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مراجعه من 6 لين 9

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How many main types of industrial hazards are typically categorized?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

2.

Which of the following is NOT one of the three physical states of chemicals?

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

d)

Plasma

3.

Why is knowing the physical state of a hazardous chemical important?

a)

It determines its cost.

b)

It influences its color and smell.

c)

It determines how it may enter the body.

d)

It indicates its chemical composition.

4.

Which of these is listed as a common workplace chemical hazard?

a)

Laptop radiation

b)

Photocopier toner

c)

Office noise

d)

Ergonomic chairs

5.

What is paramount for ensuring chemical safety in the workplace?

a)

Reducing employee salaries

b)

Information about chemical identities and hazards must be available and understandable.

c)

Increasing production speed

d)

Limiting break times

6.

Which of these is a possible side effect of exposure to hazardous substances?

a)

Improved eyesight

b)

Increased energy

c)

Nervous system disorders

d)

Enhanced immune system

7.

Who is required by law to provide warning labels and Safety Data Sheets with hazardous products?

a)

Employees

b)

Government inspectors

c)

Manufacturers and importers

d)

Local safety volunteers

8.

What crucial information is found on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS)?

a)

Employee salary details

b)

Company profit margins

c)

Emergency first aid instructions

d)

Marketing strategies

9.

According to the document, what is one suggestion for reducing exposure to hazardous substances?

a)

Increase the amount used for efficiency.

b)

Isolate them in separate storage areas.

c)

Store them in employee desks.

d)

Handle them without any ventilation.

10.

Under the Occupational Health and Safety Regulations, what records must be maintained?

a)

Employee personal emails

b)

Details of risk assessments

c)

Daily lunch menus

d)

Office party attendance

11.

What should you do if you suspect you have been exposed to a hazardous substance?

a)

Wait and see if symptoms develop.

b)

See your doctor immediately.

c)

Handle the substance again to confirm.

d)

Notify your colleagues first.

12.

What does GHS stand for?

a)

Global Health Standard

b)

Globally Harmonized System

c)

General Hazard Safety

d)

Governmental Health Service

13.

The GHS was put forward and developed by which organization?

a)

The World Health Organization (WHO)

b)

The International Monetary Fund (IMF)

c)

The United Nations

d)

The European Union

14.

What is the primary purpose of the GHS?

a)

To standardize employee training hours.

b)

To classify, label, and communicate chemical hazard information.

c)

To regulate chemical prices.

d)

To promote chemical use in agriculture.

15.

According to the SDS example in the document, what is the signal word for Sulfuric acid?

a)

Caution

b)

Warning

c)

Danger

d)

Safe

16.

Which section of the SDS provides information on handling the product safely?

a)

The entire SDS

b)

The manufacturer's contact details

c)

The recommended use section

d)

The disposal considerations section

17.

What is a key factor in determining the health effects of a hazardous substance?

a)

Its brand name

b)

The level of exposure (concentration and duration)

c)

Its country of origin

d)

The color of its container

18.

Which of the following is an example of substituting a hazardous substance with a less hazardous alternative?

a)

Using a more concentrated acid

b)

Using a detergent in place of a chlorinated solvent for cleaning

c)

Using a stronger adhesive

d)

Using a larger quantity of a mild substance

19.

What does the GHS use to communicate hazards visually?

a)

Bar graphs

b)

Pictograms

c)

Flow charts

d)

Photographs

20.

Employers must ensure that Safety Data Sheets are available to employees and that a central register of what is established?

a)

Employee attendance

b)

Hazardous substances

c)

First aid kits

d)

Fire extinguishers

21.

What is the main purpose of the GHS?

a)

To standardize chemical prices globally.

b)

To classify, label, and communicate chemical hazards.

c)

To promote the use of more chemicals.

d)

To simplify chemical manufacturing.

22.

In the provided SDS for Sulfuric Acid, what is the listed Signal Word?

a)

Caution

b)

Warning

c)

Danger

d)

Notice

23.

Which section of an SDS would you check to understand what happens if a chemical is mixed with water?

a)

Composition/Ingredients

b)

First-Aid Measures

c)

Stability and Reactivity

d)

Ecological Information

24.

