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Pharmacology Final Review

Total questions: 87

Worksheet time: 1hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A patient has been given this beta 2 adrenergic agonist to decrease in uterine contractions. (Unit 2)

a)

oxytocin (Pitocin)

b)

methylergonovine (Methergine)

c)

misoprostol (Cytotec)

d)

terbutaline (Brethine)

2.

How long do you have to start packed red blood cells once it has left the blood bank? (Unit 3)

a)

15 min

b)

30 min

c)

60 min

d)

5 min

3.

Which of the following would be given for heparin overdose? (Unit 10)

a)

platelets

b)

vitamin k

c)

mannitol

d)

protamine sulfate

4.

Once-daily dosing is a big advantage of which antibiotic? (Unit 6)

a)

Levofloxacin

b)

Imipenem-cilastin

c)

Cefazolin

d)

Vancomycin

5.

Which of the following is expected when using mannitol (Osmitrol) for ICP? (Unit 11)

a)

Decreased LOC

b)

Increased urine output

c)

Increased WBC

d)

Hyperkalemia

6.

Which of the following is true regarding isotonic fluid? (Unit 3)

a)

draw fluid from vascular system to cells

b)

draw water from the cells to the vascular system

c)

increase fluid volume and promotes renal function

d)

increase O2 carrying capacity of blood

7.

Which medication extravasation should be treated with cold? (Unit 12)

a)

Doxorubicin

b)

Vincristine

c)

Methotrexate

d)

Cyclophosphmide

8.

Which class of cardiac dysrhythmics blocks the beta-adrenergic receptors and calcium channels? (Unit 8)

a)

calcium channel blocker

b)

beta blockers

c)

sodium channel blockers

d)

potassium channel blockers

9.

What is the most concerning adverse effect with Morphine? (Unit 14)

a)

Euphoria

b)

Pain relief

c)

Respiratory depression

d)

Constipation

10.

Which medication that is given for PP hemorrhage is contraindicated with preeclampsia? (Unit 2)

a)

carboprost (Hemabate)

b)

nifedipine (Procardia)

c)

misoprostol (Cytotec)

d)

methylergonovine (Methergine)

11.

What is essential before administering glucagon? (Unit 4)

a)

Monitor vital signs

b)

Establish unresponsiveness

c)

Know blood glucose level

d)

Verify diagnosis of diabetes

12.

What is the intended effect of dobutamine? (Unit 5)

a)

Decreased urination

b)

Hypotension

c)

Decreased myocardial O2 consumption

d)

Increased perfusion to vital organs

13.

Which of the following lists cardiotoxicity as a major adverse effect? (Unit 12)

a)

Filgrastim

b)

Vinblastine

c)

Fentanyl

d)

Doxorubicin

14.

A pt on a lidocaine drip is agitated, confused, and restless. What does the nurse do first? (Unit 8)

a)

Increase the rate

b)

Check labs

c)

Stop the infusion

d)

Check BP

15.

What is the antidote for dopamine extravasation? (Unit 5)

a)

Naloxone

b)

Dexrazoxane

c)

Phentolamine

d)

Filgrastim

16.

Which of the following meds requires a double-check? (unit 1)

a)

Penicillin IV

b)

Heparin IV

c)

Morphine IM

d)

Methotrexate PO

17.

The primary initial focus in treating DKA includes: (unit 4)

a)

Fluid replacement and correction of electrolyte imbalance

b)

Immediate reduction of blood glucose

c)

Education regarding diabetes management

d)

Breathing into a paper bag or mask

18.

Which of the following is a side effect of terbutaline (Brethine)? (unit 2)

a)

tachycardia

b)

HTN

c)

hypoglycemia

d)

hyperkalemia

19.

Which of the following blood types is the universal donor? (unit 3)

a)

AB+

b)

A+

c)

O-

d)

O+

20.

