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The Ankle and Lower Leg Anatomy and Function

Total questions: 97

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The ankle joint is composed of which three bones?

a)

Tibia, fibula, talus

b)

Femur, tibia, patella

c)

Fibula, talus, calcaneus

d)

Tibia, fibula, femur

2.

The talocrural joint allows two motions: plantarflexion and _________?

a)

dorsiflexion

b)

eversion

c)

inversion

d)

rotation

3.

The subtalar joint allows two motions: inversion and _________?

a)

eversion

b)

flexion

c)

rotation

d)

extension

4.

Which ligament is included in the medial ligament of the ankle?

a)

Deltoid

b)

Anterior talofibular

c)

Posterior talofibular

d)

Calcaneofibular

5.

The portion of the anatomy below the knee and above the ankle is called the ________.

a)

lower leg

b)

upper arm

c)

forearm

d)

thigh

6.

Which bones form the ankle joint?

a)

Tibia, Fibula, Talus

b)

Tibia, Calcaneus, Navicular

c)

Fibula, Calcaneus, Navicular

d)

Talus, Calcaneus, Navicular

7.

The subtalar joint allows which movements?

a)

Plantarflexion and dorsiflexion

b)

Inversion and eversion

c)

Flexion and extension

d)

Abduction and adduction

8.

Fill in the blank: The muscles that dorsiflex the ankle are contained within the ______ compartment.

a)

anterior

b)

posterior

c)

lateral

d)

deep

9.

According to the text, the muscles that evert the ankle are found in which compartment?

a)

lateral compartment

b)

anterior compartment

c)

posterior compartment

d)

deep compartment

10.

Match the following ankle movements with their corresponding muscles:

a)

Extensor digitorum longus

1.

Ankle dorsiflexion

b)

Soleus

2.

Ankle plantarflexion

c)

Tibialis posterior

3.

Ankle inversion

d)

Peroneus longus

4.

Ankle eversion

11.

Which muscle is the primary dorsiflexor of the ankle joint?

a)

Extensor digitorum longus

b)

Extensor hallucis longus

c)

Tibialis anterior

d)

Soleus

12.

Which of the following is NOT a method for preventing lower leg and ankle injuries?

a)

Heel cord stretching

b)

Strength training

c)

Wearing inappropriate footwear

d)

Neuromuscular control

13.

Fill in the blank: To properly stretch the Achilles tendon complex, the ankle should be _______ and the knee fully extended to stretch the gastrocnemius muscle.

a)

dorsiflexed

b)

plantarflexed

c)

rotated

d)

inverted

14.

Strength training should include both static and dynamic joint stability exercises to prevent ankle injuries.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

List two lateral ligaments of the ankle joint.

a)

Anterior talofibular, posterior talofibular

b)

Deltoid, calcaneonavicular

c)

Tibionavicular, tibiocalcaneal

d)

Plantar calcaneonavicular, spring ligament

16.

Which compartment of the lower leg contains the peroneus longus muscle?

a)

Anterior compartment

b)

Lateral compartment

c)

Deep posterior compartment

d)

Superficial posterior compartment

17.

Name one benefit of proper footwear in preventing lower leg and ankle injuries.

a)

Proper footwear can reduce the risk of injury by providing appropriate support and protection.

b)

Proper footwear increases the risk of injury by making the foot unstable.

c)

Proper footwear has no effect on lower leg and ankle injuries.

d)

Proper footwear is only important for style and not for injury prevention.

18.

What are the stretching techniques for the right Achilles tendon complex shown in Figure 15-4?

a)

(A) Stretching position for the gastrocnemius muscle. (B) Stretching position for the soleus muscle.

b)

(C) Stretching position for the tibialis anterior muscle. (D) Stretching position for the peroneus longus muscle.

c)

(E) Stretching position for the hamstring muscles.

d)

(F) Stretching position for the quadriceps muscle.

19.

Which strengthening exercises are important in prevention of ankle sprains as shown in Figure 15-5?

a)

(A) Surgical tubing resistance (B) Bosu Balance Trainer

b)

(C) Wrist curls (D) Neck stretches

c)

(E) Shoulder shrugs (F) Finger extensions

d)

(G) Hip abductor machine (H) Triceps dips

20.

What type of exercise is shown in Figure 15-6 for the ankle?

a)

Ankle exercises on a BAPS Board.

b)

Calf raises on a step.

c)

Resistance band dorsiflexion.

d)

Towel scrunches.

21.

According to the passage, is it beneficial to routinely tape ankles that have no history of sprain?

a)

True

b)

False

22.