According to the SDS, what is a hazardous decomposition product of Sulfuric Acid?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Hydrogen gas

d)

Methane

25.

The GHS uses what kind of visual symbols to communicate hazard information quickly?

a)

Bar codes

b)

Pictograms

c)

Company logos

d)

Photographs

26.

An example of a GHS pictogram hazard is:

a)

Ergonomic strain

b)

Noise-induced hearing loss

c)

Flammables

d)

Repetitive motion injury

27.

Employers must ensure SDSs are available and maintain a central register for what?

a)

Employee attendance

b)

Hazardous substances

c)

Office equipment

d)

Training videos

28.

The 'Hazardous substances – written records' include details of what?

a)

Each employee's personal goals

b)

The company's annual profits

c)

Risk assessments and health monitoring

d)

The menu for the cafeteria

29.

Approximately what percentage of work-related injuries fall into the category of slips, trips, and falls?

a)

10%

b)

18%

c)

25%

d)

33%

30.

According to the statistics in the document, what percentage of falls happen on the same level?

a)

30%

b)

50%

c)

67%

d)

75%

31.

What percentage of falls are from a height?

a)

18%

b)

30%

c)

67%

d)

33%

32.

Slips happen due to too little friction or traction between what two things?

a)

Hands and gloves

b)

The floor and cleaning equipment

c)

Footwear and the walking surface

d)

Tires and the road

33.

Which of the following is NOT listed as a common cause of slips?

a)

Wet or oily surfaces

b)

Occasional spills

c)

Loose, unanchored rugs

d)

Uncovered cables

34.

What is the primary event that causes a trip?

a)

Your hand slips from a railing.

b)

Your foot collides with an object.

c)

You become dizzy and lose balance.

d)

The floor surface is too slippery.

35.

Which of these is a common cause of tripping?

a)

High humidity

b)

Poor lighting

c)

Loud noises

d)

Cold temperatures

36.

What is described as the first and most fundamental level of preventing falls due to slips and trips?

a)

Installing new flooring

b)

Providing proper footwear

c)

Good housekeeping

d)

Employee training seminars

37.

Which of these actions is part of good housekeeping?

a)

Cleaning spills at the end of the shift

b)

Leaving drawers open for easy access

c)

Mopping or sweeping debris from floors

d)

Using the cheapest cleaning products available

38.

What is a recommended action for dealing with mats, rugs, and carpets that do not lay flat?

a)

Removing them permanently

b)

Securing them with tacking or taping

c)

Ignoring them if they are in a low-traffic area

d)

Placing heavy furniture on them

39.

The second level of preventing slips and trips involves:

a)

Disciplining careless employees

b)

Changing or modifying walking surfaces

c)

Increasing insurance coverage

d)

Reducing work hours

40.

What is a critical thing to remember about high-tech flooring?

a)

It never needs to be cleaned.

b)

It is too expensive for most workplaces.

c)

It requires good housekeeping as much as any other flooring.

d)

It completely eliminates the need for other safety measures.

41.

In workplaces with oily, wet, or outdoor conditions, prevention should focus on:

a)

Working more quickly

b)

Selecting proper footwear

c)

Installing air conditioning

d)

Using only senior employees

42.

Properly fitting footwear helps to prevent what?

a)

Bad odors

b)

Fatigue

c)

Electrical hazards

d)

Communication issues

43.

How are confined spaces generally defined in terms of entry and exit?

a)

They have large, open archways.

b)

They have small openings.

c)

They have multiple emergency exits.

d)

They have automated doors.

44.

What is a key characteristic of a confined space regarding occupancy?

a)

They are designed for continuous occupancy.

b)

They are not designed to be occupied continuously.

c)

They are intended as primary workstations.

d)

They are meant for large groups of people.

45.

Which of the following is an example of a confined space?

a)

An open-plan office

b)

A warehouse floor

c)

A storage tank

d)

A cafeteria

46.

Why are confined spaces usually not ventilated?

a)

Ventilation is too expensive.

b)

It is not a requirement for their normal operation.

c)

Workers prefer still air.

d)

Ventilation would damage the contents.

47.

When should temporary ventilation be provided in a confined space?

a)

Never, it's not necessary.

b)

Only during winter months.

c)

When worker entry is necessary.

d)

Only if a manager is present.

