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Worksheets

Page 1

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A startup team is struggling with coordination because members act independently without relying on each other’s outputs. Which key characteristic of a group should the team strengthen first to improve effectiveness?

a)

Interaction among members through routine updates

b)

Shared goals written in a mission statement

c)

Interdependence among members on complementary tasks

d)

Sense of belonging through social activities

2.

A faculty committee is created by the university to redesign the curriculum with a six-month deadline. Which type of group best fits this scenario, and why?

a)

Primary group because ties are long-term emotional

b)

Secondary group because objectives are family-like

c)

Informal group because colleagues meet by preference

d)

Formal group because it is created by an organization

3.

Two coworkers begin a lunchtime running club that later influences office wellness policies. What explains how this small social cluster gained organizational influence?

a)

Security needs convert to formal authority automatically

b)

Informal groups can shape norms and decisions indirectly

c)

Primary groups dissolve when goals become organizational

d)

Secondary groups provide no influence beyond projects

4.

A project manager must form a team for a complex analytics project that cannot be accomplished by a single analyst. Which recruitment pitch best aligns with a core reason people join groups?

a)

Join to achieve goals requiring combined expertise

b)

Join to gain recognition from external media

c)

Join to learn company procedures for orientation

d)

Join to avoid isolation during long sprints

5.

A family-owned business relies on trust built over decades. Which classification best captures this unit and what implication follows for conflict management?

a)

Secondary group; conflicts remain impersonal and brief

b)

Informal group; conflicts lack any emotional history

c)

Formal group; conflicts resolved only by policy

d)

Primary group; conflicts intertwine with enduring ties

6.

An organization wants members to internalize expected behaviors without constant supervision. Which group element should leadership codify and socialize to achieve this?

a)

Belonging and identity rituals

b)

Security and safety provisions

c)

Shared goals and quarterly targets

d)

Norms and roles clarifying expectations

7.

A temporary cross-functional task force forms to launch a product within three months. Which label and rationale are most accurate?

a)

Secondary group due to larger, goal-oriented, temporary focus

b)

Formal group due to friendship-based membership

c)

Primary group due to small, close-knit, long-term bonds

d)

Informal group due to spontaneous social interaction

8.

A new hire seeks faster skill growth and chooses a mentoring circle instead of self-study. Which joining motive is primarily at play, and how does it support development?

a)

Security; reduces risk of project failure

b)

Power; aggregates authority over decisions

c)

Status; increases public recognition quickly

d)

Learning; enables exchange of knowledge and skills

9.

A manager notices low participation in meetings despite clear objectives. Which intervention best targets the underlying group dynamic to raise engagement?

a)

Increase interaction channels and peer dialogue

b)

Shorten meetings to reduce time pressure

c)

Replace members to change the group category

d)

Issue stricter performance metrics and penalties

10.

A community volunteer network wants members to feel identified with the cause and stay committed. Which combination would most likely build that identity?

a)

Interdependence and individual competition

b)

Shared goals and visible belonging cues

c)

Security provisions and private insurance

d)

Informal chats and unstructured agendas

11.

A newly formed cross-functional team is polite but unsure about roles. As leader, which action best accelerates progress to the next stage of development?

a)

Define clear goals and clarify responsibilities

b)

Reduce meetings to avoid early conflicts

c)

Increase supervision and control of tasks

d)

Encourage competition to reveal strong leaders

12.

Two months in, your team debates ownership of tasks and shows emotional reactions. Which leadership response most effectively reduces dysfunction while maintaining momentum?

a)

Split the team into smaller isolated groups

b)

Facilitate structured conflict resolution sessions

c)

Delay decisions until emotions subside naturally

d)

Rotate leaders weekly to diffuse tensions

13.

A project has stabilized with shared norms and rising trust. Which metric best validates that the team is moving into the norming stage rather than performing?

a)

Quantified gains in unit cost efficiency

b)

Minimal need for managerial intervention

c)

Consistent delivery ahead of schedule

d)

Increased peer feedback and aligned workflows

14.

You inherit a high-output team that hits targets with little oversight. A new complex task is added. What intervention best sustains the performing stage?

a)

Add detailed daily checklists for control

b)

Protect autonomy while aligning on outcomes

c)

Reassign roles to refresh team dynamics

d)

Introduce frequent top-down status reviews

15.

