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Dental Assisting Quiz 2 (Chapter 12-32)

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is a small, benign, cauliflower-shaped tumor caused by a virus?

a)

Basal cell carcinoma

b)

Papilloma

c)

Nodule

d)

Sarcoma

2.

Molds and yeasts are examples of which type of microorganism?

a)

Algae

b)

Viruses

c)

Fungi

d)

Protozoa

3.

Which bacterial infection involves the inflammation of the tissue covering the brain and spinal cord?

a)

Meningitis

b)

Tuberculosis

c)

Tetanus

d)

Diphtheria

4.

Which of the following represents the correct order of the chain of infection?

a)

Infectious agent, reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry, susceptible host

b)

Susceptible host, infectious agent, portal of entry, reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission

c)

Portal of entry, infectious agent, reservoir, mode of transmission, susceptible host, portal of exit

d)

Infectious agent, susceptible host, reservoir, portal of entry, mode of transmission, portal of exit

5.

Under standard precautions, which patients are treated as if they are potentially infectious?

a)

All patients

b)

Patients who fail a screening test

c)

Patients with HIV

d)

Patients with hepatitis

6.

Which of the following is NOT recommended while washing your hands?

a)

Leave jewelry on

b)

Wash in a downward motion

c)

Dry hands with a paper towel

d)

Use a paper towel to turn off the faucet

7.

Which process involves removing all microbes from surfaces?

a)

Disinfection

b)

Cleansing

c)

Anaphylaxis

d)

Sterilization

8.

Which of the following is the most common method of sterilization in the dental office?

a)

Steam autoclave sterilization

b)

Liquid chemical sterilization

c)

Dry heat sterilization

d)

Chemical vapor sterilization

9.

Objects that are capable of slicing, cutting, or puncturing the skin are known as which of the following?

a)

Sharps

b)

Nonregulated waste

c)

Cutters

d)

Personal protective equipment

10.

Scrap dental amalgam is considered hazardous waste because it contains which substance?

a)

Lead

b)

Mercury

c)

Glutaraldehyde

d)

Silver nitrate

11.

Which number in the red section of the National Fire Protection Association Label indicates a highly flammable gas or liquid?

a)

4

b)

0

c)

2

d)

3

12.

Which route of administration involves injecting the drug beneath the skin?

a)

Subcutaneous administration

b)

Intravenous administration

c)

Oral administration

d)

Sublingual administration

13.

Which drug is associated with oral cancers, pulling away of gingiva from the teeth, and decay of exposed tooth roots?

a)

Cocaine

b)

Alcohol

c)

Caffeine

d)

Smokeless tobacco

14.

Which class of drugs relieves and controls pain?

a)

Analgesics

b)

Diuretics

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Decongestants

15.

Which of the following is the most common site to palpate pulse?

a)

Carotid artery

b)

Brachial artery

c)

Femoral artery

d)

Radial artery

16.

Normal blood pressure is which of the following (systolic/diastolic)?

a)

<130/90 mm Hg

b)

<120/80 mm Hg

c)

<125/85 mm Hg

d)

<110/70 mm Hg

17.

Which artery is the blood pressure cuff normally placed over?

a)

Femoral artery

b)

Brachial artery

c)

Radial artery

d)

Carotid artery

18.

What does the "A" in the "ABCDs" of life support stand for?

a)

AED

b)

Ambulance

c)

Airway

d)

Axillary

19.

The best way to keep good posture through the day is to use the ________ position.

a)

Anatomic

b)

Trendelenburg

c)

Neutral

d)

Fowler

20.

Which of the following should you NOT do when lifting a heavy object?

a)

Squat or kneel on one knee

b)

Keep your back relaxed so the lower back is slightly curved

c)

Keep the object at arm's length

d)

Use the leg muscles to push yourself up to a standing position

21.

Which instrument is used to measure the depth of the sulcus, the narrow furrow between the gingiva and the teeth?

a)

Explorer

b)

Radiograph

c)

Periodontal probe

d)

Dental mirror

22.

A ________ caries involves two tooth surfaces.

a)

Complex

b)

Compound

c)

Simple

d)

Basic

23.

Which color is used on a tooth diagram to indicate work that has been completed?

a)

Blue

b)

Red

c)

Green

d)

Brown

24.

Which part of the patient record contains a numbered diagram depicting the teeth?

a)

Dental history

b)

Medical history

c)

Privacy form

d)

Dental chart

25.

The question, "How often do you brush or floss?" would be included in which portion of the patient record?

a)

Medical history

b)

Dental history

c)

Consent form

d)

Privacy form

26.

The data for the clinical examination form is typically dictated by whom?

a)

Patient

b)

Dentist

c)

Insurance company

d)

Dental assistant

27.

