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Pathology MCQ

Total questions: 48

Worksheet time: 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Homeostasis can be defined as:

a)

Functional changes caused by a disease

b)

An unbalanced state, out of equilibrium

c)

Body's ability to regulate its inner environment

d)

Exaggeration of an original immune response

e)

None of the above

2.

The role of kidney in body homeostasis includes:

a)

Regulation of blood water levels

b)

Maintenance of salt and ion levels

c)

Regulation of blood pH

d)

Excretion of urea and other wastes

e)

All of the above

3.

All of the following are connective tissue cells EXCEPT:

a)

Fibroblasts

b)

Histiocytes

c)

Basophils

d)

Mast cells

e)

Fat cells

4.

The most commonly used fixative in histopathology labs is:

a)

Zenker’s solution

b)

Alcohol

c)

Bouin’s solution

d)

10% formalin

e)

None of the above

5.

Which of the following stains the nucleus blue?

a)

Eosin

b)

Hematoxylin

c)

Giemsa stain

d)

Ziehl–Neelsen stain

e)

Periodic acid–Schiff (PAS)

6.

Which of the following stains the cytoplasm red?

a)

Eosin

b)

Hematoxylin

c)

Giemsa stain

d)

Ziehl–Neelsen stain

e)

Periodic acid–Schiff (PAS)

7.

Best histochemical stain to confirm tuberculosis is:

a)

Ziehl–Neelsen stain

b)

Congo red

c)

Periodic acid–Schiff (PAS)

d)

Prussian blue

e)

Masson trichrome

8.

The most important method in diagnosis of tumors is:

a)

Fine needle aspiration

b)

Exfoliative cytology

c)

Biopsy

d)

Autopsy

e)

Tumor markers

9.

Preferred stain for exfoliative cytology is:

a)

Methylene blue

b)

Giemsa stain

c)

Methyl violet

d)

Masson trichrome

e)

Papanicolaou stain

10.

Cell membrane functions include:

a)

Cell movement

b)

Phagocytosis

c)

Adhesiveness between cells

d)

Presence of hormone receptors

e)

All of the above

11.

The mechanism of disease is termed:

a)

Pathology

b)

Etiology

c)

Pathogenesis

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

12.

Absence of disease activity in chronic disease is called:

a)

Remission

b)

Relapse

c)

Exacerbation

d)

Regression

e)

None of the above

13.

Known disease with multiple characteristic abnormalities is called:

a)

Disorder

b)

Lesion

c)

Syndrome

d)

Chronic disease

e)

All of the above

14.

The most common cause of ischemia is:

a)

Embolism

b)

Bacterial infection

c)

Acute inflammation

d)

Chronic inflammation

e)

All of the above

15.

Correct definition of necrosis is:

a)

Reaction of living tissue against an irritant

b)

Programmed cell death

c)

Localized tissue death in a living body

d)

Total body death

e)

Intracellular accumulation of fat

16.

Feature of reversible cell injury includes:

a)

Pyknosis

b)

Cloudy swelling

c)

Karyolysis

d)

Karyorrhexis

e)

All of the above

17.

Preserved outline with loss of details (“city of ghosts”) is seen in:

a)

Fat necrosis

b)

Liquefactive necrosis

c)

Caseation necrosis

d)

Coagulative necrosis

e)

Fibrinoid necrosis

18.

NOT included among mechanisms of cell injury:

a)

ATP depletion

b)

Mitochondrial damage

c)

Cell membrane rupture

d)

Reduced cytoplasmic calcium

e)

DNA damage

19.

Pyknosis means:

a)

Nuclear fragmentation

b)

Fading of nucleus

c)

Small shrunken nucleus

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

20.

Karyorrhexis means:

a)

Small shrunken nucleus

b)

Nuclear fragmentation

c)

Fading of nucleus

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

21.

Karyolysis means:

a)

Nuclear fragmentation

b)

Fading of nucleus

c)

Condensation of nuclear chromatin

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

22.

Coagulative necrosis is usually present in:

a)

Rheumatic myocarditis

b)

Viral myocarditis

c)

Infective endocarditis

d)

Serofibrinous pericarditis

e)

Myocardial infarction

23.

Necrosis typically seen in myocardial infarction:

a)

Fat necrosis

b)

Coagulative necrosis

c)

Caseation necrosis

d)

Liquefactive necrosis

e)

Gangrenous necrosis

24.

Necrosis typically seen in kidney infarction:

a)

Fat necrosis

b)

Caseation necrosis

c)

Coagulative necrosis

d)

Liquefactive necrosis

e)

Gangrenous necrosis

25.