At project close, a manager plans a retrospective with recognition moments and lessons learned. Which primary stage objective does this support?

a)

Reestablishing initial team expectations

b)

Escalating unresolved conflicts to leaders

c)

Rapid reallocation of unused resources

d)

Reflection and evaluation before dissolution

16.

Which scenario most clearly risks regression from norming back to storming?

a)

Transparent decision rules reduce uncertainty

b)

Increased trust enables peer coaching

c)

Stable processes deepen shared practices

d)

Ambiguous new priorities disrupt role clarity

17.

A startup forms a product squad with heavy dependence on the founder. What is the most strategic action to intentionally reduce that dependence?

a)

Codify roles and empower peer decision rights

b)

Centralize approvals through the founder only

c)

Delay role decisions until product-market fit

d)

Limit cross-functional collaboration initially

18.

During storming, power struggles are common. Which facilitation technique best channels disagreement into productive norms?

a)

Assign a single arbiter to decide all disputes

b)

Silence dissent to maintain short-term peace

c)

Allow unmoderated debates until fatigue ends

d)

Create a working agreement using consensus

19.

A team shows high productivity and collaboration, but a key member resigns. Which plan best preserves performing-level outcomes?

a)

Redistribute tasks randomly to everyone

b)

Cancel retrospectives to save project time

c)

Pause work until a full replacement is hired

d)

Implement knowledge handover and role backfills

20.

Which practice best increases group cohesiveness without creating groupthink risks?

a)

Limit information sharing across functions

b)

Foster trust while inviting dissenting views

c)

Enforce unanimity on all major decisions

d)

Reward conformity over constructive critique

21.

A project team wants to improve group cohesiveness without inflating costs. Which action most directly targets a listed driver of cohesiveness?

a)

Recruit diverse specialists across departments

b)

Reduce team size to a smaller core unit

c)

Rotate members frequently between projects

d)

Set individual bonuses unrelated to team goals

22.

A leadership workshop claims that fostering similarity among members always improves performance. Using the concept of cohesiveness, which critique is most defensible?

a)

Similarity eliminates external threats to project success

b)

Similarity mostly reduces coordination and motivation

c)

Similarity can raise satisfaction yet entrench groupthink risks

d)

Similarity ensures innovation by broadening perspectives

23.

Two sales teams face a new competitor. Team A becomes tightly knit and adapts quickly; Team B becomes cohesive but resists change. Which explanation best reconciles these outcomes?

a)

External threats can boost cohesion while risking rigidity

b)

Leadership quality is irrelevant when threats are present

c)

External threats always decrease cohesiveness and agility

d)

Cohesiveness has only positive effects on performance

24.

A manager must balance positive and negative effects of cohesiveness. Which policy best preserves benefits while mitigating downsides?

a)

Reward unanimous decisions without justification

b)

Schedule premortems and invite devil’s advocacy

c)

Discourage dissent to maintain coordination

d)

Increase group size to reduce satisfaction

25.

Which scenario most clearly signals the symptom ‘illusion of invulnerability’ in groupthink?

a)

Leaders require risk logs for critical launches

b)

The team delays approval pending external review

c)

Members dismiss warnings because past launches succeeded

d)

Analysts prepare alternative forecasts for scenarios

26.

A product council unanimously approves a plan after a brief meeting. Later, you learn dissenters stayed silent to avoid conflict. Which groupthink symptom was most directly involved?

a)

Pressure on dissenters post-decision

b)

Collective rationalization of evidence

c)

Illusion of invulnerability bias

d)

Self-censorship during deliberations

27.

Which practice most effectively reduces ‘pressure on dissenters’ without destroying cohesion?

a)

Tying pay to unanimous consensus rates

b)

Publicly ranking peers by team loyalty

c)

Anonymous voting before open discussion

d)

Banning disagreement during meetings

28.

A startup touts rapid decisions by a small, tight team. Investors worry about overlooked alternatives. Which mitigation preserves speed yet challenges consensus?

a)

Ignore external competition signals

b)

Adopt consensus as the only approval rule

c)

Expand the team with random hires

d)

Rotate a red team to critique proposals

29.

