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Respiratory Final Test Practice

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 59mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which structures branch off from the section in green? (select all that apply)

a)

Trachea

b)

Nasopharynx

c)

Esophagus

d)

Larynx

e)

Uvula

2.

What is the function of the structure highlighted in yellow?

a)

Filtering and humidifying air

b)

Olfaction

c)

Closing the nasopharynx during swallowing

d)

Producing mucus

3.

You go to urgent care, and the doctor notes swelling and inflammation in the back of your throat. What diagnosis would she likely write on your chart?

a)

Esophagitis

b)

Laryngitis

c)

Pharyngitis

d)

Mastitis

4.

Which of the following are functions of mucus in the nasal cavity? (select all that apply)

a)

Traps and clears dust and pathogens from the airway

b)

Moistens and warms air as it enters

c)

Closing off the nasopharynx during swallowing

d)

Closing off the larynx during swallowing

5.

Which structure creates the Adam's apple visible on the front of the throat (typically more so in men)?

a)

C-shaped cartilage rings

b)

The vocal cords

c)

The pharynx

d)

Thyroid cartilage

6.

What is the function of the epiglottis?

a)

Covers the esophagus during swallowing

b)

Covers the larynx during swallowing

c)

Covers the nasopharynx during swallowing

d)

Houses the vocal cords for speech

7.
Question Image

Match each structure with its correct label.

a)

A

1.

Bronchi

b)

C

2.

Bronchioles

c)

E

3.

Pharynx

d)

F

4.

Larynx

e)

G

5.

Trachea

8.
Question Image

Match the numbered sinuses with their correct label.

a)

1

1.

Frontal

b)

2

2.

Ethmoid

c)

3

3.

Sphenoid

d)

4

4.

Maxillary

9.

Label the following structures.

a)Epiglottis
b)Vocal cords
c)Larynx
d)Trachea
e)Esophagus
f)Pharynx
1
2
3
4
5
6
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
10.

What is happening when the diaphragm contracts?

a)

Inspiration (inhalation)

b)

Expiration (exhalation)

11.

What is happening when the diaphragm relaxes?

a)

Inspiration (inhalation)

b)

Expiration (exhalation)

12.

True or False: the right lung has two lobes while the left lung has three.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

True or False: there are millions of alveoli in each lung

a)

True

b)

False

14.

Match each term with its corresponding description.

a)

Parietal pleura

1.

Outer layer forming sac around each lung

b)

Visceral pleura

2.

Inner layer directly attached to lungs

c)

Pleural fluid

3.

Provides lubrication in pleural cavity

d)

Pleural space

4.

Another name for pleural cavity

e)

Mediastinum

5.

Holds heart, esophagus, trachea, bronchi

15.

You are having trouble speaking and your voice is very hoarse following a recent viral infection. What do you most likely have?

a)

Pharyngitis

b)

Laryngitis

c)

Tracheitis

d)

Bronchitis

16.

The air that enters alveoli is high in ______ and low in ______.

a)

Oxygen

Carbon Dioxide

b)

Carbon Dioxide

Oxygen

17.

Blood in the capillaries is high in ______ and low in ______.

a)

Oxygen

Carbon Dioxide

b)

Carbon Dioxide

Oxygen

18.

Match each structure with the number of molecules it can hold.

a)

Iron atom

1.

1 oxygen molecule

b)

Hemoglobin

2.

4 oxygen molecules

c)

Red blood cell hemoglobin capacity

3.

250 million hemoglobin molecules

d)

Red blood cell oxygen capacity

4.

1 billion oxygen molecules

19.

How is the majority of carbon dioxide transported in the blood?

a)

As bicarbonate ions

b)

Dissolved in plasma

c)

Bound to hemoglobin

d)

Bound to platelets

20.

Which of the following is the process of gas exchange between the alveoli and the bloodstream?

a)

Internal respiration

b)

External respiration

c)

Breathing

d)

Cellular respiration

21.

Which of the following is the process of gas exchange between the bloodstream and body cells?

a)

Internal respiration

b)

External respiration

c)

Breathing

d)

Cellular respiration

22.
Question Image

Match each colored section with its correct label.

a)

Red

1.

Nasopharynx

b)

Blue

2.

Oropharynx

c)

Green

3.

Laryngopharynx

23.

