wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Animal Science Fundamentals: Multiple Choice Questions 1-17

Total questions: 68

Worksheet time: 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What anatomical term refers to the belly or underside of the body?

a)

Dorsal

b)

Ventral

c)

Cranial

d)

Caudal

2.

What is the term for an animal’s genetic makeup?

a)

Genotype

b)

Allele

c)

Phenotype

d)

Chromosome

3.

Which reproductive technology involves placing fertilized embryos into females?

a)

Estrus synchronization

b)

Cloning

c)

Embryo transfer

d)

Artificial insemination

4.

Vibrissae is the scientific term for which of the following?

a)

Skin

b)

Tail

c)

Hooves

d)

Whiskers

5.

Which part of the digestive system is unique to ruminants?

a)

Rumen

b)

Stomach

c)

Esophagus

d)

Small intestine

6.

Which of the following is produced by the liver, stored in the gallbladder and secreted into the small intestine to aid in fat digestion?

a)

Gizzard

b)

Mucus

c)

Bile

d)

Saliva

7.

Which of the following species would NOT have a reticular groove?

a)

Horse

b)

Cattle

c)

Sheep

d)

Goat

8.

Which of the following minerals should be fed in larger amounts?

a)

Manganese

b)

Calcium

c)

Selenium

d)

Zinc

9.

What nutrient provides 2.25 times more energy than carbohydrates?

a)

Vitamins

b)

Lipids

c)

Water

d)

Protein

10.

EPD stands for which of the following?

a)

Executed Phenotype Differential

b)

Expected Progeny Difference

c)

Expected Phenotype Difference

d)

Expected Progeny Differential

11.

Controlled Intravaginal Drug Release (CIDRs) devices release which of the following hormones in the bloodstreams of the females in an effort to synchronize estrus?

a)

Progesterone

b)

Estrogen

c)

Testosterone

d)

Luteinizing hormone

12.

Diarrhea, straining, loss of appetite and fever are symptoms common with which of the following diseases?

a)

White muscle disease

b)

Coccidiosis

c)

Haemonchus contortus

d)

Milk fever

13.

Which of the following parasites are also called blood worms?

a)

Strongyles

b)

Screwworms

c)

Ascarids

d)

Pinworms

14.

Which of the following procedures uses a burdizzo?

a)

Castration

b)

Dehorning

c)

Docking

d)

Lancing an abscess

15.

Which of the following is a side effect of docking a lamb’s tail too short?

a)

Diarrhea

b)

Rectal prolapse

c)

Ricketts

d)

Lameness

16.

The “tenting” method is commonly used for which of the following types of injection techniques?

a)

Intramuscular

b)

Subcutaneous

c)

Intravenous

d)

Modified-live

17.

What point helps handlers predict animal movement?

a)

Pressure point

b)

Center of gravity

c)

Reflex center

d)

Point of balance

18.

Which of the following is used to determine the fineness, or grade, of wool?

a)

Clean yield

b)

Character and color

c)

Staple length

d)

Micron diameter

19.

When compared to cow’s milk, goat’s milk is which of the following?

a)

Lower in butterfat content

b)

Less easily digested by humans

c)

Higher in butterfat content

d)

More easily digested by humans

20.

Which of the following is NOT a typical identification method for livestock animals?

a)

Freeze branding

b)

GPS tracking

c)

Ear notching

d)

Tattooing

21.

In freeze branding, the branding iron is chilled with which of the following?

a)

Cooling compound

b)

Frozen salt

c)

Liquid nitrogen

d)

Ice water

22.

Toe-punching is an identification method used for which of the following species?

a)

Swine

b)

Cattle

c)

Chicken

d)

Horse

23.

What is the primary determination of beef quality grades?

a)

Maturity

b)

Color of lean

c)

Firmness

d)

Marbling

24.

What is the most common fencing used for goats?

a)

Electric tape

b)

Barbed wire

c)

Woven wire

d)

Chain-link

25.

Match the following: Process which brings about the similarities and differences between parents and offspring.

a)

Heritability

b)

Heredity

c)

Genes

d)

Genetics

26.

Match the following: Proportion of observed variation in a particular trait which can be inherited due to genetic factors.

a)

Genes

b)

Genetics

c)

Heredity

d)

Heritability

27.

Match the following: Science of heredity and variation.

a)

Heritability

b)

Genes

c)

Genetics

d)

Heredity

28.

Match the following: Smallest unit of inheritance.

a)

Heredity

b)

Genetics

c)

Heritability

d)

Genes

29.