What is a therapeutic aPtt for heparin? (unit 10)

a)

10-20 seconds

b)

30-50 seconds

c)

60-80 seconds

d)

100-120 seconds

21.

What is NOT true of ceftriaxone (Rocephin)? (unit 6)

a)

It is given every 24 hours

b)

IM injections are painful

c)

It is a carbapenem

d)

Disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol

22.

What is true in DKA but not in HHS? (unit 4)

a)

Hyperglycemia

b)

Dehydration

c)

Fruity breath

d)

Possible Coma

23.

The development of resistant strains of bacteria is promoted by which practice: (unit 6)

a)

Completing all antibiotics as prescribed

b)

Handwashing to prevent transmission

c)

Education and promoting immunizations

d)

Giving antibiotics for all suspected infections

24.

Which of the following is an ovarian stimulant? (unit 2)

a)

Oxytocin

b)

Misoprostol

c)

Clomiphene

d)

Terbutaline

25.

This medication is a calcium channel blocker but can be used off label as a tocolytic. (Unit 2)

a)

terbutaline (Brethine)

b)

verapamil (Calan)

c)

nifedipine (Procardia)

d)

oxytocin (Pitocin)

26.

What would be least important in relation to the administration of desmopressin (DDAVP)? (Unit 4)

a)

daily weights

b)

pain scale

c)

BUN, Creatinine

d)

monitor BP

27.

Which of the following can negatively affect your gut bacteria? (Unit 6)

a)

Essential oils

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Environmental toxins

d)

All of the above

28.

Which medication would be ordered for benzo O/D? (unit 11)

a)

RoxanolRoxanol

b)

FlumazenilFlumazenil

c)

NaloxoneNaloxone

d)

ImipramineImipramine

29.

Which of the following is not part of the 10 rights? (unit 1)

a)

RighttorefuseRight to refuse

b)

RightRouteRight Route

c)

RightTimeRight Time

d)

RightRoomRight Room

30.

BB Warning: pneumonia-like syndrome (unit 8)

a)

ProcainamideProcainamide

b)

amiodaroneamiodarone

c)

esmololesmolol

d)

diltiazemdiltiazem

31.

This chemo medication can cause myelosuppression and hemorrhagic cystitis as well as other side effects. (Unit 12)

a)

Methotrexate

b)

cyclophosphamide

c)

Doxorubicin

d)

Diltiazem

32.

Which fluid hangs with blood products for a patient diagnosed with cellular dehydration? (Unit 3)

a)

0.45% NS

b)

0.9% NS

c)

D5LR

d)

D5NS

33.

Low dose dopamine: (Unit 5)

a)

lowers blood pressure

b)

increases renal perfusion

c)

reverses anaphylaxis

d)

Causes heart failure

34.

This medication is used for respiratory distress syndrome. (Unit 2)

a)

NifedipineNifedipine

b)

BeractantBeractant

c)

CarboprostCarboprost

d)

IndomethacinIndomethacin

35.

How is cardiac output calculated: (unit 5)

a)

heartrateandbloodpressureheart rate and blood pressure

b)

HeightandweightHeight and weight

c)

BPandvascularresistanceBP and vascular resistance

d)

StrokevolumetimesheartrateStroke volume times heart rate

36.

Which is NOT true regarding morphine? (unit 14)

a)

NoupperenddoselimitNo upper end dose limit

b)

PatientsdeveloptolerancetoalladverseeffectsPatients develop tolerance to all adverse effects

c)

MaybeusedforcancerassociatedSOBMay be used for cancer associated SOB

d)

GivenforpainGiven for pain

37.

What's missing: 10 mg hydromorphone (Dilaudid) every hour prn pain (unit 1)

a)

dose

b)

route

c)

frequency

d)

indication

38.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of eptifibatide? (unit 10)

a)

Epistaxis

b)

BP 148/88

c)

thrombocythemia

d)

blurred vision

39.