What should you not do when working with a patient with a hearing disability?

a)

Remain where the patient can see your face

b)

Speak slowly and distinctly

c)

Write down questions or instructions on a note pad

d)

Shout so the patient can better hear you

28.

A small electrical machine that mixes dental materials is which of the following?

a)

Central air compressor

b)

Ultrasonic scaler

c)

Amalgamator

d)

Radiometer

29.

Which instrument uses energy vibrations of 18,000 to 42,000 cycles per second to remove calculus and other deposits from teeth?

a)

Sonic scaler

b)

Ultrasonic scaler

c)

High-volume evacuator

d)

Air-water syringe

30.

Which of the following should be completed first?

a)

Cleaning and disinfecting surfaces in the treatment room

b)

Escorting the patient to the treatment area

c)

Reviewing the patient's medical history with the patient

d)

Positioning the patient in the dental chair

31.

Which dental instrument is used to remove material from caries, such as debris and carious material?

a)

Hatchet

b)

Hoe

c)

Excavator

d)

Chisel

32.

What is the larger, more powerful suction device used to remove large amounts of liquid and debris from the mouth?

a)

High-volume evacuator

b)

Air-water syringe

c)

Saliva ejector

d)

Excavator

33.

Which device is used to stretch and tightly hold the dental dam in place?

a)

Dental dam punch

b)

Dental dam template

c)

Dental dam napkin

d)

Dental dam frame

34.

Which substance is typically used in combination with oxygen for inhalation sedation?

a)

Halothane

b)

Procaine HCl

c)

Lidocaine

d)

Nitrous oxide

35.

X-ray operators should stand at least how far away from the x-ray unit to minimize exposure to radiation?

a)

6 feet

b)

3 feet

c)

1 foot

d)

12 feet

36.

Which of the following is seen in a bitewing radiograph?

a)

Whole tooth

b)

The whole mandibular arch

c)

Portions of both the upper and lower teeth together

d)

The whole maxillary arch

37.

Which occlusal technique yields large images of the maxillary or mandibular arch?

a)

Lateral technique

b)

Cross-sectional technique

c)

Topographic technique

d)

Parallel technique

38.

What item is designed to reduce the amount of radiation a patient is exposed to during extraoral radiography?

a)

Film cassette

b)

Grid

c)

Intensifying screen

d)

Screen film

39.

Which of the following is true of panoramic radiographs?

a)

They are of higher quality than intraoral images

b)

They provide a wide field of vision at relatively low radiation exposure

c)

Patient positioning in the focal trough is not critical

d)

They are less expensive than traditional x-ray units

40.

Identifying landmarks and anomalies on a radiograph is which of the following?

a)

Interpretation

b)

Diagnosis

c)

Development

d)

Processing

41.

What is an erosion?

a)

An inflamed crater in the oral cavity with well-defined margins

b)

Deep grooves or fissures in the tongue

c)

A congenital condition in which the baby is born with teeth that rapidly fall out

d)

A shallow wound with ragged margins that is often caused by friction

42.

What is the difference between a pustule and a blister?

a)

Blisters are larger, whereas pustules are very small

b)

Blisters are filled with fluid, whereas pustules are filled with purulent material

c)

Blisters are benign, whereas pustules are usually malignant

d)

Blisters are very painful, whereas pustules are not painful

43.

What is a macule?

a)

A blood-filled sac under the oral mucosa

b)

A small, elevated area of skin that varies in pigmentation and texture

c)

An area or patch that is colored differently than surrounding tissue

d)

A blister that contains blood

44.

A neoplasm is

a)

A newly erupted tooth.

b)

A plasma-based growth from a bony organ.

c)

A painful ulceration.

d)

Newly formed tissue that serves no obvious purpose.

45.

What condition is associated with Wickham striae?

a)

Nodules

b)

Oral cancers

c)

Lichen planus

d)

Candidiasis

46.

How long will most minor canker sores last?

a)

1 day

b)

1 to 5 days

c)

7 to 10 days

d)

Longer than a month

47.

A patient arrives in the office with swelling caused by a local infection of the streptococcus bacteria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Cellulitis secondary to bacterial infection

b)

Sepsis

c)

Flesh-eating viral infection

d)

Swelling, pain, and inflammation

48.

Oral human papilloma virus infection causes

a)

Intensely painful, bleeding blisters

b)

Small plaques on the mucosa

c)

Early tooth loss

d)

Small warts in the oral cavity

49.

Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis affects which oral structures?

a)

Tongue and palate

b)

Gingiva and teeth

c)

Lips and gingiva

d)

Tongue only

50.

Kaposi sarcoma usually appears as what?

a)

Whitish, raised bumps on the tongue and cheeks

b)

Ulcerative holes in the gingiva

c)

Bluish or purple flat nodules on the palate

d)

Reddish plaques on the tongue

51.