What is the purpose of ankle braces as shown in Figure 15-7?

a)

Ankle braces may be used to support weak ankles.

b)

Ankle braces are used to increase ankle flexibility.

c)

Ankle braces are designed to reduce blood flow to the foot.

d)

Ankle braces are worn to make shoes more comfortable.

23.

Should shoes designed for straight-ahead activity, such as running shoes, be used for playing basketball?

a)

True

b)

False

24.

The athlete's history may vary, depending on whether the problem is the result of sudden trauma or is chronic. The athlete with an acute sudden trauma to the ankle should be asked: What trauma or mechanism occurred?

a)

The specific trauma or mechanism that caused the injury (e.g., twisting, impact, fall).

b)

The athlete's favorite sport to play.

c)

The color of the athlete's shoes during the injury.

d)

The time of day the injury occurred.

25.

The athlete's history may vary, depending on whether the problem is the result of sudden trauma or is chronic. The athlete with an acute sudden trauma to the ankle should be asked: What was heard when the injury occurred?

a)

Crack, snap, or pop (as heard during the injury).

b)

A ringing sound in the ears.

c)

A sudden loss of vision.

d)

A feeling of dizziness.

26.

What were the duration and intensity of pain?

a)

Duration and intensity of pain experienced by the athlete.

b)

Type of medication used for pain relief.

c)

Location of the injury on the athlete's body.

d)

Number of training sessions missed due to pain.

27.

The athlete's history may vary, depending on whether the problem is the result of sudden trauma or is chronic. The athlete with an acute sudden trauma to the ankle should be asked: How disabling was the occurrence?

a)

Whether the athlete could walk right away or was unable to bear weight.

b)

What was the weather like during the incident?

c)

How many people witnessed the injury?

d)

What color were the athlete's shoes?

28.

The athlete with an acute sudden trauma to the ankle should be asked: Has a similar injury occurred before?

a)

Yes or No (whether a similar injury has occurred before).

b)

What is your favorite sport?

c)

How many hours do you sleep?

d)

Do you like running on grass or track?

29.

The athlete's history may vary, depending on whether the problem is the result of sudden trauma or is chronic. The athlete with an acute sudden trauma to the ankle should be asked: Was there immediate swelling, or did the swelling occur later (or at all)? Where did the swelling occur?

a)

Immediate or delayed swelling and location of swelling.

b)

Type of shoes worn during the incident.

c)

Previous unrelated injuries.

d)

Dietary habits before the trauma.

30.

The athlete with an acute sudden trauma to the ankle should be asked: What past ankle injuries have occurred?

a)

Details of any past ankle injuries.

b)

Preferred brand of running shoes.

c)

Dietary preferences before the injury.

d)

Favorite sports team.

31.

Immediately following injury, the athlete should be observed to determine the following: Is there an obvious deformity?

a)

Yes or No (obvious deformity present or not).

b)

Only if the athlete is conscious.

c)

Only after 24 hours have passed.

d)

Only if there is severe bleeding.

32.

Immediately following injury, the athlete should be observed to determine the following: Are the bony contours of the ankle normal and symmetric, or is there a deviation such as a bony deformity?

a)

Normal and symmetric or deviation/bony deformity.

b)

Swelling and redness only.

c)

Muscle spasms and cramps.

d)

Bruising and discoloration only.

33.

Immediately following injury, the athlete should be observed to determine the following: Is there any discoloration?

a)

Yes or No (discoloration present or not).

b)

Only if there is swelling.

c)

Only if the athlete is unconscious.

d)

Only if there is severe pain.

34.

Immediately following injury, the athlete should be observed to determine if there is crepitus or abnormal sound in the ankle joint?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Only if there is swelling

d)

Only after 24 hours

35.

Immediately following injury, the athlete should be observed to determine if heat, swelling, or redness is present.

a)

Yes or No (heat, swelling, or redness present or not).

b)

Only if the athlete is unconscious.

c)

Only after 24 hours have passed.

d)

Only if there is visible bleeding.

36.

Immediately following injury, the athlete should be observed to determine the following: Is the athlete in obvious pain?

a)

Yes or No (obvious pain present or not).

b)

Only if the athlete is unconscious.

c)

Only if the injury is to the head.

d)

Only if the athlete requests help.

37.

Immediately following injury, the athlete should be observed to determine: Does the athlete have a normal ankle range of motion?

a)

Yes or No (normal ankle range of motion present or not).

b)

Only if the athlete can walk without pain.

c)

Only if swelling is present.

d)

Only if the athlete can stand on one foot.

38.

