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ICMPv6, HTTP, IMAP vs POP, and Network Troubleshooting Utilities

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which two ICMPv6 message types are unique to IPv6 and not present in ICMP for IPv4? (Choose two.)

a)

Neighbor Solicitation and Router Advertisement

b)

Destination Unreachable and Time Exceeded

c)

Echo Request and Echo Reply

d)

Host Confirmation and Route Redirection

2.

A server receives a packet with destination port 80. Which service is being requested?

a)

DHCP service on UDP

b)

SMTP email on TCP

c)

DNS queries on UDP

d)

HTTP web service on TCP

3.

For small organizations, what is a key advantage of using IMAP instead of POP for email?

a)

POP stores all mail centrally for long periods

b)

IMAP keeps messages on the server until deleted

c)

POP retrieves and sends mail while IMAP only retrieves

d)

IMAP downloads messages to client and deletes server copies

4.

A technician can ping the web server’s IP but not its URL. Which utility should be used next to diagnose the issue?

a)

tracert to map path hops

b)

nslookup to test DNS name resolution

c)

ipconfig to view local IP settings

d)

netstat to list active TCP sessions

5.

In Ethernet, which function is performed by the LLC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer?

a)

Integrates Layer 2 flows across different Ethernet speeds

b)

Adds control information identifying the network layer protocol

c)

Implements CSMA/CD on shared half‑duplex media

d)

Applies source and destination MAC addresses

6.

The global configuration command ip default-gateway 172.16.100.1 is applied to a switch. What is the effect of this command?

a)

The switch gains a management interface 172.16.100.1

b)

The switch is limited to frames to and from 172.16.100.1

c)

The switch can communicate with hosts on 172.16.100.0

d)

The switch can be remotely managed from another network

7.

What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the switch vty lines?

a)

Remote connections require proprietary client software

b)

Communication with remote users becomes encrypted

c)

A username and password are required for remote access

d)

The SSH client on the switch is enabled

8.

Match the type of threat with the cause. (Not all options are used.)

a)

hardware threats

b)

environmental threats

c)

electrical threats

d)

maintenance threats

9.

A disgruntled employee uses free wireless tools to gather information about enterprise wireless networks, planning to use it to hack the network. What type of attack is this?

a)

Access

b)

Privilege escalation

c)

DoS

d)

Reconnaissance

10.

Which command allows a switch to reach devices outside its local subnet for management traffic?

a)

ip default-gateway 172.16.100.1

b)

ip default-network 172.16.100.1

c)

interface vlan1 ip 172.16.100.1

d)

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.1

11.

Which example best fits an environmental threat to network equipment?

a)

Voltage spikes and brownouts

b)

Electrostatic discharge during handling

c)

Physical damage to cabling plant

d)

Humidity extremes or temperature extremes

12.

Which statement correctly describes why configuring a default gateway on a Layer 2 switch is important?

a)

It assigns a management IP address to VLAN1

b)

It lets the switch forward frames between subnets

c)

It enables inter-VLAN routing for all interfaces

d)

It allows remote management from different networks

13.

Which statement best describes the core function of HTTP?

a)

A file transfer protocol for servers

b)

A rule set for exchanging web text and media

c)

A chat application for real-time messaging

d)

A secure protocol for encrypted remote shells

14.

A server receives a packet with destination port 67. Which service is being requested?

a)

FTP service over TCP

b)

DHCP service for IP leasing

c)

Telnet interactive login

d)

SSH encrypted terminal

15.

What is a primary impact of ARP requests on a local subnet when they occur in large volumes?

a)

They broadcast and flood all ports

b)

They consume high payload bandwidth

c)

They are unicast to one host only

d)

They are filtered by routers only

16.

Which Windows CLI utilities help confirm IP address, DNS settings, and local router connectivity? Select the best trio.

a)

nslookup, telnet, ftp

b)

ping, ipconfig, nslookup

c)

netsh, telnet, arp -a

d)

tracert, ssh, netsh

17.

After a router matches a destination IP to a directly connected network entry, what is the next action?

a)

Analyze layer-4 port values

b)

Drop traffic after route check

c)

Switch packet to that interface

d)

Consult the next-hop address

18.

Which option describes antispyware most accurately?

a)

Applications protecting endpoints from spyware

b)

A VPN tunneling remote user sessions

c)

A router software filtering IP applications

d)

A device filtering inbound network traffic

19.

To keep credentials and session data private during remote CLI management of a switch, which access method should be used?

a)

SSH encrypted access

b)

Telnet plaintext terminal

c)

Console local login

d)

AUX serial console

20.