What are erythroplakias?

a)

White, furry growths on the gingiva and tongue

b)

Red patches in the oral cavity that are commonly malignant

c)

Grooves worn into the tooth enamel

d)

Fissures in the gingiva

52.

Define tori.

a)

Bony outgrowths in the oral cavity

b)

Soft tissue flaps in the gingiva

c)

Hard, muscular lumps on the anterior of the tongue

d)

None of the above

53.

What is the common term for ankyloglossia?

a)

Tongue tied

b)

Trench mouth

c)

Cleft palate

d)

Cleft lip

54.

Ankylosis is what?

a)

Extra teeth in the oral cavity

b)

A lack of teeth in the oral cavity

c)

When the dentin of deciduous teeth fuses with the alveolar bone

d)

A tooth within a tooth

55.

A disease acquired in a medical setting is known as a/an

a)

Health care professional infection.

b)

Nosocomial infection.

c)

Etiological infection.

d)

Health care–related illness.

56.

Anton Van Leeuwenhoek is best known for what?

a)

Linking bacteria to specific diseases

b)

Discovering the human immunodeficiency virus

c)

Inventing the sterilization process

d)

Observing microorganisms in a drop of rainwater

57.

The Koch postulates help determine if

a)

A bacteria is responsible for a particular disease.

b)

A bacteria is anaerobic or aerobic.

c)

A virus is responsible for a particular disease.

d)

None of the above.

58.

What are pathogens?

a)

Another word for microorganisms

b)

Simple aquatic plants

c)

Microorganisms that cause disease

d)

Dead white blood cells

59.

An etiologic agent does what?

a)

Prevents disease

b)

Identifies a disease-causing organism

c)

Causes disease

d)

Divides rapidly when exposed to heat

60.

What is the function of an endospore?

a)

To multiply fungi

b)

To protect certain bacteria when exposed to stress

c)

To destroy viral material

d)

To spread protozoan illnesses

61.

Acquired immunity can be obtained through

a)

Vaccination.

b)

Diet and exercise.

c)

Inheritance from mother’s side of family.

d)

Hard work.

62.

Gram-positive bacteria

a)

Are thin-walled organisms.

b)

Have no cell wall.

c)

Live underground.

d)

Are thick-walled organisms.

63.

Staphylococci bacteria are what?

a)

Cigar-shaped clusters

b)

Round clusters

c)

Round chains

d)

Pairs of round bacteria

64.

Which of the following diseases is caused by protozoa?

a)

Acquired immune deficiency syndrome

b)

Mumps

c)

Malaria

d)

Dysentery

65.

What is a yeast?

a)

Clumping fungi

b)

Cluster of fuzzy bacteria

c)

Plant

d)

Fuzzy multibranching fungi

66.

Dental health care providers should be vaccinated against

a)

Influenza

b)

Hepatitis B

c)

Human immunodeficiency virus/acquired immune deficiency syndrome

d)

A and B

67.

What is a viroid?

a)

Crystalline structure that grows in brain cells

b)

Superlarge virus

c)

Fragment of RNA with no protein coating

d)

Genetically engineered virus

68.

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus is dangerous because it

a)

Is fast replicating

b)

Survives for long periods outside the human body

c)

Is transmitted through mosquitoes

d)

Is resistant to most common antibiotics.

69.

A reservoir of infection is

a)

A hospitable environment where a microbe can multiply.

b)

A large group of microbes.

c)

A liquid that contains living organisms.

d)

A method of treating infection.

70.

Infectious organisms can gain access into the body in which of the following ways?

a)

Breaks in the skin

b)

Mucous membranes

c)

Inhalation

d)

All of the above

71.

According to standard precautions

a)

All blood should be tested for human immunodeficiency virus/acquired immune deficiency syndrome and hepatitis.

b)

Dental assistants should take extra precaution with sick patients.

c)

All bodily fluids should be treated as contaminated.

d)

Patients should be asked for their infection status before all procedures.

72.

Masks

a)

Do not need to be worn with face shields.

b)

Should be replaced after every patient.

c)

Should be replaced at the end of every day.

d)

Can be worn around the neck when not in use.

73.

Examination gloves

a)

Should be washed thoroughly between patients.

b)

Should never come into contact with many common chemicals.

c)

Should never come into contact with anything outside the exam area.

d)

b and c.

74.

6. Latex allergies

a)

Are becoming less common.

b)

Are not dangerous.

c)

Result from infrequent contact with poorly washed latex.

d)

Range in severity from mild to life threatening.

75.

According to the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard

a)

Only blood should be considered contaminated.

b)

Only visibly infected fluids are dangerous.

c)

All bodily fluids should be considered infectious.

d)

All blood should be tested for infectious organisms after exposure.