Immediately following injury, the athlete should be observed to determine if the athlete is able to walk, and if there is a normal walking pattern or a limp.

a)

Normal walking pattern or limp.

b)

Ability to lift heavy weights.

c)

Ability to run at full speed.

d)

Ability to jump high.

39.

A basketball player sustains a grade I inversion sprain of her left ankle during a game. There is immediate pain and swelling, and she is unable to bear weight. What is the most important first-aid step immediately following injury, and how may the first-aid goal best be accomplished?

a)

Apply ice and compression to reduce swelling and pain.

b)

Begin immediate weight-bearing exercises to restore function.

c)

Massage the ankle vigorously to improve circulation.

d)

Apply heat to the ankle to relax the muscles.

40.

Which of the following is NOT a step for recognizing and managing ankle injuries?

a)

Hop on affected foot without heel touching surface.

b)

Start or stop the running motion.

c)

Change direction rapidly.

d)

Apply ice directly to the skin.

e)

Run figure eights.

41.

What are the three classifications of ankle sprains?

a)

Inversion sprain, eversion sprain, high ankle sprain

b)

Lateral sprain, medial sprain, posterior sprain

c)

Anterior sprain, posterior sprain, medial sprain

d)

Plantar sprain, dorsal sprain, lateral sprain

42.

Fill in the blank: The ______ ligament is the weakest of the three lateral ligaments and is most commonly injured in an inversion ankle sprain.

a)

anterior talofibular

b)

calcaneofibular

c)

posterior talofibular

d)

deltoid

43.

Which ligament is most likely to be injured in an inversion ankle sprain?

a)

Calcaneofibular ligament

b)

Posterior talofibular ligament

c)

Anterior talofibular ligament

d)

Deltoid ligament

44.

Refer to FIGURE 15-9. The ankle and usually the foot are swollen and discolored following an ________.

a)

ankle sprain

b)

ankle fracture

c)

muscle cramp

d)

shin splint

45.

Which special test for ankle injuries is shown in FIGURE 15-8 (A)?

a)

Bump test

b)

Anterior drawer test

c)

Talar tilt test

46.

What mechanism of injury can cause a sprain of the anterior talofibular ligament?

a)

Plantarflexion and inversion

b)

Dorsiflexion and eversion

c)

Plantarflexion and eversion

d)

Dorsiflexion and inversion

47.

What mechanism of injury can cause a sprain of the calcaneofibular ligament?

a)

Plantarflexion and inversion

b)

Inversion

c)

Eversion

d)

Dorsiflexion and inversion

48.

Eversion ankle sprains are less common than inversion ankle sprains.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Which ligament may be involved in an avulsion fracture of the tibia before it tears during an eversion sprain?

a)

Deltoid ligament

b)

Anterior cruciate ligament

c)

Posterior talofibular ligament

d)

Calcaneofibular ligament

50.

High ankle sprains involve the anterior and posterior tibiofibular ligaments and the distal portion of which membrane?

a)

Interosseous membrane

b)

Synovial membrane

c)

Periosteal membrane

d)

Articular membrane

51.

What mechanism of injury can cause a sprain of the deltoid ligament?

a)

Eversion

b)

Inversion

c)

Dorsiflexion

d)

External rotation

52.

A mechanism of injury that involves hyperdorsiflexion and external rotation of the foot can cause a sprain of which ligament?

a)

Deltoid ligament

b)

Anterior tibiofibular ligament

c)

Calcaneofibular ligament

d)

Posterior talofibular ligament

53.

In a grade 1 sprain, there is some stretching or perhaps tearing of the ligamentous fibers, with little or no joint instability.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

In a grade 2 sprain, what symptoms should be expected? Fill in the blank: Moderate-to-severe pain, swelling, and joint ________ should be expected.

a)

stiffness

b)

redness

c)

numbness

d)

bleeding

55.

Grade 3 sprains involve total rupture of the ligament, manifested primarily by gross instability of the joint.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

What is the most important factor in rehabilitation of an ankle sprain?

a)

Applying heat

b)

Controlling initial swelling with PRICE

c)

Immediate weight bearing

d)

Using a horseshoe pad

57.

