muscular Dystrophy

c)

Keratomalacia

d)

Spontaneous fractures

115.

Which of the following tissues show the best conductivity electrical current?

a)

Skin

b)

Tendon

c)

Bone

d)

Muscle

116.

You are explaining what affects ultrasound has on membrane permeability to physical therapy student. Ultrasound has the following effect on membrane permeability:

a)

Produces no charge

b)

It alternates the permeability

c)

It decreases the permeability

d)

It increases the permeability

117.

You are reviewing a patient’s lab values in the medical record. Which of the following would you consider to be an abnormal lab value in an adult male?

a)

Arterial pH: 7.47.4

b)

Low density lipoprotein (LDL): 190mg/dl190\,\mathrm{mg/dl}

c)

140mg/dl140\,\mathrm{mg/dl}

d)

High density lipoprotein (HDL): 60mg/dl60\,\mathrm{mg/dl}

118.

All of the following are functions of the skin except:

a)

Secretion of oils that lubricate the skin

b)

Vitamin A synthesis

c)

Insulation

d)

Storage of nutrients

119.

All of the following are types of wound closures, except:

a)

Primary closure

b)

Secondary intention

c)

Delayed primary closure

d)

Delayed secondary intention

120.

All of the following are complications associated with electrical burns except:

a)

Renal failure

b)

Spinal cord damage

c)

Cardiac arrhythmias

d)

Liver failure

121.

All of the following are considered to be the correct open-packed position of the joint, except:

a)

Ulnohumeral: 70 degrees of flexion, 10 degrees supination

b)

Radiohumeral: 70 degrees of flexion, 35 degrees of supination

c)

Glenohumeral: 55 degrees of abduction, 30 degrees of horizontal adduction

d)

Distal radioulnar: 10 degrees of supination

122.

You are recommending an adjustment to patient’s prosthesis in order to increase knee extension. How would you position the foot component in relation to the socket to accomplish this?

a)

Anterior

b)

Posterior

c)

Medial

d)

Lateral

123.

You are assessing a patient for gait who is using an above knee prosthesis. You notice that the prosthetic knee appears unstable as you determine that knee flexion is occurring prematurely. After you have ruled out the prosthetic causes, which of the following patient causes could be at fault

a)

The amputee may have hip extensor weakness

b)

The amputee may be using too much force

c)

The amputee may have faulty walking habits

d)

None of these would explain the problem

124.

You are inspecting a patient’s wound and notice there is an excessive accumulation of exudate and a white appearance to the skin. What term would you use to describe this

a)

Hematoma

b)

Maceration

c)

Desiccation

d)

Seroma

125.

You are assessing a patient’s arm and shoulder strength. When assessing internal rotation at the shoulder, which of the following muscles would not be involved:

a)

Pectoralis major

b)

Infraspinatus

c)

Latissimus dorsi

d)

Subscapularis

126.

You are performing a manual muscle test of a patient’s hip. The patient reports pain with resisted hip external rotation. Which of the following muscles are not involved with hip external rotation:

a)

Sartorius

b)

Pectineus

c)

Quadratus femoris

d)

Gluteus Minimus

127.

A 60-year-old wheelchair bound patient is being discharged home from your hospital. In preparation for discharge, you visit the home and find he has 3 standard height steps going into his home, requiring a ramp to be constructed for his wheelchair. The recommended length of his ramp should be:

a)

252252 inches ( 2121 feet)

b)

7272 inches ( 66 feet)

c)

9696 inches ( 88 feet)

d)

240240 inches ( 2020 feet)

128.

You are examining a patient who sustained a left-sided injury to her back while playing tennis. She was serving the ball when she felt an immediate sharp pain in her right low back. She reports that her low back is stiff in the morning but that her pain eases after taking a shower. Based on the above information, the structure MOST likely involved is:

a)

Lumbar facet joint

b)

A spinal nerve root

c)

The transverse ligament

d)

A lumbar disc

129.

You read on an x-ray report that your patient has a problem with the pars interarticularis at the L5 level. A dysfunction of this part of the vertebra could possibly lead to:

a)

Spondylolisthesis with possible anterior slippage of the vertebral body

b)

Spondylolysis

c)

Spinal nerve root compression

d)

Disc herniation

130.

You are examining a 65-year-old male who has a long history of lumbar pain and a diagnosis of degenerative joint disease (DJD) of his lumbar facet joints. During the exam, the patient complained of numbness, paresthesia and weakness of his bilateral lower extremities which increase with lumbar extension positions. However, he also reports he can ride a stationary bike for 30 minutes without any problems. What would be your provisional diagnosis for this patient :

a)

Spinal stenosis

b)

Degenerative arthritis

c)

Spondylolysis

d)

Discal dysfunction

131.

You are examining a college soccer player who sustained a hyperextension knee injury during a game the previous day. The patient went to the emergency room of a local hospital and was diagnosed with “knee sprain”. You decide to test the patient’s anterior cruciate ligament of the involved knee. Which of the following tests would the best to use?

a)

Lachman

b)

McMurray

c)

Ober

d)

Ely

132.

You are examining a tennis player who was referred to physical therapy with progressive posterior shoulder pain and weakness of the shoulder abductors and external (lateral) rotators. You notice muscle atrophy superior and inferior to the scapular spine. The patient’s problem is MOST LIKELY attributable to damage involving the:

a)

Median Nerve

b)

Suprascapular nerve

c)

Spinal accessory nerve

d)

Long thoracic nerve

133.