Concerns with Amphotericin B administration do NOT include: (unit 7)

a)

Visual loss from lens changes

b)

Acute fever, chills, and headache

c)

Life-threatening cardiac effects

d)

Danger of ototoxicity

40.

What is a common adverse effect of insulin? (unit 4)

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Hyperphosphatemia

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Hypocalcemia

41.

Which of the following is not a sign of a therapeutic magnesium level for preterm labor? (Unit 2)

a)

Flushed Skin

b)

Absent deep tendon reflex

c)

Sedation

d)

Muscle Weakness

42.

Trough levels are drawn for the patient on vancomycin in order to assess: (Unit 6)

a)

The lowest concentration of medicine in the blood

b)

The highest concentration of medicine in the blood

c)

The average concentration of medicine in the blood

d)

The effectiveness of the medicine in treating the infection

43.

If a medication error occurs, what do you do first? (unit 1)

a)

Call the doctor

b)

Call a code blue

c)

Assess the patient

d)

Fill out an incidence report

44.

Which of the following medications is used to dissolve blood clots? (unit 10)

a)

heparin

b)

eptifibatide

c)

alteplase

d)

aminocaproic acid

45.

Neutropenic precautions include all of the following except? (Unit 12)

a)

Fresh flowers

b)

Cooking fresh foods

c)

Watching for fever

d)

Wear mask when leaving unit

46.

Which patient is at highest risk for a fungal infection? (Unit 7)

a)

A 20-year old diabetic male admitted after a MVA

b)

A 75 year old female admitted for a UTI withdementia

c)

A 40-year old male with a history of a kidney transplant

d)

A 3-month old having surgery for a cleftlip/palate

47.

Leucovorinine is given in the right dose and time for toxic levels caused by which drug? (Unit 12)

a)

Doxorubicin

b)

Methotrexate

c)

Bleomycin

d)

Tamoxifen

48.

Which cancer medication works by blocking estrogen receptors? (Unit 12)

a)

vinblastine

b)

Flourouracil

c)

Tamoxifen

d)

Cyclosporine

49.

Which is a possible adverse effect of epinephrine? (Unit 5)

a)

Bronchodilation

b)

Tachycardia

c)

Sinus Rhythm

d)

CRT < 3

50.

Which medication is a prostaglandin used to ripen the cervix? (Unit 2)

a)

nifedipine (Procardia)

b)

misoprostol (Cytotec)

c)

magnesium sulfate

d)

carboprost (Hemabate)

51.

Which is NOT a type of distributive shock? (Unit 5)

a)

Septic

b)

Cardiogenic

c)

Neurogenic

d)

Anaphylactic

52.

A client is unresponsive after receiving midazolam. What could be given to reverse this medication? (Unit 11)

a)

Naloxone

b)

Protamine Sulfate

c)

Flumazenil

d)

Mannitol

53.

Patient teaching about phenytoin includes everything EXCEPT:

a)

Do not switch brands without provider approval.

b)

Report any new rashes.

c)

Do not consume alcohol.

d)

It is safe to take while pregnant.

54.

What is not an advantage of PCA pump? (Unit 14)

a)

Consistent medication level

b)

Patient participates in care

c)

Family can administer medication

d)

Decreased anxiety

55.

What is true of cryoprecipitate? (Unit 3)

a)

It is made up of WBCs and Platelets

b)

It consists of clotting factors and von Willebrand's factor

c)

It will help increase intracellular fluid.

d)

It is given to treat anemia.

56.

What is an adverse effect of Vancomycin that can happen at therapeutic doses?

a)

Cardiotoxicity

b)

Gastric Ulcers

c)

Nephrotoxicity

d)

Muscle weakness

57.

What is the primary reason for using a Z-track method in intramuscular injections?

a)

To reduce the risk of medication leaking back along the needle track

b)

To increase the speed of medication absorption

c)

To make the injection process more painful

d)

To use a smaller amount of medication

58.

