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ITNv7 Course Final Exam Answers 2026

Total questions: 73

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 143. What service is the client requesting?

a)

Telnet

b)

SSH

c)

IMAP

d)

FTP

2.

Which two functions are performed at the MAC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication?

a)

applies delimiting of Ethernet frame fields to synchronize communication between nodes

b)

applies source and destination MAC addresses to Ethernet frame

c)

places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being encapsulated by the frame

d)

handles communication between upper layer networking software and Ethernet NIC hardware

e)

adds Ethernet control information to network protocol data

3.

Which two functions are performed at the MAC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)

a)

implements a process to delimit fields within an Ethernet 2 frame

b)

implements trailer with frame check sequence for error detection

c)

handles communication between upper layer networking software and Ethernet NIC hardware

d)

adds Ethernet control information to network protocol data

e)

places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being encapsulated by the frame

4.

A new network administrator has been asked to enter a banner message on a Cisco device. What is the fastest way a network administrator could test whether the banner is properly configured?

a)

Enter CTRL-Z at the privileged mode prompt.

b)

Power cycle the device.

c)

Exit privileged EXEC mode and press Enter.

d)

Exit global configuration mode.

e)

Reboot the device.

5.

What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the switch vty lines?

a)

The switch requires a username/password combination for remote access.

b)

The SSH client on the switch is enabled.

c)

Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted.

d)

The switch requires remote connections via a proprietary client software.

6.

What is the subnet ID associated with the IPv6 address 2001:DA48:FC5:A4:3D1B::1/64?

a)

2001:DA48::/64

b)

2001::/64

c)

2001:DA48:FC5:A4::/64

d)

2001:DA48:FC5::A4:/64

7.

A client is using SLAAC to obtain an IPv6 address for its interface. After an address has been generated and applied to the interface, what must the client do before it can begin to use this IPv6 address?

a)

It must send an ICMPv6 Router Solicitation message to determine what default gateway it should use.

b)

It must send a DHCPv6 INFORMATION-REQUEST message to request the address of the DNS server.

c)

It must send a DHCPv6 REQUEST message to the DHCPv6 server to request permission to use this address.

d)

It must send an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message to ensure that the address is not already in use on the network.

8.

Which range of link-local addresses can be assigned to an IPv6-enabled interface?

a)

FE80::/10

b)

FDEE::/7

c)

c00::/8

d)

FECO::/10

9.

What mechanism is used by a router to prevent a received IPv4 packet from traveling endlessly on a network?

a)

It checks the value of the TTL field and if it is 100, it discards the packet and sends a Destination Unreachable message to the source host.

b)

It increments the value of the TTL field by 1 and if the result is 100, it discards the packet and sends a Parameter Problem message to the source host.

c)

It checks the value of the TTL field and if it is 0, it discards the packet and sends a Destination Unreachable message to the source host.

d)

It decrements the value of the TTL field by 1 and if the result is 0, it discards the packet and sends a Time Exceeded message to the source host.

10.

A network administrator is designing the layout of a new wireless network. Which three areas of concern should be accounted for when building a wireless network?

a)

security

b)

interference

c)

mobility options

d)

coverage area

e)

packet collision

11.

aaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa

a)

aaaaaaaaaaaaaa

b)

aaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa

12.

Refer to the exhibit. Identify what is wrong with the displayed termination?

a)

The untwisted length of each wire is too long.

b)

The woven copper braid should not have been removed.

c)

The wrong type of connector is being used.

d)

The wires are too thick for the connector that is used.

13.

A network administrator notices that some newly installed Ethernet cabling is carrying corrupt and distorted data signals. The new cabling was installed in the ceiling close to fluorescent lights and electrical equipment. Which two factors may interfere with the copper cabling and result in signal distortion and data corruption?

a)

EMI

b)

signal attenuation

c)

crosstalk

d)

RFI

e)

extended length of cabling

14.