During gait assessment of a patient who is beginning ambulation training with a right above-knee prosthesis, you observe that the heel rises excessively during early swing. Possible causes for this are:

a)

The prosthesis is too long

b)

Too much tension in the extension aid

c)

Weakness of the hip extension

d)

Inadequate knee friction or too little tension in the extension aid

134.

You are examining a 21 year-old man who suffered a gunshot wound and now exhibits Brown-Sequard syndrome. The classic signs and symptoms of this syndrome are:

a)

Preservation of perianal sensation, normal lower extremity reflexes, and active toe flexion

b)

Ipsilateral weakness and loss of proprioception and vibration below the lesion level with contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation

c)

Loss of motor function and pain and temperature sensation below the level of the lesion on both sides of the body

d)

Loss of upper extremity function with preservation of lower extremity function

135.

You are performing a gait assessment on a patient using a patellar-tendon bearing prosthesis, and you observe excessive knee flexion in early stance of the involved side. The most likely reason for this is:

a)

The socket is aligned too far posteriorly

b)

The socket is aligned too far forward or tilted anteriorly

c)

The foot component is outset too much

d)

The foot component is inset too much

136.

Independent community ambulation as the primary means of functional mobility is a realistic functional expectation for a patient with the highest level of spinal cord injury at:

a)

T9-10

b)

T12-L1

c)

T6-T9

d)

L4-L5

137.

You are performing a gait assessment on a patient using a below-knee prosthesis who demonstrates an uneven heel rise on the prosthetic side. What is the most likely cause of this?

a)

The hip extensors are weak

b)

Insufficient knee friction

c)

The prosthesis is externally rotated

d)

The prosthesis is not providing sufficient support

138.

What is the minimal blood glucose level that is considered too high for a diabetic patient to begin exercise?

a)

250mg/dl250\,\mathrm{mg/dl}

b)

400mg/dl400\,\mathrm{mg/dl}

c)

500mg/dl500\,\mathrm{mg/dl}

d)

609mg/dl609\,\mathrm{mg/dl}

139.

A patient is sitting at a table and performing elbow flexion exercises using a dumbbell as resistance. This exercise demonstrates what class of lever?

a)

First class

b)

Second class

c)

Third class

d)

Fourth class

140.

Which of the following tissues absorbs the least amount of an ultrasound beam at 1MHz1\,\mathrm{MHz} ?

a)

Blood

b)

Muscle

c)

Bone

d)

Skin

141.

You are examining a patient with a history of congestive heart failure. You notice that the patient has some peripheral edema. Which of the following factors are pathogenetic of this edema?

a)

Increased blood supply to the various organs and tissues

b)

Increased excretion of sodium by the kidneys

c)

Decrease cardiac output

d)

Decreased blood volume and elevated venous pressure

142.

You are presenting a departmental in-service on the lymphoid system. The lymphoid system is composed of all the following except:

a)

Bone marrow

b)

Thymus

c)

Liver

d)

Spleen

143.

You are examining a patient with a history of congestive heart disease. In addition to the heart, which of the following organs is most seriously affected due to the decreased blood supply that ensures?

a)

Lungs

b)

Kidneys

c)

Brain

d)

Spleen

144.

You are examining a patient with diabetes insipidus. Which of the following is a true statement?

a)

Diabetes insipidus is closely related to diabetes mellitus

b)

Diabetes insipidus is associated with pituitary disease

c)

Diabetes insipidus results from insulin deficiency

d)

Diabetes insipidus is a disorder of carbohydrate

145.

What structural change to the heart is associated with aortic stenosis?

a)

Hypertrophy to the left ventricle

b)

Hypertrophy of the right ventricle

c)

Hypertrophy of the right aorta

d)

Hypertrophy of the left aorta

146.

You are examining a patient with a history of congestive heart disease with right ventricular hypertrophy. You would expect to find all of the following in this patient except:

a)

Cyanosis

b)

Ascites

c)

Edema of the lower extremities

d)

Dyspnea

147.

You are presenting a departmental in-service about bronchiectasis. Which of the following are true statements?

a)

It affects the lower lobes of the lungs more commonly than the upper lobes

b)

It affects the right lung more frequently than the left

c)

It is a chronic bronchitis condition

d)

It is the result of emphysema

148.

You are reviewing the medical records of the patient you’re about to examine in the intensive care unit. According to the patient’s chart the patient suffered an intracranial bleed due to trauma. Which of the following is the most common type of intracranial bleeding due to trauma:

a)

Subdural hemorrhage

b)

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

c)

Intercranial bleed

d)

Extracranial bleed

149.

You are examining a patient with diagnosis of chronic disease of the lungs. Of the following, which is the most chronic disease of the lungs?

a)

Pulmonary tuberculosis

b)

Asthma

c)

Emphysema

d)

Bronchiectasis

150.

You are taking the history of a patient who reports that he becomes short of breath and wheezes when he runs, mows the lawn, or does other heavy work. Which of the following lung diseases do you suspect the patient has?

a)

Bronchial asthma

b)

Pulmonary emphysema

c)

Chronic bronchitis

d)

Acute bronchitis