Hudson raises blackface show lambs and wants to improve his herd by purchasing a ram descended from a champion sire called White Rock. Which selection criterion is he using?

a)

Visual appraisal of conformation

b)

Expected progeny differences

c)

Pedigree and ancestry records

d)

Current performance test data

30.

Which is a benefit of estrus synchronization in beef cattle?

a)

Increases weaning weights uniformly

b)

Results in heavier yearling weights

c)

Increases milk production consistently

d)

Allows for easier parturition

31.

Another benefit of estrus synchronization in beef cattle is the ability to:

a)

Use embryo transfer programs

b)

Stop ovulation permanently

c)

Eliminate all calving problems

d)

Replace all natural breeding

32.

Estrus synchronization helps producers by:

a)

Increasing gestation length

b)

Eliminating heat detection entirely

c)

Reducing feed intake drastically

d)

Helping control ovulation timing

33.

Which outcome is most directly improved by estrus synchronization?

a)

Average daily gain of bulls

b)

Uniformity of weaning weights

c)

Wool fiber diameter ranges

d)

Total milk yield per lactation

34.

Match surgical procedures to species most commonly performed. Which species is most associated with teeth clipping?

a)

Sheep on pasture

b)

Swine in farrowing

c)

Goats in dairy barns

d)

Cattle in feedlots

35.

Which disorder best matches cows that are staggering and uncoordinated while walking across pasture?

a)

Hypotrichosis in calves

b)

Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis

c)

Grass tetany in cattle

d)

Porcine stress syndrome

36.

On a medication label, the statement “For use in healthy pregnant swine as an aid in the control of disease in piglets caused by Clostridium perfringens Type C and K88, K99, 987P, and F41 piliated Escherichia coli.” is an example of:

a)

Expiration date listing

b)

Indication statement text

c)

Withdrawal period note

d)

Storage requirement text

37.

What is the correct order of structural organization in animals?

a)

Organs → Cells → Tissues → Organ Systems → Organism

b)

Cells → Tissues → Organs → Organ Systems → Organism

c)

Cells → Organs → Tissues → Organ Systems → Organism

d)

Tissues → Cells → Organs → Organ Systems → Organism

38.

Using the ear notches illustrated on the pig head diagram, which litter and pig number is shown?

a)

18 – 6

b)

12 – 10

c)

81 – 13

d)

28 – 4

39.

To help prevent grass tetany in cows grazing wheat pasture, which mineral supplement should be supplied?

a)

Phosphorus supplement

b)

Magnesium supplement

c)

Calcium supplement

d)

Zinc supplement

40.

Vaccinating goat kids with Clostridium perfringens type C and D toxoid safeguards primarily against:

a)

Enterotoxemia disease

b)

Encephalitis disease

c)

Lymphadenitis disease

d)

Coccidiosis disease

41.

Which species is most commonly associated with dehorning as a basic surgical procedure?

a)

Cattle in beef herds

b)

Swine in nurseries

c)

Sheep in range bands

d)

Poultry in broiler houses

42.

Which species is most commonly associated with tail docking as a routine procedure in the table provided?

a)

Goats primarily

b)

Cattle primarily

c)

Swine primarily

d)

Sheep primarily

43.

Which disease is listed for cattle in the disease matching table that involves ingestion of metal objects causing illness?

a)

Hardware disease

b)

Erysipelas disease

c)

Leptospirosis

d)

Milk fever

44.

Which disease appears under both cattle and sheep in the disease table and can affect multiple species?

a)

Foot-and-mouth

b)

Bovine viral diarrhea

c)

Erysipelas only

d)

Leptospirosis

45.

Milk fever is categorized under which species in the disease matching activity shown?

a)

Cattle only

b)

Swine only

c)

Sheep only

d)

Cattle and sheep

46.

In estrus synchronization programs, which benefit most directly supports reproductive technologies such as artificial insemination?

a)

Increases yearling weights

b)

Facilitates reproductive technologies

c)

Extends calving intervals

d)

Boosts carcass marbling

47.

When matching procedures to species, which procedure can be correctly matched with more than one species according to the directions?

a)

Only tail docking

b)

Only dehorning

c)

Only castration

d)

Any listed procedure

48.

Match the common sheep diseases to their primary cause using the word bank.

a)

Strain of clostridium tetani → Tetanus

b)

Strains of clostridium perfringens types C and D → Overeating disease

c)

Imbalance of calcium and phosphorus → Urinary calculi

d)

Deficiency of selenium or vitamin E → White muscle disease

49.

McKinley owns and manages a purebred Hampshire swine operation. She retains all superior gilts and sells the remaining females to other operations as replacements. She markets her boar progeny to commercial producers with confinement operation facilities. Of the following, which best describes McKinley’s type of swine operation?

a)

Commercial operation

b)

Replacement operation

c)

Seedstock operation

d)

Production operation

50.

