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Respiratory Conditions Quiz

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A client with allergic rhinitis reports persistent nasal itching and sneezing. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate to reduce allergen exposure?

a)

Encourage frequent nose blowing

b)

Advise use of topical nasal decongestants daily

c)

Teach avoidance of known allergens

d)

Promote high-humidity environments

2.

A child with viral rhinitis has clear nasal discharge and low-grade fever. Which finding indicates improvement?

a)

Thick yellow nasal secretions

b)

Decreased nasal congestion

c)

Increased coughing

d)

Facial pain

3.

A client with acute rhinosinusitis reports unilateral facial pain that worsens when leaning forward. Which complication should the nurse monitor for?

a)

Otitis media

b)

Meningitis

c)

Epistaxis

d)

Laryngospasm

4.

Which nursing assessment best differentiates viral rhinitis from bacterial sinusitis?

a)

Presence of fever

b)

Duration of symptoms

c)

Nasal congestion

d)

Sore throat

5.

A patient with rhinitis uses topical decongestants for 10 days. The nurse suspects rebound congestion when the patient reports:

a)

Dry nasal mucosa

b)

Persistent congestion

c)

Reduced sneezing

d)

Headache

6.

Which teaching is most important for a client with viral rhinitis?

a)

Complete the full course of antibiotics

b)

Increase fluid intake

c)

Avoid antihistamines

d)

Restrict physical activity

7.

A client with sinusitis complains of tooth pain. The nurse understands this is due to:

a)

Referred pain from maxillary sinuses

b)

Gum inflammation

c)

Nerve damage

d)

Poor oral hygiene

8.

Which intervention helps promote sinus drainage?

a)

Supine positioning

b)

Warm moist compresses

c)

Cold packs

d)

Fluid restriction

9.

A nurse is assessing a client with suspected sinusitis. Which finding supports the diagnosis?

a)

Clear rhinorrhea

b)

Loss of smell

c)

Facial tenderness

d)

Hoarseness

10.

Which medication is most appropriate for symptom relief in viral rhinitis?

a)

Broad-spectrum antibiotics

b)

Antihistamines

c)

Corticosteroids long-term

d)

Antifungals

11.

A client with sinusitis is at greatest risk for which complication if untreated?

a)

Bronchospasm

b)

Orbital cellulitis

c)

Tonsillitis

d)

Nasal fracture

12.

Which assessment finding suggests chronic rather than acute sinusitis?

a)

Sudden facial pain

b)

Fever

c)

Symptoms lasting >12 weeks

d)

Purulent drainage

13.

A client with streptococcal pharyngitis should be monitored for which complication?

a)

Glomerulonephritis

b)

Otitis externa

c)

Laryngitis

d)

Sinus polyps

14.

Which finding suggests bacterial rather than viral pharyngitis?

a)

Cough

b)

Hoarseness

c)

White tonsillar exudates

d)

Runny nose

15.

A child with tonsillitis has difficulty swallowing. Which nursing action has the highest priority?

a)

Encourage oral fluids

b)

Maintain airway patency

c)

Administer antibiotics

d)

Obtain throat culture

16.

Which symptom most strongly suggests a peritonsillar abscess?

a)

Bilateral sore throat

b)

Trismus and muffled voice

c)

Clear nasal drainage

d)

Hoarseness

17.

The nurse notes uvular deviation in a client. This finding is associated with:

a)

Laryngitis

b)

Acute sinusitis

c)

Peritonsillar abscess

d)

Viral pharyngitis

18.

A client with pharyngitis asks why antibiotics are not prescribed. The best response is:

a)

"They cause resistance."

b)

"Most cases are viral."

c)

"They worsen symptoms."

d)

"They delay recovery."

19.

Which nursing intervention reduces throat discomfort in tonsillitis?

a)

Cold fluids

b)

Dry air

c)

Voice rest avoidance

d)

Supine positioning

20.

After tonsillectomy, which assessment requires immediate action?

a)

Mild throat pain

b)

Frequent swallowing

c)

Low-grade fever

d)

White patches on throat

21.

A client with suspected peritonsillar abscess is at risk for:

a)

Airway obstruction

b)

Nasal fracture

c)

Epistaxis

d)

Sleep apnea

22.

Which finding differentiates peritonsillar abscess from tonsillitis?

a)

Fever

b)

Severe unilateral pain

c)

Dysphagia

d)

Erythema

23.