76.

After an exposure to potentially contaminated blood

a)

Employees must report it immediately.

b)

Employers have to refer employees to a qualified health care professional for an examination.

c)

The incident has to be documented.

d)

All of the above.

77.

A sterile object

a)

Has no living organisms on it.

b)

Has fewer living organisms on it.

c)

Is freshly cleaned.

d)

Cannot be contaminated.

78.

A high-level disinfectant is one that

a)

Sterilizes objects after short exposure.

b)

Is commonly used to disinfect surfaces.

c)

Kills most organisms.

d)

Kills viruses.

79.

An environmental recommendation is

a)

Subject to fines if broken.

b)

Not a law but a suggested practice.

c)

Only authorized by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration.

d)

None of the above.

80.

An example of unregulated waste is

a)

Used needles.

b)

Amalgam waste.

c)

Bloody gauze and pads used in an examination.

d)

Disposable barriers.

81.

Sharps include

a)

Used needles.

b)

Broken glass.

c)

Burs.

d)

All of the above.

82.

Which agency regulates waste once it leaves the dental office?

a)

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

b)

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

c)

Environmental Protection Agency

d)

American Dental Association

83.

Which is an example of chronic toxicity?

a)

Exposure to fumes over time that cause lung cancer

b)

Spilling fixer on your hand and burning your skin

c)

Mercury spills that release clouds of mercury vapor

d)

Fainting after exposure to a chemical spill

84.

What does the material safety data sheet describe?

a)

Federal regulations for handling materials

b)

A chemical’s properties and safety data

c)

Local regulations for handling materials

d)

None of the above

85.

Material safety data sheets should be on file for

a)

Only chemicals with high toxicity.

b)

Only chemicals with a pH above 9 or below 5.

c)

Only chemicals that are federally regulated.

d)

All chemicals used in the office.

86.

The blue diamond on the National Fire Protection Association label indicates what?

a)

Flammability

b)

Health hazard

c)

Instability

d)

Reactivity

87.

The recommended route of administration for the drug nitrous oxide is

a)

Oral.

b)

Transdermal.

c)

Inhalation.

d)

Intramuscular.

88.

Codeine is sometimes dispensed combined with any of several other drugs to produce a greater pain-reducing effect than can be obtained by taking either in isolation. This is an example of which of the following?

a)

Synergistic effect

b)

Side effect

c)

Sublingual administration

d)

Anaphylactic reaction

89.

Which medical professionals are allowed to prescribe medication to patients?

a)

Physicians, dentists, nurse practitioners, and physician assistants

b)

Physicians, dentists, dental hygienists, and dental assistants

c)

Physicians, dentists, and dental hygienists

d)

Physicians and dentists

90.

Which of the following is not a route of drug administration?

a)

Oral

b)

Transdermal

c)

Sublingual

d)

Gastrointestinal

91.

Smoking causes many cases of heart disease by

a)

Interfering with the body's ability to properly oxygenate the blood.

b)

Allowing nicotine to collect in the tissues of the heart.

c)

Causing shortness of breath (dyspnea) that results in lack of exercise.

d)

All of the above.

92.

To which of the following categories does the commonly prescribed drug codeine belong?

a)

Narcotic

b)

Opiate

93.

Anaphylaxis, a systemic allergic reaction, is dangerous because

a)

Its effects are not detectable.

b)

It appears in a patient the first time a drug is used.

c)

It causes airways to constrict, restricting breathing.

d)

It causes hepatic hemorrhage.

94.

Of the common types of drugs dentists are most likely to use or prescribe:

a)

Anticonvulsants, painkillers, and beta-blocking agents

b)

Antifungal agents, nitrates, and antihypertensives

c)

Inflammatory drugs, sedatives, and cholinergic agents

d)

Anesthetics, analgesics, antibiotics, and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories

95.

Which antibiotic is dispensed as a mouth rinse and used in dentistry to treat plaque and gingivitis?

a)

Lysergic acid diethylamide

b)

Diazepam

c)

Chlorhexidine

d)

Acyclovir

96.

Infective endocarditis, an inflammation of the lining of the heart, is a concern in dentistry because:

a)

It may interfere with the administration of nitrous oxide and other anesthetics

b)

Certain patients may be predisposed to developing it following dental procedures.

c)

It can cause airways to constrict and cause respiratory distress.

d)

It is complicated by the synergistic effects of drugs.

97.

Which of these is not considered a vital sign?

a)

Temperature

b)

Weight

c)

Blood Pressure

d)

Respiration

98.

What is the average normal oral temperature for an adult?

a)

97.0°F

b)

98.6°F

c)

96.8°F

d)

96.7°F