Which of the following is an example of an Osmotic Diuretic?

a)

midazolam (Versed)

b)

mannitol (Osmitrol)

c)

diazepam (Valium)

d)

lorazepam (Ativan)

59.

Which categories are used in the treatment of Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI) and Increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP)?

a)

Antibiotics

b)

Sedation

c)

Diuretic

d)

Antiepileptics

e)

Analgesia

60.

What type of therapy is used to manage hyperosmolar conditions in patients with TBI and ICP?

a)

Lactated Ringers

b)

3% saline

c)

0.45% saline

d)

0.9% saline

61.

What are the indications for using mannitol (Osmitrol)? Select All That Apply

a)

Hypertension

b)

Glaucoma

c)

Traumatic Brain Injury

d)

Heart failure

e)

Liver Failure

62.

What is an off-label use of Propofol?

a)

Treatment of hypertension

b)

Treatment of refractory migraines

c)

Treatment of asthma

d)

Treatment of depression

63.

What type of memory loss is associated with midazolam (Versed)?

a)

Anterograde amnesia

b)

Dementia

c)

Transient global amnesia

d)

Dissociative Psychosis

64.

Which adverse effect of benzodiazepines is particularly common in psychiatric patients, the elderly, and hyperactive children?

a)

Urinary retention

b)

Laryngeal spasm and cough

c)

Paradoxical CNS stimulation

d)

Hepatotoxicity

65.

When caring for a patient with increased ICP the nurse knows the importance of monitoring for possible secondary complications, including syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). What nursing interventions would the nurse most likely initiate if the patient developed SIADH?  Select all that apply.

a)

Fluid restriction except for 3% NS

b)

Administer DDAVP (Desmopressin) q 8-12 hours

c)

Administer ADH replacement, given IV if needed

d)

Check urine output hourly for specific gravity, which should decrease with successful interventions

e)

Initiate seizure precautions

66.

A patient is recovering from intracranial surgery performed approximately 24 hours ago and is complaining of a headache that the patient rates at 8 on a 10-point pain scale. What nursing action is most appropriate?

a)

Administer morphine sulfate as ordered

b)

Reposition the patient in a prone position

c)

Apply a hot pack to the patient's scalp

d)

Implement distraction techniques

e)

Have the patient turn, deep breathe, & cough q 8 hours

67.

Ordered: Add 25,000 units of heparin to a 250 ml bag of 0.9% normal saline to create a bag with 100 units/ml. The nurse has a 20 ml multi-dose vial of heparin that is labeled as 10,000 units per ml. How many ml of heparin will the nurse add to the bag to create this mixture? (Round to the nearest tenth.)

a)

2.5 ml

b)

2.0 ml

c)

2.7 ml

d)

2.3 ml

68.

A patient is to receive an intravenous (IV) medication diluted in 50 ml of D5W and to be infused over 45 minutes. What will be the hourly infusion rate? (Round to the nearest whole number.)

a)

67 ml/hr

b)

50 ml/hr

c)

45 ml/hr

d)

60 ml/hr

69.

Order is to give 10mcg/kg of medication SQ once daily for five days. The patient weighs 133 pounds. The medication comes in 250mcg/ml vial. How many ml will the nurse draw up for a daily dose? (round to the nearest tenth 0.0) ________mL

a)

2.4 mL

b)

2.2 mL

c)

2.0 mL

d)

1.8 mL

70.

The physician orders for a patient to receive hydromorphone (dilaudid) 1.3 mg IM every 4 hours prn to relieve pain. The medication is available as 2 mg/ml. How many ml will the nurse inject of this medication? (Round to the nearest tenth of a decimal point, e.g., 0.0.)

a)

0.65 ml

b)

0.7 ml

c)

0.66 ml

d)

0.70 ml

71.

The physician writes an order for the patient to receive 1700 mg orally of a medication. The medication is available as 250 mg/ml. How many milliliters of this medication will the nurse administer to this patient? (Round to the nearest whole number.)

a)

6 ml

b)

7 ml

c)

8 ml

d)

9 ml

72.