Which combination best matches factors that increase cohesiveness listed in the material?

a)

Small size, shared success, effective leadership

b)

Frequent turnover, internal rivalries, autonomy

c)

Individual incentives, loose goals, remote members

d)

Large size, diverse values, weak leadership

30.

A division shows high satisfaction, better coordination, and low absenteeism—but also conformity pressure. Which diagnosis best explains this pattern?

a)

Moderate cohesiveness with no clear effects

b)

High cohesiveness with emergent groupthink risks

c)

Weak leadership with unrelated team dynamics

d)

Low cohesiveness with independent work norms

31.

A product team shows illusion of unanimity, few members dominate, and options are not critically evaluated. Which immediate step would most directly counter these patterns and improve decision quality?

a)

Rotate a devil’s advocate role each meeting

b)

Shorten meetings to speed decisions

c)

Increase team size by three members

d)

Adopt majority voting without debate

32.

A manager fears lack of creativity and ignored alternatives in a merger plan. Which combined actions best reduce groupthink while preserving efficiency?

a)

Invite external opinions and set a critique segment

b)

Use anonymous voting without prior discussion

c)

Defer all decisions to the most senior member

d)

Ban disagreements and enforce strict consensus

33.

An executive team wants higher quality decisions with broad acceptance but worries about time cost. Which approach balances the advantages of group decision making with its main disadvantage?

a)

Skip evaluation to meet deadlines

b)

Time-box discussions with structured evaluation

c)

Allow free discussion without time limits

d)

Let two members decide for the group

34.

During a safety review, the leader notices silence interpreted as agreement. What practice should be instituted to surface hidden dissent and avoid illusion of unanimity?

a)

Close discussion once first solution appears

b)

Explicitly request counterarguments from each member

c)

Record silence as a vote in favor

d)

Restrict comments to subject-matter experts

35.

A startup board fears dominance by a few members. Which facilitation plan most directly addresses this risk while leveraging diverse viewpoints?

a)

Pre-assign decisions to founding members

b)

Round-robin speaking and rotating facilitation

c)

Require unanimous agreement before speaking

d)

Prioritize speakers by seniority and tenure

36.

When should a devil’s advocate be appointed versus seeking external opinions during strategic planning?

a)

Use devil’s advocate randomly; external opinions are generally unnecessary

b)

Use devil’s advocate after final vote; invite outsiders only for publicity

c)

Use devil’s advocate to enforce consensus; avoid outsiders to prevent bias

d)

Use devil’s advocate for internal critique; invite outsiders for fresh perspectives

37.

A committee is rushing to meet a deadline and ignores alternatives. Which structured step most effectively reintroduces critical evaluation without derailing progress?

a)

Allocate a fixed segment to explore risks and options

b)

Delay work until more members are hired

c)

Adopt first idea that seems workable

d)

Remove time limits and continue debating

38.

Which scenario best illustrates the risk–benefit tradeoff of group decision making?

a)

Improved speed but fewer perspectives considered

b)

Broader acceptance but slower due to coordination

c)

Faster decisions with reduced employee input

d)

Lower time cost and minimal need for evaluation

39.

To reduce the risk of groupthink during product brainstorming, which ground rule best preserves the free flow of ideas while ensuring later rigor?

a)

Separate idea generation from later critical review

b)

End the session once consensus emerges

c)

Critique ideas immediately during listing phase

d)

Limit contributions to two ideas per person

40.

A cross-functional team wants diverse viewpoints without sacrificing decision acceptance. Which meeting design supports both goals?

a)

Skip voting and let the chair decide

b)

Restrict participants to the core technical group

c)

Allow open talk with no final convergence

d)

Invite varied roles and plan a synthesis vote

41.

A cross-functional team must choose a method to generate many ideas quickly while postponing evaluation. Which technique best fits this need?

a)

Majority voting using simple majority rule

b)

Nominal Group Technique with structured ranking

c)

Consensus decision making focusing on collaboration

d)

Brainstorming with no criticism during idea generation

42.

A manager wants equal participation, first collecting ideas individually, then discussing as a group before prioritizing. Which approach aligns with this plan?

a)

Majority voting emphasizing speed over depth

b)

Consensus decision making acceptable to all

c)

Delphi Technique with anonymous expert rounds

d)

Nominal Group Technique with individual idea generation

43.