Which two practices most effectively reduce malware risk on endpoints? Choose the best pair.

a)

Deploy a VPN service

b)

Enable network firewalls

c)

Use RAID storage arrays

d)

Set strong user passwords

e)

Keep OS and apps updated

21.

Install and update antivirus software is an example of which cybersecurity countermeasure?

a)

Operational policy for backups

b)

Endpoint protection against malware

c)

Physical access control systems

d)

Network segmentation techniques

22.

Which type of security threat could disable a local software firewall when hidden inside a spreadsheet add-on?

a)

Buffer overflow exploit

b)

Brute-force password attack

c)

Denial of Service flood

d)

Trojan horse malware

23.

Which frame field helps a destination node verify that the received data signal was not altered in transit?

a)

Frame check sequence field

b)

Transport layer error code

c)

User Datagram Protocol tag

d)

Flow control indicator

24.

A new LAN must support 4 connected devices. What is the smallest usable subnet mask to meet this requirement?

a)

255.255.255.248

b)

255.255.255.192

c)

255.255.255.128

d)

255.255.255.0

25.

What does the POP3 service do for an email client?

a)

Provides real-time chat capability

b)

Enables remote network device access

c)

Downloads email to local mail application

d)

Uses encryption for secure remote access

26.

Which two security solutions are typically found only in corporate environments? (Choose two.)

a)

Antispyware utilities

b)

Virtual private networks

c)

Strong password policies

d)

Intrusion prevention systems

27.

Which description best matches antivirus software?

a)

Network device filtering traffic

b)

Applications that protect end devices

c)

Tunneling protocol for remote users

d)

Router software filtering IP traffic

28.

How does a router prevent an IPv4 packet from circulating endlessly?

a)

Increments TTL and discards at 100

b)

Checks TTL and discards at 0

c)

Checks TTL and discards at 100

d)

Decrements TTL and discards at 0

29.

A packet arrives with destination port number 69. Which service is requested?

a)

DNS

b)

DHCP

c)

TFTP

d)

SMTP

30.

To accept only encrypted SSH on router vty lines, which configuration steps are required? (Choose three.)

a)

Configure DNS on the router

b)

Generate SSH key pairs

c)

Enable inbound vty SSH sessions

d)

Set IP domain name on router

31.

At the MAC sublayer of Ethernet, which function is performed to ensure error detection?

a)

Communicate between upper layers and NIC

b)

Insert trailer with FCS in frames

c)

Identify encapsulated network protocol

d)

Add Ethernet control to protocol data

32.

Which MAC sublayer function delimits fields within an Ethernet II frame?

a)

Provide NIC-to-software interface

b)

Implement frame field delimitation

c)

Place protocol identifier field

d)

Attach additional control metadata

33.

Which IPv6 multicast address targets all IPv6 configured routers on the local link?

a)

FF05::2 on the site

b)

FF00::1 on the network

c)

FF02::2 on the local link

d)

FF02::1 on the local link

34.

When planning a wireless network, which areas should be accounted for?

a)

Packet collision, VLANs, SSID naming

b)

Extensive cabling, mobility, channel bonding

c)

Interference, security, coverage area

d)

QoS, routing, DHCP scope sizing

35.

Which contention-based access method is used on Wi‑Fi networks?

a)

CSMA/CD

b)

Priority ordering

c)

CSMA/CA

d)

Token passing

36.

Which statement best describes a function of the data link layer?

a)

Provides global routing and path selection

b)

Provides formatting and framing of data

c)

Provides delivery between applications on hosts

d)

Provides end-to-end delivery between hosts

37.

On a Cisco device, what is the fastest way to verify a newly configured login banner?

a)

Enter CTRL‑Z at privileged mode

b)

Exit global configuration mode

c)

Exit privileged EXEC mode and press Enter

d)

Power cycle the device

38.

What is the purpose of the TCP sliding window?

a)

to ensure segments arrive in order at the destination

b)

to request that a source decrease the rate at which it transmits data

c)

to inform a source to retransmit data from a specific point forward

d)

to end communication when data transmission is complete

39.

What characteristic describes spyware?

a)

a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network

b)

software that is installed on a user device and collects information about the user

c)

an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service

d)

the use of stolen credentials to access private data

40.

Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?

a)

ingress port buffering

b)

borderless switching

c)

store-and-forward switching

d)

cut-through switching

41.

Which range of link-local addresses can be assigned to an IPv6-enabled interface?

a)

FF00::/8

b)

FDEE::/7

c)

FECO::/10

d)

FE80::/10

42.

What service is provided by FTP?

a)

A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphic images, sound, video, and other multimedia files on the web.

b)

Allows for data transfers between a client and a file server.

c)

Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic images, sound, and video on the web.

d)

An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.

43.