The nurse anticipates which treatment for peritonsillar abscess?

a)

Antihistamines

b)

Surgical drainage

c)

Observation only

d)

Voice therapy

24.

Which sign suggests dehydration in a client with severe pharyngitis?

a)

Increased saliva

b)

Dry mucous membranes

c)

Productive cough

d)

Hoarse voice

25.

Teaching after tonsillectomy should include avoiding:

a)

Cold fluids

b)

Straws

c)

Soft foods

d)

Analgesics

26.

A teacher with acute laryngitis should be instructed to:

a)

Whisper frequently

b)

Rest the voice

c)

Use lozenges continuously

d)

Speak loudly

27.

Which finding in laryngitis suggests need for further evaluation?

a)

Hoarseness lasting 2 days

b)

Mild sore throat

c)

Hoarseness >3 weeks

d)

Dry cough

28.

A client with laryngeal obstruction shows inspiratory stridor. What is the nurse's priority?

a)

Assess pain

b)

Maintain airway

c)

Administer antibiotics

d)

Provide fluids

29.

Which early sign of laryngeal cancer should be reported immediately?

a)

Persistent hoarseness

b)

Sore throat

c)

Dry cough

d)

Nasal congestion

30.

A patient with laryngeal cancer undergoes total laryngectomy. Which nursing diagnosis is priority post-op?

a)

Disturbed body image

b)

Impaired verbal communication

c)

Risk for infection

d)

Ineffective airway clearance

31.

The nurse explains that smoking contributes to laryngeal cancer by:

a)

Causing viral mutations

b)

Increasing acid reflux

c)

Irritating laryngeal mucosa

d)

Reducing immunity

32.

Which finding indicates worsening laryngeal obstruction?

a)

Hoarseness

b)

Aphonia

c)

Stridor at rest

d)

Dry throat

33.

A client with partial laryngectomy is at risk for:

a)

Aspiration

b)

Epistaxis

c)

Sinusitis

d)

Rhinitis

34.

Which communication method is most appropriate after total laryngectomy?

a)

Whispering

b)

Esophageal speech

c)

Yelling

d)

Lip reading only

35.

A nurse caring for a laryngectomy patient notes increased mucus. This is due to:

a)

Infection

b)

Loss of nasal humidification

c)

Dehydration

d)

Aspiration

36.

Which teaching reduces airway complications after laryngectomy?

a)

Avoid humidification

b)

Perform stoma care

c)

Restrict fluids

d)

Sleep supine

37.

A client with suspected laryngeal cancer also reports dysphagia. This indicates:

a)

Early disease

b)

Tumor progression

c)

Viral infection

d)

Allergic reaction

38.

The nurse identifies that chronic laryngitis increases risk for:

a)

Sinusitis

b)

Laryngeal cancer

c)

Epistaxis

d)

Sleep apnea

39.

A client with obstructive sleep apnea is at highest risk for:

a)

Hypotension

b)

Pulmonary hypertension

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Dehydration

40.

Which finding supports a diagnosis of obstructive sleep apnea?

a)

Daytime somnolence

b)

Productive cough

c)

Hoarseness

d)

Epistaxis

41.

The most effective long-term treatment for moderate OSA is:

a)

Antibiotics

b)

CPAP therapy

c)

Antihistamines

d)

Oxygen therapy

42.

A nurse teaching CPAP therapy should emphasize:

a)

Use only when tired

b)

Consistent nightly use

c)

Use during naps only

d)

Avoid humidification

43.

A client presents with epistaxis. The first nursing action is to:

a)

Apply ice to neck

b)

Tilt head backward

c)

Sit upright and lean forward

d)

Pack the nose

44.

Which condition increases risk for epistaxis?

a)

Hypotension

b)

Anticoagulant use

c)

Diabetes mellitus

d)

Asthma

45.

A client with nasal obstruction complains of mouth breathing. Which complication may develop?

a)

Laryngitis

b)

Dry mucosa

c)

Sinus polyps

d)

Epistaxis

46.

After nasal packing, the nurse monitors for:

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Toxic shock syndrome

c)

Aspiration pneumonia

d)

Laryngospasm

47.

Which sign suggests septal hematoma after nasal fracture?

a)

Clear drainage

b)

Persistent nasal obstruction

c)

Facial bruising

d)

Epistaxis

48.

asal trauma?

a)

Thick yellow drainage

b)

Bloody mucus

c)

Clear watery drainage

d)

Purulent discharge

49.