You must gather expert judgments on market entry anonymously across several rounds to move toward agreement. Which method is most appropriate?

a)

Delphi Technique using multiple anonymous rounds

b)

Brainstorming enforcing no criticism rule

c)

Consensus decision making stressing collaboration

d)

Majority voting resolving by majority rule

44.

A leadership retreat wants a decision that everyone can support, even if not everyone’s first choice. Which decision rule should they adopt?

a)

Consensus decision making acceptable to all members

b)

Nominal Group Technique with silent ideation

c)

Majority voting that may ignore minority views

d)

Delphi Technique relying on anonymous experts

45.

A product council needs a quick choice among three features but worries minority perspectives might be overlooked. Which method fits their speed goal yet has the cited risk?

a)

Delphi rounds cultivate anonymous expert input

b)

Brainstorming focuses solely on idea fluency

c)

Consensus process ensures buy-in and inclusivity

d)

Majority voting is fast but may ignore minority views

46.

Lewin framed behavior B as a function of person P and environment E. Which application best demonstrates using this formula in managing teams?

a)

Assigning anonymous surveys to experts

b)

Redesigning workspace norms to shift team behavior

c)

Counting votes to accelerate decisions

d)

Screening only for high individual motivation

47.

A new hire shows bias favoring her department and stereotyping another unit after a merger. Which theory most directly explains this pattern?

a)

Social Identity Theory about in-groups and out-groups

b)

Delphi Technique about anonymous expert views

c)

Field Theory emphasizing forces in group fields

d)

Realistic Conflict Theory about scarce resources

48.

Two divisions compete over limited R&D funds, escalating hostility. Leaders set a shared innovation goal requiring pooled resources, which reduces tension. Which theory predicts this?

a)

Realistic Conflict Theory using superordinate goals

b)

Consensus Decision Making requiring full agreement

c)

Field Theory centering perception and motivation

d)

Nominal Group Technique structuring discussions

49.

You are advising a project team on sequencing methods: first, generate many options without evaluation; next, narrow choices through structured ranking and discussion; finally, adopt a broadly supported solution. Which ordered combination is most coherent?

a)

Brainstorming, Nominal Group Technique, Consensus

b)

Delphi Technique, Majority Voting, Brainstorming

c)

Consensus, Realistic Conflict Theory, Majority

d)

Majority Voting, Brainstorming, Social Identity

50.

A CEO wants to minimize prejudice between two departments after a contentious reorganization. Choose the most evidence-based first step drawing from the listed theories.

a)

Create superordinate goals requiring interdepartmental cooperation

b)

Hold faster majority votes to decide resource allocations

c)

Ban criticism during idea generation sessions

d)

Rely on anonymous expert panels distanced from staff

51.

A project team shows strong emotional bonds but tolerates shortcuts that violate safety protocols. Using the dimensions of cohesion, which diagnosis best guides an intervention plan?

a)

Strengthen task cohesion by realigning goal commitments

b)

Reduce overall cohesion by rotating all members frequently

c)

Increase emotional cohesion through team-building retreats

d)

Enhance normative cohesion with stricter dress code rules

52.

A manager wants higher performance by boosting cohesion. What condition must be ensured to avoid a performance decline?

a)

Leaders exercise unquestioned authority over choices

b)

Members suppress individuality to reduce conflict

c)

Group norms explicitly support productivity outcomes

d)

Cohesion remains purely emotional without norms

53.

Two sales teams are equally cohesive. Team A upholds rigorous client-ethics norms; Team B normalizes aggressive misrepresentation. Predict performance and satisfaction patterns.

a)

Both teams similar performance but lower satisfaction

b)

Team A higher performance; Team B high satisfaction but reduced performance

c)

Both teams higher performance due to cohesion effects

d)

Team A lower satisfaction; Team B higher performance

54.

Design a policy to limit groupthink without destroying cohesion. Which combined approach is most defensible?

a)

Centralize authority to accelerate unanimous decisions

b)

Amplify loyalty pledges and punish public disagreement

c)

Establish dissent norms and rotate devil’s advocate roles

d)

Require emotional bonding events every decision cycle

55.

A product committee rapidly reaches consensus after a senior executive signals a preferred option. Which psychological mechanism most likely drove the decision?

a)

Obedience to authority in hierarchical contexts

b)

Cognitive dissonance after pilot test failures

c)

Emotional cohesion developed during offsites

d)

Normative cohesion through shared jargon

56.