Match the following swine housing locations with the correct use using the word bank provided below. Use of Location → Swine Housing Locations: Housing for pregnant females; Housing for sows which are near parturition; Housing where pigs are fed to a market weight; Housing where piglets are weaned.

a)

Gestation housing

b)

Farrowing barn

c)

Finishing barn

d)

Nursery

51.

Merah’s flock is experiencing reduced conception rates, fewer multiple births and reduced milk production. She feels like this is due to an energy deficiency in their diet. Which of the following would she most likely add to their diet to increase the energy?

a)

Protein

b)

Carbohydrate

c)

Vitamins

d)

Minerals

52.

Match the following term with the correct definition using the word bank provided below. Definitions: Grains and by-products used by animals; Mixture of feedstuffs available for the animal to provide the nutrients; Chemical compounds animals require for energy, structure and health; Total amount of material an animal would consume in one day.

a)

Feed

b)

Diet

c)

Nutrient

d)

Ration

53.

Using the word bank, label the parts of the ruminant stomach in the diagram.

a)

Abomasum

b)

Omasum

c)

Reticulum

d)

Rumen

54.

Which of the following serves as a bypass between the esophagus and the abomasum allowing young ruminants to consume and digest milk?

a)

Cecum

b)

Bolus

c)

Reticular groove

d)

Proximal colon

55.

What is the ideal weight of market-ready swine?

a)

280 to 290 pounds (127 to 132 kg)

b)

350 to 450 pounds (159 to 204 kg)

c)

500 to 600 pounds (227 to 272 kg)

d)

120 to 125 pounds (54 to 57 kg)

56.

Which cattle yield grade provides the highest cutability?

a)

Two

b)

Five

c)

Three

d)

One

57.

Which statement best describes the phrase, “The knee is proximal to the ankle.”?

a)

The knee is near the ankle

b)

The knee is the farthest point from the ankle

c)

The knee is ventral the ankle

d)

The knee is caudal to the ankle

58.

Match the definition with the correct Latin anatomical term.

a)

Abdomen — Caudal; Nearest — Ventral; Stand away from — Dorsal; Tail — Proximal; Back — Distal

b)

Abdomen — Proximal; Nearest — Caudal; Stand away from — Ventral; Tail — Dorsal; Back — Proximal

c)

Abdomen — Dorsal; Nearest — Distal; Stand away from — Proximal; Tail — Ventral; Back — Caudal

d)

Abdomen — Ventral; Nearest — Proximal; Stand away from — Distal; Tail — Caudal; Back — Dorsal

59.

Rank the beef Quality Grades from highest to lowest.

a)

Standard, Prime, Choice, Select

b)

Choice, Prime, Select, Standard

c)

Prime, Select, Choice, Standard

d)

Prime, Choice, Select, Standard

60.

What is the term for high-fiber plant material fed to livestock?

a)

Concentrate

b)

Supplement

c)

Roughage

d)

By-product

61.

Which biosecurity practice involves cleaning boots and isolating animals?

a)

Procedural

b)

Conceptual

c)

Environmental

d)

Structural

62.

Which term means “toward the animal’s back” when describing anatomy?

a)

Distal

b)

Caudal

c)

Dorsal

d)

Ventral

63.

Which pair correctly matches direction with meaning?

a)

Caudal — toward the head

b)

Proximal — closer to the body

c)

Distal — toward the midline

d)

Ventral — toward the back

64.

A cut on a cow’s lower leg is described as distal to the knee because it is

a)

toward the back compared to the knee

b)

closer to the body than the knee

c)

farther from the body than the knee

d)

toward the head compared to the knee

65.

Which feed type is energy-dense and low in fiber for fast growth?

a)

Supplement feed like minerals

b)

By-product feed like beet pulp

c)

Roughage feed like hay

d)

Concentrate feed like grains

66.

Which practice most directly prevents disease spread between pens on a farm?

a)

Housing new animals immediately together

b)

Allowing visitors unrestricted access

c)

Using footbaths at entry points

d)

Sharing equipment without washing

67.

Which sequence correctly orders these anatomical terms from headward to tailward focus?

a)

Cranial, Dorsal, Caudal, Ventral

b)

Cranial, Caudal, Dorsal, Ventral

c)

Caudal, Cranial, Ventral, Dorsal

d)

Cranial, Caudal, Ventral, Dorsal

68.

A vet notes a wound is on the ventral side of a sheep. Where is it?

a)

Along the back surface

b)

Along the belly surface

c)

Near the tail region

d)

Near the limb’s far end