A client with chronic nasal obstruction is most at risk for:

a)

Sinusitis

b)

Tonsillitis

c)

Laryngitis

d)

Epiglottitis

50.

A nurse recognizes that obesity contributes to OSA primarily by:

a)

Increasing nasal secretions

b)

Narrowing airway during sleep

c)

Causing sinus infection

d)

Increasing lung volume

51.

A patient with epistaxis has posterior bleeding. Which finding supports this?

a)

Blood from one nostril

b)

Blood in oropharynx

c)

Mild bleeding

d)

Pain at septum

52.

Which teaching helps prevent recurrent epistaxis?

a)

Frequent nose picking

b)

Humidified air

c)

Daily nasal sprays

d)

Forceful sneezing

53.

The nurse suspects nasal obstruction is caused by polyps when noting:

a)

Unilateral pain

b)

Pale, grape-like masses

c)

Severe epistaxis

d)

Fever

54.

A client with untreated OSA is at risk for which cardiac condition?

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Atrial fibrillation

c)

Endocarditis

d)

Myocarditis

55.

A post-operative client develops atelectasis. Which nursing intervention is most effective?

a)

Bed rest

b)

Incentive spirometry

c)

Fluid restriction

d)

Oxygen only

56.

Which assessment finding indicates atelectasis?

a)

Crackles

b)

Decreased breath sounds

c)

Wheezing

d)

Productive cough

57.

Acute tracheobronchitis is most commonly caused by:

a)

Bacteria

b)

Fungi

c)

Viruses

d)

Parasites

58.

A client with tracheobronchitis has a dry cough. The nurse should recommend:

a)

Smoking

b)

Increased fluids

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Bed rest only

59.

Which finding differentiates pneumonia from bronchitis?

a)

Cough

b)

Fever

c)

Consolidation on x-ray

d)

Dyspnea

60.

A nurse suspects aspiration pneumonia in a client with:

a)

Recent stroke

b)

Allergic rhinitis

c)

Asthma

d)

Sinusitis

61.

Which sign indicates worsening pneumonia?

a)

Productive cough

b)

Increasing oxygen needs

c)

Mild fever

d)

Fatigue

62.

A client with community-acquired pneumonia should be positioned:

a)

Supine

b)

Prone

c)

Semi-Fowler's

d)

Trendelenburg

63.

A patient with PTB presents with weight loss and night sweats. Which nursing action is priority?

a)

Provide nutrition teaching

b)

Initiate airborne precautions

c)

Administer antipyretics

d)

Encourage fluids

64.

Which test confirms pulmonary tuberculosis?

a)

Chest x-ray

b)

Sputum culture

c)

Tuberculin skin test

d)

CBC

65.

A nurse teaching PTB therapy emphasizes that medications must be taken:

a)

Until symptoms resolve

b)

For several months

c)

Only when coughing

d)

Once daily for a week

66.

Which finding indicates medication non-adherence in PTB?

a)

Persistent cough

b)

Weight gain

c)

Night sweats

d)

Missed follow-ups

67.

A client with HIV is most susceptible to infection when:

a)

CD4 count is low

b)

Viral load is undetectable

c)

Hemoglobin is low

d)

Platelets are low

68.

Which infection is an opportunistic infection in HIV?

a)

Influenza

b)

Pneumocystis pneumonia

c)

Sinusitis

d)

Bronchitis

69.

A nurse teaching HIV prevention should emphasize:

a)

Antibiotic use

b)

Safe sexual practices

c)

Vaccination only

d)

Isolation

70.

A client with HIV reports oral white patches. The nurse suspects:

a)

Leukoplakia

b)

Oral candidiasis

c)

Aphthous ulcers

d)

Laryngitis

71.

Which lab result best reflects HIV disease progression?

a)

RBC count

b)

CD4 count

c)

ESR

d)

Hematocrit

72.

A client with Type 1 DM develops pneumonia. Which complication is increased risk?

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Diabetic ketoacidosis

c)

Hypertension

d)

Bradycardia

73.

A nurse caring for a client with Type 1 DM and infection should expect:

a)

Decreased insulin needs

b)

Increased insulin needs

c)

Stable glucose levels

d)

Reduced monitoring

74.

Which symptom of pneumonia may be blunted in HIV clients?

a)

Cough

b)

Fever

c)

Dyspnea

d)

Chest pain

75.