Necrosis typically seen in tuberculous lesions:

a)

Coagulative necrosis

b)

Liquefactive necrosis

c)

Caseation necrosis

d)

Fat necrosis

e)

None of the above

26.

Tuberculosis is a good example of:

a)

Fat necrosis

b)

Liquefactive necrosis

c)

Coagulative necrosis

d)

Fibrinoid necrosis

e)

Caseation necrosis

27.

Most common example of caseation necrosis is:

a)

Tuberculosis

b)

Sarcoidosis

c)

Bilharziasis

d)

Leprosy

e)

Actinomycosis

28.

Necrosis seen in pyogenic abscess:

a)

Coagulative necrosis

b)

Liquefactive necrosis

c)

Caseation necrosis

d)

Fat necrosis

e)

Fibrinoid necrosis

29.

Necrosis that is grossly firm and opaque:

a)

Coagulative necrosis

b)

Liquefactive necrosis

c)

Caseation necrosis

d)

Fat necrosis

e)

Fibrinoid necrosis

30.

Fibrinoid necrosis is usually present in:

a)

Rheumatic myocarditis

b)

Viral myocarditis

c)

Infective endocarditis

d)

Serofibrinous pericarditis

e)

All of the above

31.

Best example of pathological apoptosis:

a)

Left ventricle in hypertension

b)

Councilman bodies in viral hepatitis

c)

Lymph node in acute inflammation

d)

Breast after puberty

e)

All of the above

32.

Diabetes mellitus is most likely to exhibit:

a)

Fatty liver

b)

Hepatocellular carcinoma

c)

Viral hepatitis

d)

Liver cell failure

e)

All of the above

33.

Fatty change means:

a)

Conversion of protein into fat

b)

Conversion of carbohydrates into fat

c)

Accumulation of fat in adipocytes

d)

Accumulation of fat in parenchymal cells

e)

Abnormal proliferation of fat cells

34.

The commonest site of fatty change is:

a)

Kidney

b)

Spleen

c)

Liver

d)

Heart

e)

Lung

35.

Adaptive change with highest chance of malignant transformation:

a)

Hyperplasia

b)

Hypertrophy

c)

Dysplasia

d)

Metaplasia

e)

None of the above

36.

Left ventricular wall thickening results from:

a)

Hyperplasia

b)

Hypoplasia

c)

Metaplasia

d)

Hypertrophy

e)

Dysplasia

37.

Increase in size of cells due to increased workload is called:

a)

Hyperplasia

b)

Hypertrophy

c)

Atrophy

d)

Metaplasia

e)

All of the above

38.

Hypertrophy is defined as increase in organ size due to:

a)

Increase in cell number

b)

Increase in cell size

c)

Decrease in cell size

d)

Decrease in cell number

e)

None of the above

39.

Common example of hypertrophy:

a)

Gravid uterus

b)

Skeletal muscle in exercise

c)

Left ventricle in hypertension

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

40.

Gravid uterus is an example of:

a)

Hyperplasia

b)

Hypoplasia

c)

Metaplasia

d)

Hypertrophy

e)

Dysplasia

41.

Increase in number of cells due to increased demand is called:

a)

Hyperplasia

b)

Hypertrophy

c)

Atrophy

d)

Metaplasia

e)

All of the above

42.

Atrophy is characterized by all EXCEPT:

a)

Decrease in size and number of cells

b)

Common in brain of old age

c)

May result from disuse

d)

Due to lack of neural stimulation

e)

May be congenital

43.

Best example of atrophy is:

a)

Left ventricle in hypertension

b)

Thymus after puberty

c)

Lymph node in acute inflammation

d)

Gravid uterus

e)

None of the above

44.

Limb muscles in poliomyelitis show:

a)

Hyperplasia

b)

Hypertrophy

c)

Atrophy

d)

Hypoplasia

e)

Metaplasia

45.

Reduced limb size after 6 months in a cast is:

a)

Ischemic atrophy

b)

Disuse atrophy

c)

Neuropathic atrophy

d)

Senile atrophy

e)

All of the above

46.

Example of epithelial metaplasia:

a)

Bronchial lining due to smoking

b)

Left ventricle due to hypertension

c)

Lymphoid tissue in acute inflammation

d)

Breast and uterus after menopause

e)

None of the above

47.

Squamous metaplasia of urinary bladder is commonly due to:

a)

Acute cystitis

b)

Chronic non-specific cystitis

c)

Bilharzial cystitis

d)

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

e)

None of the above

48.

Causes of urinary bladder metaplasia EXCEPT:

a)

Smoking

b)

Bilharziasis

c)

Urinary bladder stones

d)

Chronic chemical irritation

e)

Acute bacterial cystitis

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