48.

What does OSHA use the term 'permit-required confined space' (permit space) to describe?

a)

Any space larger than 100 cubic feet.

b)

A confined space that requires an entry fee.

c)

A confined space that has one or more specific hazardous characteristics.

d)

A space that has been inspected in the last year.

49.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a permit-required confined space?

a)

It contains comfortable seating.

b)

It has a potential hazardous atmosphere.

c)

It is painted a bright safety color.

d)

It has multiple large entry points.

50.

A confined space that contains material with the potential to engulf an entrant is classified as:

a)

A low-risk area

b)

A permit-required confined space

c)

An office space

d)

A recreational area

51.

A confined space with walls that converge inward, potentially trapping a worker, is considered:

a)

Perfectly safe

b)

A permit-required confined space

c)

An ergonomic hazard

d)

A fire hazard only

52.

What type of hazard, other than atmospheric or engulfment, would make a confined space 'permit-required'?

a)

The presence of natural light

b)

Any other recognized safety or health hazard, like unguarded machinery

c)

The color of the walls

d)

The age of the structure

53.

According to the document, where are falls from an elevation (like ladders or roofs) discussed?

a)

In the Slips, Trips, and Falls document.

b)

In the Safety Belts, Harnesses, and Lanyards document.

c)

In the Footwear Safety document.

d)

They are not covered in any other document.

54.

What are the three elements of the Fire Triangle?

a)

Heat, Smoke, Fuel

b)

Fuel, Oxygen, Ignition Source

c)

Wood, Paper, Electrical

d)

Spark, Air, Gasoline

55.

Which class of fire involves flammable liquids like gasoline or oil?

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class C

d)

Class D

56.

Which type of fire extinguisher should NOT be used on electrical fires?

a)

Carbon Dioxide

b)

Dry Powder

c)

Water

d)

Foam

57.

What is the most common cause of death in a fire?

a)

Heat and flames

b)

Structural collapse

c)

Smoke and toxic gases

d)

Panic

58.

Which fire extinguisher is suitable for Class A, B, and C fires?

a)

Water

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Dry Powder (ABC)

d)

Wet Chemical

59.

What does the P.A.S.S. method stand for?

a)

Prevent, Alert, Secure, Save

b)

Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep

c)

Plan, Act, Suppress, Secure

d)

Protect, Assess, Spray, Stop

60.

Which system holds water back using compressed air until needed?

a)

Wet-pipe sprinkler system

b)

Deluge system

c)

Dry-pipe sprinkler system

d)

Pre-action system

61.

What is the purpose of a hot-work permit?

a)

To authorize use of heaters

b)

To control fires from sparks or open flames

c)

To schedule fire drills

d)

To inspect electrical panels

62.

Which of the following is a static water source?

a)

Fire hydrant

b)

Municipal water main

c)

Lake or pond

d)

Water tender

63.

Which type of fire hydrant is used in cold climates?

a)

Wet-barrel hydrant

b)

Dry-barrel hydrant

c)

Blue-top hydrant

d)

High-pressure hydrant

64.

What percentage of industrial fires are caused by arson?

a)

5%

b)

13%

c)

25%

d)

40%

65.

Which fire class involves energized electrical equipment?

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class C

d)

Class K

66.

What is the main risk of using water on a flammable liquid fire?

a)

It releases toxic gas

b)

It freezes the fuel

c)

It scatters the fuel and spreads the fire

d)

It causes an explosion

67.

Which of these is a source of ignition?

a)

Wood

b)

Oxygen

c)

Static electricity

d)

Paper

68.

What is the primary goal in a building fire?

a)

Save property

b)

Protect life

c)

Extinguish fire quickly

d)

Prevent smoke damage

69.

Which detector uses ionization to sense fires?

a)

Thermal detector

b)

Flame detector

c)

Photoelectric detector

d)

Ionization detector

70.

What should be done with combustible waste in the workplace?

a)

Store it near exits for easy removal

b)

Collect it frequently and remove from workplace

c)

Use it as insulation material

d)

Burn it during off-hours

71.