The physician writes an order for 500 ml of Lactated Ringers to be infused intravenously (IV) at 250 ml/hour. There is no infusion pump available for this order, and the infusion set is calibrated for a drip factor of 20 gtts/ml. How many drops per minute should the IV infuse? (Round to the nearest whole number.)

a)

83 drops per minute

b)

100 drops per minute

c)

125 drops per minute

d)

167 drops per minute

73.

The physician orders for a patient to receive dobutamine (Dobutrex) 6 mcg/Kg/min. The available solution is 500 mg in 250 ml of D5W. The patient weighs 89.4 Kg. How many ml/hour should the IV infuse? (Round to the nearest whole number.)

a)

536 ml/hour

b)

16 ml/hour

c)

32 ml/hour

d)

16.09 ml/hour

74.

Albumin 25% 150 ml is ordered over 1 1/2 hours. The tubing drop factor is 60 gtt/ml. How many drops per minute should be given?

a)

200 gtt/min

b)

150 gtt/min

c)

6000 gtt/min

d)

100 gtt/min

75.

The doctor orders 500mg, every eight hours, IV. How many mls does the nurse mix to infuse?

a)

1

b)

5

c)

10

d)

150

76.

The order is to infuse 2000 mL over 23 hours using a tubing set that is calibrated to 20 gtt/mL.

(a)   gtt/min (Enter the numeric value only)

77.

The primary health care provider prescribes 1000 mL of 5% dextrose in water (D5W) to run at 125 mL/hr. The nurse calculates the infusion rate, knowing that it will take how many hours for 1 liter (L) to infuse?

(a)   hours (Enter the numeric value only)

78.

A primary health care provider prescribes 2000 mL of 5% dextrose in water to run over 24 hours. The drop (gtt) factor is 15 gtt/mL. The nurse plans to adjust the flow rate at how many drops per minute?

(a)   gtt/min (Enter the numeric value only)

79.

A primary health care provider prescribes 1000 mL of 0.9% NaCl to be infused over a period of 12 hours. The drop (gtt) factor is 15 drops (gtts)/mL. The nurse sets the flow rate at how many drops per minute?

(a)   gtt/min (enter the numeric value only)

80.

Which patient would MOST likely require a PICC line?

a)

A patient in the ICU

b)

A trauma patient in the ER

c)

Patient requiring 2 iron infusions at infusion center

d)

A patient requiring 6 weeks of IV antibiotics

81.

What is an appropriate intervention for hypervolemia?

a)

5% Albumin 500 mL

b)

Furosemide 40 mg IV

c)

0.9 NS at 75 mL per hour

d)

Encourage po fluids

82.

A patient with a low normal potassium level has 40 mg IV furosemide due, what should the nurse do?

a)

Notify the physician

b)

Recheck potassium in 4 hours

c)

Administer as ordered

d)

Encourage pt to eat a banana with lunch

83.

Which assessment finding would indicate hypocalcemia?

a)

Constipation

b)

Negative Trousseau's

c)

Positive Chvostek's

d)

Extreme muscle weakness

84.

Which medication would the nurse administer to treat a patient with hyperkalemia?

a)

Potassium chloride

b)

Spironolactone

c)

Sodium tabs

d)

Regular Insulin IV (with dextrose)

85.

A patient with hypertension should avoid which foods?

a)

Eggs

b)

Dairy products

c)

Seafood

d)

Cured meats

86.

A patient's K+ is 6.4, what should the nurse do first?

a)

Administer 1 gram Mg IVPB

b)

Place patient on cardiac monitor

c)

Turn on bed alarm

d)

Call for stat dialysis

87.

Which patient is at most risk for hypervolemia?

a)

A 22-year-old receivng IV fluids

b)

A 32-year-old with pneumonia

c)

A 52-year-old with vomiting and diarrhea

d)

A 72-year-old with a fever and UTI

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