Label the following structures.

a)Olfactory bulb
b)Nasal cavity
c)Epiglottis
d)Trachea
e)Uvula
1
2
3
4
1)
2)
3)
4)
24.

How does the majority of oxygen travel in the bloodstream? (Select all that apply)

a)

Dissolved in plasma

b)

As bicarbonate

c)

On platelets

d)

On hemoglobin

e)

On red blood cells

25.

How does the majority of carbon dioxide travel in the bloodstream?

a)

As bicarbonate

b)

Dissolved in plasma

c)

On hemoglobin

d)

Through the alveoli

26.

Which of the following is a waste product of body cells that needs to be removed by the bloodstream?

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Bicarbonate

c)

Oxygen

d)

Arsenic

27.

Match each term with its definition.

a)

Respiration

1.

The process of gas exchange

b)

Ventilation

2.

Movement of air in and out of the lungs

c)

Expiration

3.

Movement of air out of the lungs

d)

Inspiration

4.

Movement of air into the lungs

28.

Match each term with its definition.

a)

Surfactant

1.

Fluid lining the inside of alveoli

b)

Compliance

2.

The ability to stretch and expand

c)

Internal Intercostals

3.

Contract during expiration

d)

External Intercostals

4.

Contract during inspiration

29.

Which of the following muscles contract during inspiration? (select all that apply)

a)

External Intercostals

b)

Diaphragm

c)

Internal Intercostals

d)

Epiglottis

30.

Which of the following muscles contract during expiration? (select all that apply)

a)

External Intercostals

b)

Diaphragm

c)

Internal Intercostals

d)

Epiglottis

31.

Which of these structures contracts to cause air to enter the lungs?

a)

Alveoli

b)

Epiglottis

c)

Medulla Oblongata

d)

Diaphragm

32.

Which of the following is the strongest stimulus to increase respiratory rate?

a)

Low oxygen levels

b)

High carbon dioxide levels

c)

Increased heart rate

d)

Increased blood pressure

33.

If your blood is low in carbon dioxide, how does your body respond?

a)

Increase respiration rate

b)

Decrease respiration rate

c)

Increase heart rate

d)

All of these

34.

Match each term with its corresponding description.

a)

Apnea

1.

Cessation of breathing

b)

Dyspnea

2.

Difficulty breathing

c)

-pnea

3.

Breathing

d)

Tachypnea

4.

Abnormally fast breathing

e)

Bradypnea

5.

Abnormally slow breathing

35.

Which of the following is characterized by an abnormally fast respiration rate that is not due to an increase in blood carbon dioxide levels?

a)

Hypercapnia

b)

Tachypnea

c)

Hyperventilation

d)

Hypoventilation

36.

A person runs a mile and has a respiration rate of 38 breaths/min.

True or False: this would be considered tachypnea.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

What is a normal adult resting respiration rate?

a)

12-20 breaths/min

b)

60-100 breaths/min

c)

8-12 breaths/min

d)

15-30 breaths/min

38.

​ (a)   is abnormally fast breathing without an underlying physiological reason.

​ (b)   is abnormally fast breathing due to high carbon dioxide levels in the blood.

Choose from the below words
Hyperventilation
Tachypnea
Hyperpnea
Bradypnea
39.

Why would breathing into a paper bag help treat hyperventilation?

a)

It wouldn't; it does not work and is no longer recommended

b)

It increases the amount of carbon dioxide inhaled in each breath

c)

It decreases the amount of oxygen inhaled in each breath

d)

It activates the sympathetic nervous system to slow heart rate and breathing

40.

Why would sleeping cause the medulla oblogata to slow respiration rate?

a)

Body cells are producing less carbon dioxide

b)

Body cells need less oxygen at rest

c)

It wouldn't; respiration rate would increase during sleeping

d)

Sleeping doesn't have an effect on respiration rate

41.

Which part of the body adjusts respiration rate in response to chemoreceptor signals from the bloodstream?

a)

Medulla oblongata

b)

Frontal lobe

c)

Sympathetic nervous system

d)

Sinoatrial node

42.

Match each term with its description.

a)

Hyperpnea

1.

Rapid breathing due to exercise

b)

Hyperventilation

2.

Rapid breathing due to stress

c)

Tachypnea

3.

Rapid breathing at rest

d)

Apnea

4.

Temporary stopping of breathing

e)

Bradypnea

5.