What should you avoid using during a fire evacuation?

a)

Stairs

b)

Elevators

c)

Fire escapes

d)

Emergency exits

72.

Which fire suppression system is used for cooking oil fires?

a)

Carbon Dioxide

b)

Dry Chemical

c)

Wet Chemical

d)

Water Spray

73.

What is a key element of fire prevention in facilities?

a)

Good housekeeping

b)

Using elevators

c)

Storing fuel near ignition sources

d)

Turning off alarms

74.

Which of these is a flammable gas?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Propane (cooking gas)

d)

Carbon Dioxide

75.

What does a pre-action sprinkler system do?

a)

Releases water only where fire is detected

b)

Floods the entire area immediately

c)

Uses foam instead of water

d)

Works only manually

76.

Which type of portable fire extinguisher can be dangerous in enclosed spaces?

a)

Water extinguisher

b)

Carbon dioxide extinguisher

c)

Dry powder extinguisher

d)

Wet chemical extinguisher

77.

What is the main function of ventilation during a fire?

a)

To spread the fire

b)

To remove smoke and toxic gases

c)

To increase oxygen for the fire

d)

To cool the building structure

78.

Which type of portable extinguisher is safe for metal fires?

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class C

d)

Class D

79.

What is the definition of machinery according to the document?

a)

A device that uses electricity

b)

An assembly of linked parts, at least one of which moves

c)

Any tool used in construction

d)

Equipment that produces noise

80.

Which of the following is a mechanical hazard?

a)

Stress

b)

Noise

c)

Entanglement

d)

Radiation

81.

What should be done before using a machine in some cases?

a)

Clean the machine

b)

Conduct a risk assessment

c)

Change the operator

d)

Increase the speed

82.

Which of these is a non-mechanical hazard?

a)

Cutting

b)

Shearing

c)

Vibration

d)

Crushing

83.

What is the first step in working safely with machinery?

a)

Identify who will use the machine

b)

Understand how the machine is designed

c)

Estimate the risk

d)

Use protective measures

84.

Which factor is considered when estimating risk?

a)

Color of the machine

b)

Severity of possible injuries

c)

Brand of the machine

d)

Age of the operator

85.

What type of injury can result from a high-pressure fluid injection?

a)

Burn

b)

Injection of fluid into the body

c)

Electric shock

d)

Frostbite

86.

Rotating shafts can be dangerous because they can:

a)

Change color

b)

Emit radiation

c)

Grip clothing

d)

Produce gas

87.

Which of the following is an example of a rotating mechanism?

a)

Hammer

b)

Flywheel

c)

Screwdriver

d)

Paint sprayer

88.

What should be done if a hazard cannot be eliminated?

a)

Ignore it

b)

Use protective measures

c)

Stop using the machine

d)

Increase workload

89.

Which of these is a psychosocial hazard?

a)

Entrapment

b)

Stress

c)

Vibration

d)

Shearing

90.

What does safeguarding machinery help with?

a)

Increasing speed

b)

Reducing cost

c)

Safe design, installation, and use

d)

Making it louder

91.

A loose sleeve getting caught in a moving part is an example of:

a)

Cutting

b)

Entanglement

c)

Stabbing

d)

Friction

92.

Which of these is not a mechanical hazard?

a)

Impact

b)

Crushing

c)

Noise

d)

Shearing

93.

Why is it important to identify who will use the machine?

a)

To assign blame

b)

To determine frequency and user skill level

c)

To choose the machine color

d)

To calculate salary

94.

What type of motion can be dangerous even if it is smooth and slow?

a)

Linear motion

b)

Rotating motion

c)

Vibrating motion

d)

Static position

95.

Which of the following is a source of high-pressure fluid hazard?

a)

Sandpaper

b)

Hydraulic system

c)

Hand saw

d)

Glue

96.

What should be done after applying protective measures?

a)

Stop maintenance

b)

Re-assess the risk

c)

Sell the machine

d)

Increase operating speed

97.

Which injury involves two moving parts moving across one another?

a)

Cutting

b)

Shearing

c)

Puncture

d)

Abrasion

98.

What is the final step in the risk assessment process if the risk is not controlled?

a)

Ignore the risk

b)

Repeat the process

c)

Fire the operator

d)

Use the machine less