Members privately doubt a merger but publicly endorse it to avoid social costs. Which mechanism best explains their public support?

a)

Task cohesion strengthening merger goal commitment

b)

Motivated reasoning driven by bonus incentives

c)

Normative cohesion enforcing procedural compliance

d)

Conformity pressure creating alignment with peers

57.

After choosing a risky strategy, a team selectively interprets data to defend it. Which mechanism maintains the decision?

a)

Motivated reasoning sustaining prior commitments

b)

Normative cohesion punishing late submissions

c)

Emotional cohesion increasing social attraction

d)

Task cohesion reallocating resources efficiently

58.

An analyst is asked to measure groupthink across departments. Which challenge should the analyst anticipate when designing metrics?

a)

Collecting performance data is prohibited legally

b)

Operationalizing groupthink reliably is difficult

c)

Norms cannot be observed in organizational settings

d)

Measuring cohesion requires impossible experiments

59.

A startup worries that tight-knit culture could harm innovation. Which risk most directly connects cohesion to reduced creativity?

a)

Task cohesion diverts attention from market research

b)

Normative cohesion eliminates all informal networks

c)

Excessive cohesion suppresses individuality and dissent

d)

Emotional cohesion lowers commitment to deadlines

60.

Two divisions compete intensely. Leadership invests in internal bonding rituals that heighten in-group loyalty. What unintended outcome may escalate between divisions?

a)

Authority effects will neutralize peer conformity

b)

Groupthink will immediately disappear organization-wide

c)

Cross-divisional collaboration will naturally increase

d)

Intergroup hostility may intensify under high cohesion

61.

A leadership team faces a tight deadline and must choose between speed and thorough analysis. Which dual-process approach best balances accuracy with time constraints?

a)

Begin with System 1, then validate using System 2

b)

Rely solely on System 1 to maintain momentum

c)

Freeze decisions until full consensus naturally emerges

d)

Outsource to external analysts to avoid bias entirely

62.

A startup board is drifting toward extreme options after an energizing pitch. Which psychological variable is most likely at play, and what intervention fits best?

a)

Group polarization; introduce dialectical inquiry

b)

Social facilitation; assign more observers

c)

Minority influence; increase anonymous voting

d)

Risky shift; reward faster decisions

63.

Under what condition is System 1 most likely to dominate group decision behavior, and what is a prudent managerial response?

a)

Ambiguous data; prohibit intuitive judgments

b)

High time pressure; add a rapid devil’s advocate pass

c)

Low stakes; require exhaustive external audits

d)

Stable environment; eliminate timeboxing entirely

64.

A team lead wants to reduce conformity bias without slowing the meeting excessively. Which technique aligns with that goal?

a)

Open brainstorming without constraints

b)

Devil’s advocacy with structured dissent

c)

Dialectical inquiry across all units

d)

Stepladder with full team inclusion

65.

A product council fears dominant voices are silencing others. Which method strategically counters dominance while preserving decision quality?

a)

Anonymous surveys after final decision

b)

Time-limited pitches without Q&A

c)

Unmoderated debate with open-floor rules

d)

Stepladder technique with sequential inclusion

66.

An R&D group wants to surface competing solutions rigorously before committing resources. Which approach provides the strongest structured comparison?

a)

Dialectical inquiry with opposing analyses

b)

Devil’s advocate with brief critique

c)

Risky shift to accelerate consensus

d)

Social facilitation through larger audience

67.

Which pairing correctly matches variable and expected effect on group performance?

a)

Minority influence; elimination of all conflict

b)

Social facilitation; improved simple task performance

c)

Risky shift; movement toward safer choices

d)

Group polarization; reduced extremity of views

68.

A manager wants to reduce social pressure and evaluation apprehension in idea generation. Which implementation fits best?

a)

Adopt open voting with public tallies

b)

Use computer-mediated decision processes

c)

Expand in-person debate audience size

d)

Mandate video-on for all participants

69.

In which practice area would structured group decision tools most directly support leadership assessment and team dynamics work?

a)

Educational psychology for solitary study

b)

Organizational psychology in workplace settings

c)

Social psychology for laboratory only

d)

Clinical psychology in individual therapy

70.