A host cannot reach http://www.example.com. Which two configuration values must be set on the host to allow this access? (Choose two.)

a)

DNS server and source MAC

b)

Source MAC and HTTP server

c)

Default gateway and source port

d)

DNS server and default gateway

e)

Source port and HTTP server

44.

Which two statements describe an impact of deploying NAT for IPv4 in a network? (Choose two.)

a)

Breaks some end-to-end connectivity

b)

Increases packet handling efficiency

c)

Improves switch performance

d)

Slows IPv4 address depletion

e)

Adds authentication to IPv4 sessions

45.

An IPv6 interface uses EUI-64 to derive its interface ID from MAC 1C-6F-65-C2-BD-F8. What is the resulting interface ID?

a)

0C6F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8

b)

106F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8

c)

1E6F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8

d)

C16F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8

46.

PC1 needs to send a packet to PC2 on the same network and issues an ARP request. What happens next?

a)

Switch SW1 replies with SW1 Fa0/1 MAC

b)

RT1 replies with the PC2 MAC

c)

SW1 replies with the PC2 MAC

d)

Router RT1 replies with RT1 Fa0/0 MAC

e)

PC2 replies with its own MAC

47.

Which service is provided by BOOTP?

a)

Legacy discovery of IP and a BOOTP server

b)

Rules for exchanging multimedia files

c)

Encrypted exchange of web media

d)

Client-to–file server data transfers

e)

Automatic VPN establishment

48.

Which description best characterizes adware?

a)

Malware that encrypts files for ransom

b)

Network device filtering traffic

c)

Software installed that collects user information

d)

Attack that slows a device or network

e)

Use of stolen credentials for data access

49.

A switch port has a user-defined error threshold. When the threshold is reached, to which switching method does the port revert?

a)

Cut-through method

b)

Store-and-forward method

c)

Fast-forward method

d)

Fragment-free method

e)

Adaptive switching method

50.

Which statement best characterizes a peer-to-peer network model?

a)

Each device can only operate in one fixed role

b)

Client and server roles change per individual request

c)

A dedicated server provides centralized services

d)

Devices require a specialized client interface

51.

In a peer-to-peer application context, which condition is typically required?

a)

Logical addressing is centrally managed

b)

A background service must be running

c)

No user interface is needed for access

d)

Roles are permanently assigned to devices

52.

Which two responsibilities are performed by the Ethernet MAC sublayer? (Choose two)

a)

Frame delimiting and media access control

b)

Data encapsulation and accessing the media

c)

Error detection and correction of IP headers

d)

Logical addressing and route selection

53.

You run show ip interface brief on a switch. One FastEthernet interface shows status up/up, others are down/down, and Vlan1 has an IP address with up/up. What can you infer?

a)

One physical port has an active device attached

b)

The switch cannot be managed remotely

c)

Passwords are configured on all lines

d)

Two devices are connected to two ports

54.

Which statement distinguishes a peer-to-peer network from a client-server network?

a)

Requires formal user accounts and permissions

b)

Devices can only function in one role at a time

c)

Does not require a dedicated server for operation

d)

Depends on a background service on servers

55.

A switch has Vlan1 configured with an IP address and shows protocol up. What operational capability does this enable?

a)

Remote management via the SVI

b)

DHCP relay without additional setup

c)

Automatic password enforcement

d)

Dynamic routing between VLANs

56.

Match each type of frame field to its function. (Not all options are used.)

a)

addressing → directs frame toward destination; error detection → checks damage; type → LLC identifies Layer 3; frame start → identifies beginning

b)

addressing → LLC identifies Layer 3; error detection → identifies beginning; type → directs frame; frame start → checks damage

c)

addressing → checks damage; error detection → directs frame; type → identifies beginning; frame start → LLC identifies Layer 3

57.

Which function corresponds to the frame field used by the LLC to identify the Layer 3 protocol?

a)

type field indicates Layer 3 protocol

b)

addressing field indicates Layer 3 protocol

c)

frame start field indicates Layer 3 protocol

d)

error detection field indicates Layer 3 protocol

58.

What is the subnet ID associated with the IPv6 address 2001:DA48:FC5:A4:3D1B::1/64?

a)

2001:DA48:FC5:A4::/64

b)

2001:DA48:FC5::A4:/64

c)

2001::/64

d)

2001:DA48:/64

59.

Which frame field checks if the frame has been damaged during transfer?

a)

addressing field checks damage

b)

frame start field checks damage

c)

type field checks damage

d)

error detection field checks damage

60.

Which frame field identifies the beginning of a frame?

a)

error detection field marks beginning

b)

addressing field marks beginning

c)

type field marks beginning

d)

frame start field marks beginning