Slow breathing at rest

43.

If you have high lung compliance, would expiration be easier or harder?

a)

Easier

b)

Harder

44.

A patient has episodic wheezing and dyspnea triggered by allergens and exercise. Which condition best explains this?

a)

COPD

b)

Asthma

c)

Pneumonia

d)

Emphysema

45.

A patient has a productive cough following a recent viral illness. Which condition is most likely?

a)

Acute bronchitis

b)

Asthma

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Asbestosis

46.

Which condition is commonly referred to as a “Pink Puffer”?

a)

Chronic bronchitis

b)

Emphysema

c)

Asthma

d)

Atelectasis

47.

Which feature best distinguishes emphysema from chronic bronchitis?

a)

Dyspnea

b)

Alveolar destruction

c)

Smoking history

d)

Chronic cough

48.

Which condition involves collapse of alveoli due to lack of inflation?

a)

Pneumothorax

b)

Atelectasis

c)

Pleural effusion

d)

Pleurisy

49.

Which pathology involves air entering the pleural space?

a)

Pleural effusion

b)

Pneumothorax

c)

Atelectasis

d)

Pleurisy

50.

Sustained lack of oxygen delivery to tissues is known as:

a)

Hypoxemia

b)

Dyspnea

c)

Asphyxia

d)

Apnea

51.

Which pathology is best described as chronic and progressive rather than acute?

a)

Acute bronchitis

b)

COPD

c)

Pneumonia

d)

Atelectasis

52.

Which condition most directly interferes with exhalation rather than inhalation?

a)

Asthma

b)

Emphysema

c)

Pleural effusion

d)

Atelectasis

53.

A patient has fever, body aches, fatigue, and cough from a viral respiratory infection. Which condition is most likely?

a)

Nasopharyngitis

b)

Influenza

c)

Pneumonia

d)

Tuberculosis

54.

A patient has a runny nose, sore throat, and sneezing with mild symptoms. Which condition best fits?

a)

Influenza

b)

Nasopharyngitis

c)

Pneumonia

d)

Tuberculosis

55.

Which feature is more characteristic of nasopharyngitis than influenza?

a)

Viral cause

b)

Airway inflammation

c)

Mild, localized symptoms

d)

Cough

56.

Pneumonia primarily involves infection of the:

a)

Bronchi

b)

Pleural membranes

c)

Alveoli

d)

Pharynx

57.

Which feature is shared by pneumonia and tuberculosis?

a)

Chronic progression

b)

Alveolar involvement

c)

May be caused by virus, bacteria, or fungal infection

d)

Exclusively bacterial

58.

Tuberculosis is best described as:

a)

Acute viral lung infection

b)

Chronic bacterial lung infection

c)

Autoimmune airway disease

d)

Acute lung injury

59.

Which is NOT typical of tuberculosis?

a)

A. Bacterial cause

b)

B. Gradual lung tissue damage

c)

C. Rapid symptom resolution

d)

D. Hemoptysis

60.

A patient develops progressive dyspnea years after occupational exposure. Which condition fits best?

a)

ARDS

b)

Asbestosis

c)

Pneumonia

d)

Asthma

61.

A critically ill patient develops sudden respiratory failure with fluid-filled alveoli. Which condition is most likely?

a)

Asbestosis

b)

ARDS

c)

COPD

d)

Tuberculosis

62.

Which is NOT typical of ARDS?

a)

Severe inflammation

b)

Rapid development

c)

Long-term asbestos exposure

d)

Respiratory failure

63.

A patient snores loudly and has daytime sleepiness despite continued breathing effort at night. Which condition fits?

a)

Central sleep apnea

b)

Obstructive sleep apnea

c)

COPD

d)

Laryngospasm

64.

Which feature distinguishes obstructive from central sleep apnea?

a)

Pauses in breathing

b)

Reduced oxygen delivery

c)

Continued respiratory effort

d)

Sleep disruption

65.

Central sleep apnea is caused by:

a)

Airway obstruction

b)

Failure of medulla oblongata to signal breathing

c)

Lung tissue damage

d)

Bronchial inflammation

66.

A patient has repeated pauses in breathing during sleep with no respiratory effort. Which condition is most likely?

a)

Obstructive sleep apnea

b)

Central sleep apnea

c)

Asthma

d)

COPD

67.