A minority subgroup consistently presents evidence challenging the majority’s plan. What outcome should a skilled facilitator anticipate if the process is well-managed?

a)

Total elimination of dissenting viewpoints

b)

Minority influence leading to refined decisions

c)

Complete reversal to extreme positions

d)

Inevitable escalation to groupthink patterns

71.

A manager wants a team that can solve novel problems quickly. Which psychological feature should she prioritize when composing the team?

a)

Hierarchical control with strict supervision

b)

Goal interdependence across complementary roles

c)

Task interdependence with redundant skills

d)

Isolated specialists with narrow mandates

e)

Individual autonomy with minimal overlap

72.

Two departments merge. To reduce conflict and increase coordination, which design best reflects a team as a social system?

a)

Anonymous feedback with zero interdependence

b)

Shared mental models with mutual accountability

c)

Independent KPIs with personal incentives

d)

Solo targets with private information

e)

Rotating leaders with no shared norms

73.

A startup’s product squad shares outcomes but not tasks. Bugs persist due to handoffs. What change best improves performance?

a)

Decrease goal interdependence by splitting objectives

b)

Increase task interdependence via cross-functional pairing

c)

Eliminate shared norms to boost creativity

d)

Replace mutual accountability with individual scoring

e)

Add more specialists with narrower responsibilities

74.

A new team suffers from social loafing. Which practice most directly counters it while fitting team principles?

a)

Reduce interaction to minimize coordination

b)

Assign hidden tasks to surprise members

c)

Establish mutual accountability with clear peer review

d)

Outsource quality checks to external auditors

e)

Increase individual bonuses with private rankings

75.

Which scenario best demonstrates collective efficacy in action?

a)

Leader alone is confident about project delivery

b)

Stakeholders are optimistic without team buy-in

c)

Members believe together they can hit the sprint goal

d)

Each member thinks only their task will succeed

e)

Team doubts capacity but hopes to be lucky

76.

A leader wants to enhance members’ identity with the team. Which intervention aligns with the theory mentioned?

a)

Reward only individual output to drive competition

b)

Build a strong team identity per Social Identity Theory

c)

Isolate workstations to avoid affiliation

d)

Prohibit symbols or narratives about the team

e)

Rotate membership weekly to prevent cliques

77.

Under deadline pressure, which practice most plausibly raises effort through social facilitation?

a)

Randomized task assignment without goals

b)

Visible progress boards and joint goal rituals

c)

Silent mode work with no interactions

d)

Private reports sent only to the CEO

e)

Hidden work streams with secret metrics

78.

A firm wants better decisions from its cross-functional group. Which mechanism provides the stated organizational benefit?

a)

Limit data sources to internal dashboards

b)

Leverage cognitive diversity during deliberation

c)

Centralize choices to a single expert

d)

Shorten meetings by preapproved templates

e)

Ignore dissent to reach speedier consensus

79.

New members feel unsafe raising risks. Which action most directly increases psychological safety and stress buffering?

a)

Mandated overtime to meet milestones

b)

Anonymous surveys without follow-up

c)

Strict penalties for missed predictions

d)

Solo postmortems without discussion

e)

Peer support norms and structured debriefs

80.

To build capability fast, which approach best uses learning and feedback mechanisms noted?

a)

Individual study without shared sessions

b)

Observational learning with timely feedback loops

c)

Random trials without reflection cycles

d)

One-time lectures with no practice tasks

e)

Annual reviews with delayed comments

81.

A manager wants outcomes that exceed the sum of individual contributions. Which structure best fits this requirement?

a)

Work groups with neutral synergy

b)

Work teams with positive synergy

c)

Work groups with negative synergy

d)

Informal groups with loose synergy

82.

A unit emphasizes individual goals and limited interaction. What performance pattern should the manager reasonably expect?

a)

More than sum of individual efforts

b)

Exactly the sum of individual efforts

c)

Less than the sum due to overload

d)

Unpredictable beyond normal variance

83.

Two divisions must jointly deliver an innovative product under one shared goal and mutual accountability. Which arrangement is most suitable?

a)

Work team with shared team goals

b)

Work group with individual goals

c)

Loose coalition of contractors

d)

Committee with advisory goals

84.