A nurse recognizes that atelectasis increases risk for:

a)

Pneumonia

b)

Epistaxis

c)

Rhinitis

d)

Sleep apnea

76.

A client with acute tracheobronchitis asks for antibiotics. Best response?

a)

"They shorten illness."

b)

"They prevent pneumonia."

c)

"Most cases are viral."

d)

"They reduce coughing."

77.

Which sign suggests respiratory failure in pneumonia?

a)

RR 18/min

b)

Use of accessory muscles

c)

Mild cough

d)

Clear sputum

78.

A client with PTB should cover mouth when coughing to:

a)

Prevent reinfection

b)

Reduce symptoms

c)

Prevent transmission

d)

Improve comfort

79.

Which vaccine is especially important for HIV clients?

a)

BCG

b)

Pneumococcal

c)

Live attenuated vaccines

d)

Smallpox

80.

A nurse notes fruity breath in a Type 1 DM client with infection. This indicates:

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Ketoacidosis

c)

Dehydration

d)

Infection control

81.

Which intervention prevents atelectasis post-surgery?

a)

Shallow breathing

b)

Early ambulation

c)

Fluid restriction

d)

Supine position

82.

A client with pneumonia has pleuritic chest pain. The nurse anticipates pain increases with:

a)

Eating

b)

Deep breathing

c)

Rest

d)

Sitting

83.

Which symptom is most concerning in a client with acute tracheobronchitis?

a)

Dry cough

b)

Wheezing

c)

Hemoptysis

d)

Fatigue

84.

A nurse evaluates TB treatment effectiveness by monitoring:

a)

Weight loss

b)

Sputum negativity

c)

Fever spikes

d)

Cough frequency

85.

Which finding suggests immune suppression in HIV?

a)

Recurrent infections

b)

Weight gain

c)

Hypertension

d)

Bradycardia

86.

A client with Type 1 DM should be taught sick-day rules to:

a)

Stop insulin

b)

Increase carbohydrate intake only

c)

Monitor glucose frequently

d)

Avoid fluids

87.

Which nursing diagnosis is priority in pneumonia?

a)

Imbalanced nutrition

b)

Ineffective airway clearance

c)

Disturbed sleep

d)

Anxiety

88.

A client with HIV and pneumonia is placed in isolation primarily to:

a)

Protect the client

b)

Protect visitors

c)

Reduce workload

d)

Prevent stigma

89.

Which assessment finding suggests atelectasis resolution?

a)

Persistent dyspnea

b)

Improved breath sounds

c)

Fever

d)

Cyanosis

90.

A nurse identifies that smoking worsens pneumonia by:

a)

Increasing appetite

b)

Impairing ciliary function

c)

Raising immunity

d)

Reducing inflammation

91.

A client with PTB asks why treatment is long. Best response?

a)

"To prevent relapse and resistance."

b)

"To relieve symptoms."

c)

"To avoid side effects."

d)

"To shorten isolation."

92.

A Type 1 DM client with infection should test urine for:

a)

Protein

b)

Ketones

c)

Calcium

d)

Sodium

93.

Which sign indicates hypoxia in pneumonia?

a)

Pink lips

b)

Confusion

c)

Warm skin

d)

Bradycardia

94.

A client with HIV is at greatest risk for pneumonia when CD4 is:

a)

>500

b)

300-400

c)

<200

d)

Normal

95.

Which nursing action reduces aspiration risk in pneumonia?

a)

Supine feeding

b)

Upright positioning

c)

Fluid restriction

d)

Bed rest

96.

A nurse caring for tracheobronchitis encourages coughing to:

a)

Reduce fatigue

b)

Clear secretions

c)

Prevent fever

d)

Improve appetite

97.

Which condition is characterized by chronic obstruction of lung airflow?

a)

Asthma

b)

COPD

c)

Bronchitis

d)

Hypercarbia

98.

What is the medical term for a bluish discoloration of the skin due to lack of oxygen?

a)

Emphysema

b)

Cyanosis

c)

Asthma

d)

Respiratory distress

99.

Which term refers to the over-inflation of the lungs due to excessive breathing?

a)

Hyperventilation

b)

Hypoxia

c)

Wheezing

d)

Bronchitis

100.

What is the term for the condition characterized by difficulty in breathing?

a)

Cyanosis

b)

Dyspnea

c)

Hypercarbia

d)

Emphysema