Which feature is shared by both types of sleep apnea?

a)

Airway collapse

b)

Neurologic cause

c)

Pauses in breathing during sleep

d)

Continued breathing effort

68.

Which is NOT characteristic of central sleep apnea?

a)

Open airway

b)

No respiratory effort

c)

Brain signaling failure

d)

Loud snoring from airway collapse

69.

What kind of medication do you think is used to treat an asthma attack?

a)

Bronchodilators

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Bronchoconstrictors

d)

There is no medication to help asthma

70.

What is typically the cause of acute bronchitis?

a)

Smoking

b)

Exposure to a trigger like cold air

c)

A viral infection

d)

Alveolar collapse

71.

Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic between asthma and acute bronchitis?

a)

Wheezing

b)

Dyspnea

c)

Inflammation of the bronchi

d)

Productive cough

72.

Which of the following statements about Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) are TRUE? (select all that apply)

a)

Chronic and worsens over time

b)

Caused by viral infections

c)

Caused by long term smoking

d)

Includes acute and chronic bronchitis

e)

Involves obstruction of airway making breathing difficult

73.

Why do people with chronic bronchitis present as "blue bloaters"?

a)

Lack of oxygen exchange leads to cyanosis

b)

Hyperinflation of lungs leading to cyanosis

c)

They cough up blue phlegm

d)

Their skin turns blue due to high levels of carbon dioxide

74.

As emphysema progresses, lung compliance _________.

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Stays the same

d)

Improves

75.

Why are patients with emphysema called "pink puffers"?

a)

Their oxygen levels are normal compared to chronic bronchitis

b)

They develop polycythemia due to low blood oxygen levels

c)

They develop a rash due to low carbon dioxide levels

d)

They are anxious and tend to hyperventilate

76.

Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic between atelectasis and pneumothorax?

a)

Limits the ability of a lung to inhale fully

b)

Considered a "collapsed lung"

c)

Treated with deep breathing exercises

d)

May occur in surgical patients

77.

Which pathology is treated by removing air from the pleural space with a needle or tube?

a)

Atelectasis

b)

Pneumothorax

78.

Pleurisy is also known as:

a)

Pleuritis

b)

Pleuropathy

c)

Pleural effusion

d)

Hemothorax

79.

What is occurring in a patient with pleural effusion?

a)

Air in the pleural space

b)

Inflammation of the pericardium

c)

Fluid in the pleural space

d)

Inflammation of the pleura

80.

What structure is involuntarily closing during laryngospasm to block airflow?

a)

Epiglottis

b)

Vocal cords

c)

Trachea

d)

Thyroid Cartilage

81.

Low levels of oxygen in blood is ________ and low levels of oxygen reaching the tissues is ________.

a)

Hypoxemia

Hypoxia

b)

Hypoxia

Hypoxemia

c)

Anemia

Bradypnea

d)

Hypopnea

Bradycardia

82.

Which of the following is TRUE about asphyxia and anoxia?

a)

Asphyxia leads to anoxia

b)

Anoxia leads to asphyxia

c)

The two terms are unrelated

d)

Both mean the same thing

83.

Match each pathology with its corresponding description.

a)

Asthma

1.

Chronic inflammatory airway disease with reversible bronchoconstriction

b)

Acute Bronchitis

2.

Short-term viral inflammation of the bronchi

c)

Chronic Bronchitis

3.

Chronic airway inflammation with excessive mucus

d)

Emphysema

4.

Alveolar destruction causing loss of elastic recoil

e)

Pneumonia

5.

Acute infection of alveoli impairing gas exchange

84.

Match each pathology with its description.

a)

Atelectasis

1.

Collapse of alveoli due to lack of inflation

b)

Pneumothorax

2.

Air in pleural space causing lung collapse

c)

Pleurisy

3.

Inflammation of the pleural membranes

d)

Pleural Effusion

4.

Fluid in pleural space compressing the lung

85.

Match each pathology with its corresponding description.

a)

Influenza

1.

Acute viral respiratory infection with systemic symptoms

b)

Nasopharyngitis

2.

Mild viral infection of nasal cavity and pharynx

c)

Tuberculosis

3.

Chronic bacterial lung infection with slow tissue damage

d)

Asbestosis

4.

Chronic lung scarring from asbestos exposure

e)

ARDS

5.

Acute lung injury with fluid-filled alveoli

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