Which three statements correctly describe the function of TCP or UDP when data is sent from a source PC to a destination server?

a)

TCP provides reliable delivery, UDP provides faster transmission, and TCP uses acknowledgments.

b)

UDP guarantees delivery, TCP is connectionless, and UDP uses flow control.

c)

TCP and UDP both guarantee ordered delivery, and UDP is slower than TCP.

d)

TCP does not use acknowledgments, UDP is reliable, and TCP is faster than UDP.

15.

Match the application protocols to the correct transport protocols:

a)

DHCP

b)

FTP

c)

HTTP

d)

SMTP

e)

TFTP

16.

A group of Windows PCs in a new subnet has been added to an Ethernet network. When testing the connectivity, a technician finds that these PCs can access local network resources but not the Internet resources. To troubleshoot the problem, the technician wants to initially confirm the _______.

a)

default gateway configuration

b)

subnet mask length

c)

local user credentials

d)

network cable type

17.

DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) typically uses which transport protocol?

a)

TCP

b)

UDP

18.

FTP (File Transfer Protocol) uses which transport protocol to ensure reliable data transfer?

a)

TCP

b)

UDP

19.

HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) uses which transport protocol for web traffic?

a)

TCP

b)

UDP

20.

SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) uses which transport protocol for sending emails?

a)

TCP

b)

UDP

21.

TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol) uses which transport protocol?

a)

TCP

b)

UDP

22.

IP address and DNS configurations on the PCs, and also verify connectivity to the local router. Which three Windows CLI commands and utilities will provide the necessary information?

a)

nslookup

b)

ipconfig

c)

arp -a

d)

netsh interface ipv6 show neighbor

e)

telnet

23.

What two pieces of information are displayed in the output of the show ip interface brief command?

a)

MAC addresses

b)

Layer 1 statuses

c)

IP addresses

d)

next-hop addresses

e)

speed and duplex settings

24.

A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 25 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

a)

255.255.255.224

b)

255.255.255.192

c)

255.255.255.240

d)

255.255.255.128

25.

Which frame field is created by a source node and used by a destination node to ensure that a transmitted data signal has not been altered by interference, distortion, or signal loss?

a)

transport layer error check field

b)

error correction process field

c)

flow control field

d)

User Datagram Protocol field

e)

frame check sequence field

26.

What is a function of the data link layer?

a)

provides delivery of data between two applications

b)

provides for the exchange of frames over a common local media

c)

provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts

d)

provides the formatting of data

27.

What are three characteristics of the CSMA/CD process?

a)

After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired.

b)

A jam signal indicates that the collision has cleared and the media is not busy.

c)

All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium.

d)

The device with the electronic token is the only one that can transmit after a collision.

e)

Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.

28.

What characteristic describes a Trojan horse?

a)

an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service

b)

malicious software or code running on an end device

c)

a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network

d)

the use of stolen credentials to access private data

29.

What three requirements are defined by the protocols used in network communications to allow message transmission across a network?

a)

end-device installation

b)

delivery options

c)

message encoding

d)

media selection

e)

message size

30.

What are two features of ARP?

a)

If a device receiving an ARP request has the destination IPv4 address, it responds with an ARP reply.

b)

When a host is encapsulating a packet into a frame, it refers to the MAC address table to determine the mapping of IP addresses to MAC addresses.

c)

If no device responds to the ARP request, then the originating node will broadcast the data packet to all devices on the network segment.

d)

An ARP request is sent to all devices on the Ethernet LAN and contains the IP address of the destination host and its multicast MAC address.

e)

If a host is ready to send a packet to a local destination device and it has the IP address but not the MAC address of the destination, it generates an ARP broadcast.

31.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?

a)

The entire command, configure terminal, must be used.

b)

The administrator must connect via the console port to access global configuration mode.

c)

The administrator is already in global configuration mode.

d)

The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command.

32.

On the basis of the output, which two statements about network connectivity are correct?

a)

This host does not have a default gateway configured.

b)

There are 4 hops between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.

c)

The average transmission time between the two hosts is 2 milliseconds.

d)

There is connectivity between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.

e)

The connectivity between these two hosts allows for videoconferencing calls.