List the steps for controlling swelling immediately following injury as described in Focus Box 15-1.

a)

1. Cut out a horseshoe-shaped pad and fit it around the malleolus on the side of injury. 2. Apply a wet compression wrap over the pad. 3. Surround the ankle joint entirely with ice bags and secure them with a dry, elastic wrap. 4. Keep the foot and ankle elevated to a minimum of 45 degrees while icing. 5. Place the athlete on crutches to avoid weight bearing for 24 hours following injury.

b)

1. Apply heat to the injured area immediately. 2. Massage the swelling vigorously. 3. Keep the foot and ankle below heart level. 4. Encourage the athlete to walk on the injury. 5. Remove any compression wraps after 10 minutes.

c)

1. Apply a dry compression wrap only. 2. Use a circular pad instead of a horseshoe-shaped pad. 3. Do not use ice bags. 4. Keep the foot and ankle at ground level. 5. Allow weight bearing as tolerated.

d)

1. Elevate the foot and ankle to 90 degrees. 2. Use a plastic wrap instead of elastic. 3. Apply ice directly to the skin without a barrier. 4. Avoid using any pads. 5. Encourage immediate return to activity.

58.

According to the PRICE technique, what does the 'C' stand for?

a)

Compression

b)

Crutches

c)

Cold

d)

Care

59.

The foot and ankle should be elevated to a minimum of 45 degrees while icing during the initial treatment period.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

What should be applied over the horseshoe pad during the PRICE technique?

a)

Dry compression wrap

b)

Wet compression wrap

c)

Ice bags

d)

Elastic wrap

61.

Fill in the blank: Initial management of an ankle sprain includes ______, protection, rest, ice, compression, and elevation.

a)

PRICE

b)

HEAT

c)

STRETCHING

d)

MASSAGE

62.

What type of force is applied to the ankle to produce an avulsion fracture of the fibula?

a)

Eversion

b)

Inversion

c)

Compression

d)

Rotation

63.

What is tendinosis?

a)

Tendinosis is the degeneration of the tendons surrounding the ankle joint, commonly due to faulty foot mechanics, inappropriate footwear, or acute trauma.

b)

Tendinosis is an inflammation of the muscles in the lower back caused by overuse.

c)

Tendinosis is a bacterial infection of the skin around the ankle joint.

d)

Tendinosis is a fracture of the bones in the foot due to repetitive stress.

64.

According to the box labeled 'Common sites for tendinitis,' which of the following is NOT a common site for tendinitis?

a)

A) Anterior tibialis

b)

B) Posterior tibialis

c)

C) Peroneals

d)

D) Plantar fascia

65.

Identify the site labeled as 'Achilles tendinosis.'

a)

The Achilles tendinosis site is located at the back of the heel/ankle in both the lateral and medial views.

b)

The Achilles tendinosis site is located at the top of the foot near the toes.

c)

The Achilles tendinosis site is located on the inner arch of the foot.

d)

The Achilles tendinosis site is located at the front of the ankle joint.

66.

A jogger, after running downhill for an extended period, experiences pain in the anterior medial aspect of the left foot. The condition is diagnosed as anterior tibialis tendinosis. What is the appropriate management for this condition?

a)

Rest, ice, and activity modification

b)

Immediate surgical intervention

c)

Continued running without changes

d)

Application of heat and massage only

67.

History: The duration of pain has been:

a)

A few hours

b)

Several weeks

c)

A year

d)

A decade

68.

History: The pain or discomfort is located at which site?

a)

Chest

b)

Leg

c)

Head

d)

Arm

69.

History: The feeling has changed or there is numbness.

a)

Yes, there is a change or numbness.

b)

No, there is no change or numbness.

c)

There is only pain, no numbness.

d)

There is swelling but no numbness.

70.

History: There is a feeling of warmth.

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Sometimes

d)

Rarely

71.

History: There is a sense of muscle weakness or difficulty in walking.

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Sometimes

d)

Only after exercise

72.

History: The problem occurred due to which reason?

a)

A specific event or action

b)

A random occurrence

c)

A natural disaster

d)

A technological advancement

73.

Observation: Any postural deviations, such as toeing in, should be noted.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

A positive Thompson test indicates:

a)

A ruptured Achilles tendon

b)

A torn meniscus

c)

A dislocated patella

d)

A fractured tibia

75.

The tibia is more commonly fractured than the fibula.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

What are the signs of injury for tibial fractures?

a)

Immediate pain, swelling, possible deformity, may be open or closed, and present with pain and point tenderness on palpation and with ambulation.

b)

Gradual onset of pain, no swelling, and no deformity, with normal ambulation.

c)

No pain, only mild bruising, and no tenderness on palpation or with ambulation.

d)

Sudden loss of consciousness, chest pain, and difficulty breathing.

77.

What is the most likely period of immobilization and restricted weight bearing for tibial fractures?

a)

Several weeks to possibly months, depending on the severity and involvement of the injury.

b)

A few hours, regardless of the injury.

c)

No immobilization is required for tibial fractures.

d)

Only one day, irrespective of the fracture type.