A director needs constant member interaction to solve interdependent tasks. Which choice aligns with that need?

a)

Work team with high continuous interaction

b)

Work group with limited interaction

c)

Virtual community with sporadic contact

d)

Task force with annual check-ins

85.

Which example best illustrates the psychological distinction between a team and a group?

a)

Team sharing collective identity

b)

Group sharing cafeteria space

c)

Team sharing hardware resources

d)

Group sharing a budget ledger

86.

A plant forms a temporary unit to analyze a bottleneck and improve a workflow, disbanding after fixes. What type is this?

a)

Problem-solving team

b)

Self-managed team

c)

Project team

d)

Virtual team

87.

An organization wants a unit that plans, organizes, and controls its own work without direct supervision. What should it establish?

a)

Self-managed team

b)

Project team

c)

Work group

d)

Cross-functional team

88.

A challenge arises when team members collaborate entirely online. Which issue requires deliberate strategies to address?

a)

Trust and cohesion

b)

Budget approvals

c)

Office space allocation

d)

Compliance audits

89.

A company combines marketing, engineering, and finance members to address a complex launch. What team design is this?

a)

Cross-functional team

b)

Problem-solving team

c)

Virtual team

d)

Self-managed team

90.

Leadership needs a unit formed for a specific task with a defined timeline. Which option best matches?

a)

Standing committee

b)

Work group

c)

Virtual community

d)

Project team

91.

A manager wants to boost team effectiveness for a complex project with tight deadlines. Which intervention best aligns with Hackman’s model to provide direction without micromanaging?

a)

Announce a compelling direction with clear priorities

b)

Set only high-level vision and remove all milestones

c)

Increase daily oversight with task-level instructions

d)

Rotate leaders weekly to avoid decision bottlenecks

92.

A startup is experiencing miscommunication between engineering and marketing, causing delays. Using the IPO model, which action targets the Processes component most directly?

a)

Hire members with stronger technical skills profiles

b)

Redefine team mission to a broader market scope

c)

Provide larger performance-based cash incentives

d)

Establish structured cross-functional communication rituals

93.

A newly formed team lacks trust and coordination. Which bundle of Inputs would most likely improve later Outputs in the IPO model?

a)

Detailed KPIs and expanded market segmentation

b)

Sales targets and quarterly bonus multipliers

c)

Aggressive timelines and stricter budget controls

d)

Personality diversity and shared leadership capability

94.

A team struggles with unclear roles and redundant work. Which Hackman requirement addresses this root cause most directly?

a)

Enabling structure with well-defined role design

b)

Supportive context with richer reward systems

c)

Compelling direction with inspiring slogans

d)

Expert coaching with periodic motivational talks

95.

A department wants to sustain high performance over time while avoiding burnout. Which Output reflects success in the IPO model beyond task completion?

a)

Satisfaction and member well-being metrics

b)

More frequent product release cadence

c)

Higher volume of tasks processed

d)

Lower unit cost per deliverable

96.

Two teams have similar skills, but one consistently adapts to change and shares feedback effectively. Which quality most plausibly explains the performance gap?

a)

Strict adherence to original plans

b)

Individual recognition over shared credit

c)

Cooperation combined with adaptability

d)

Task specialization without cross-training

97.

During a conflict over resource allocation, which behavior best reflects a good team player while protecting team relationships?

a)

Avoid discussion to preserve short-term harmony

b)

Use conflict management skills to reach integrative solutions

c)

Assert positional power to secure needed assets

d)

Escalate immediately to executive arbitration

98.

A project lead wants to develop a psychologically safe environment. Which action is most consistent with expert coaching in Hackman’s model?

a)

Reduce meeting frequency to increase task time

b)

Provide timely developmental feedback on team processes

c)

Authorize overtime to accelerate near-term delivery

d)

Assign stretch goals without additional support

99.

A team meets deadlines but members feel undervalued. Which single behavior would most directly improve collective motivation and cohesion?

a)

Focusing recognition on top individual performers

b)

Shifting performance reviews to stack ranking

c)

Willingness to share credit and responsibility

d)

Setting more ambitious quarterly OKRs

100.

Which change would best align the organization with a supportive context in Hackman’s model for a data analytics team?

a)

Reduce the number of team members by two

b)

Eliminate peer feedback to limit conflict

c)

Provide tools, information access, and recognition systems

d)

Set ambiguous objectives to spur creativity