78.

Stress fractures of the tibia and fibula are most commonly caused by:

a)

Direct trauma

b)

Repetitive loading during training and conditioning

c)

Infection

d)

Poor nutrition

79.

Tibial stress fractures usually occur in the middle of the shaft, whereas fibular stress fractures are more likely to occur in the distal part of the bone.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

What is the main symptom of shin splints (medial tibial stress syndrome)?

a)

Pain in the anterior aspect of the lower leg.

b)

Swelling of the ankle joint.

c)

Numbness in the toes.

d)

Redness and warmth over the knee.

81.

Medial tibial stress syndrome is more correctly called a condition that involves increasing pain specifically at the distal two-thirds of the _______ aspect of the tibia.

a)

posterior medial

b)

anterior lateral

c)

superior medial

d)

inferior lateral

82.

In medial tibial stress syndrome, the pain is usually located on the medial aspect of the lower leg just posterior to the tibia. Pain is most often associated with which muscle?

a)

posterior tibialis muscle

b)

gastrocnemius muscle

c)

soleus muscle

d)

peroneus longus muscle

83.

What is a common sign of medial tibial stress syndrome?

a)

Pain is usually diffuse about the distal medial tibia and the surrounding soft tissues.

b)

Numbness in the toes only.

c)

Swelling of the entire leg.

d)

Sharp pain in the lateral thigh.

84.

Which of the following is a recommended care for medial tibial stress syndrome?

a)

Immediate surgery

b)

Correction of abnormal foot mechanics

c)

Avoiding all physical activity

d)

Ignoring the pain

85.

Shin contusions occur most frequently in which sport?

a)

soccer

b)

basketball

c)

swimming

d)

tennis

86.

Severe blows to an unprotected shin can lead to chronic inflammation.

a)

True

b)

False

87.

A serious shin contusion can cause what syndrome?

a)

compartment syndrome

b)

shin splints

c)

patellar tendonitis

d)

stress fracture

88.

A soccer player who is not wearing shin guards is kicked on the outside shin of his right leg. After several minutes he again feels some tingling and numbness in his foot. What is the primary concern with this injury, and what steps should be taken to manage this situation?

a)

The primary concern is nerve injury, and the player should be evaluated for possible nerve damage and monitored for worsening symptoms.

b)

The primary concern is dehydration, and the player should drink fluids and rest.

c)

The primary concern is a muscle cramp, and the player should stretch and massage the area.

d)

The primary concern is a broken toe, and the player should tape the toe and continue playing.

89.

A 35-year-old racquetball player feels a pop and severe immediate pain in the back of his left lower leg. He actually felt like someone kicked him, but when he turned around, no one was there. Then he realized he could not push off on his foot. What injury does he most likely have, and how should it be managed?

a)

Achilles tendon rupture; managed with immobilization and referral to orthopedics

b)

Medial meniscus tear; managed with rest and NSAIDs

c)

Plantar fasciitis; managed with stretching and orthotics

d)

Ankle sprain; managed with RICE (rest, ice, compression, elevation)

90.

Compartment syndrome classifications: Which of the following is NOT a type of compartment syndrome?

a)

Acute compartment syndrome

b)

Acute exertional compartment syndrome

c)

Chronic compartment syndrome

d)

Acute tendon syndrome

91.

What is the usual cause of Achilles tendon rupture?

a)

A sudden, forceful plantarflexion of the ankle.

b)

Gradual stretching of the tendon over years.

c)

Direct trauma to the shin bone.

d)

Chronic inflammation of the knee joint.

92.

Achilles tendinitis generally takes a long time to resolve.

a)

True

b)

False

93.

A ruptured Achilles tendon can occur following chronic inflammation.

a)

True

b)

False

94.

What are the movements that take place at the talocrural joint?

a)

Plantarflexion and dorsiflexion.

b)

Abduction and adduction.

c)

Inversion and eversion.

d)

Flexion and extension.

95.

Inversion and eversion occur at the ______ joint.

a)

subtalar

b)

knee

c)

elbow

d)

hip

96.

Which of the following is NOT a recommended treatment for Achilles tendinitis?

a)

Limiting activity

b)

Aggressive stretching

c)

Using anti-inflammatory medication

d)

Ignoring the inflammation

97.

Figure 15-22 shows an Achilles tendon rupture. What does this injury involve?

a)

Tearing and separation of fibers.

b)

Swelling of the ankle joint.

c)

Dislocation of the knee cap.

d)

Fracture of the tibia.