33.

What are two characteristics of IP?

a)

retransmits packets if errors occur

b)

guarantees delivery of packets

c)

does not require a dedicated end-to-end connection

d)

operates independently of the network media

e)

re-assembles out of order packets into the correct order at the receiver end

34.

What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host?

a)

The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.

b)

The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.

c)

A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.

d)

The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.

e)

The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway.

35.

Users report that the network access is slow. After questioning the employees, the network administrator learned that one employee downloaded a third-party scanning program for the printer. What type of malware might be introduced that causes slow performance of the network?

a)

spam

b)

virus

c)

worm

d)

phishing

36.

A company has a file server that shares a folder named Public. The network security policy specifies that the Public folder is assigned Read-Only rights to anyone who can log into the server while the Edit rights are assigned only to the network admin group. Which component is addressed in the AAA network service framework?

a)

automation

b)

authorization

c)

accounting

d)

authentication

37.

What are two common causes of signal degradation when using UTP cabling?

a)

loss of light over long distances

b)

low-quality cable or connectors

c)

low-quality shielding in cable

d)

installing cables in conduit

e)

improper termination

38.

Which scenario describes a function provided by the transport layer?

a)

A student has two web browser windows open in order to access two web sites. The transport layer ensures the correct web page is delivered to the correct browser window.

b)

A student is using a classroom VoIP phone to call home. The unique identifier burned into the phone is a transport layer address used to contact another network device on the same network.

c)

A corporate worker is accessing a web server located on a corporate network. The transport layer formats the screen so the web page appears properly no matter what device is being used to view the web site.

d)

A student is playing a short web-based movie with sound. The movie and sound are encoded within the transport layer header.

39.

Which two protocols operate at the top layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite?

a)

TCP

b)

IP

c)

DNS

d)

POP

e)

Ethernet

40.

An employee of a large corporation remotely logs into the company using the appropriate username and password. The employee is attending an important video conference with a customer concerning a large sale. It is important for the video quality to be excellent during the meeting. The employee is unaware that after a successful login, the connection to the company ISP failed. The secondary connection, however, activated within seconds. The disruption was not noticed by the employee or other employees.

a)

scalability

b)

integrity

c)

fault tolerance

d)

quality of service

e)

security

41.

If PC1 is sending a packet to PC2 and routing has been configured between the two routers, what will R1 do with the Ethernet frame header attached by PC1?

a)

R1 will remove the Ethernet frame header and create a new one for the next hop.

b)

R1 will forward the frame without changing the header.

c)

R1 will encrypt the Ethernet frame header before forwarding.

d)

R1 will drop the packet due to an unknown header.

42.

What does a router do when it receives a packet for a destination network that is not directly connected?

a)

open the header and use it to determine whether the data is to be sent out S0/0/0

b)

open the header and replace the destination MAC address with a new one

c)

nothing, because the router has a route to the destination network

d)

remove the Ethernet header and configure a new Layer 2 header before sending it out SO/0/0

43.

Which three layers of the OSI model map to the application layer of the TCP/IP model?

a)

transport

b)

presentation

c)

network

d)

session

e)

application

44.

Which of the following is an appropriate IP address for a private network?

a)

192.168.1.1

b)

8.8.8.8

c)

172.217.3.110

d)

203.0.113.5

45.

What does the term "attenuation" mean in data communication?

a)

strengthening of a signal by a networking device

b)

leakage of signals from one cable pair to another

c)

loss of signal strength as distance increases

d)

time for a signal to reach its destination

46.

Which two statements describe how to assess traffic flow patterns and network traffic types using a protocol analyzer?

a)

Capture traffic during peak utilization times to get a good representation of the different traffic types.

b)

Perform the capture on different network segments.

c)

Only capture WAN traffic because traffic to the web is responsible for the largest amount of traffic on a network.

d)

Only capture traffic in the areas of the network that receive most of the traffic such as the data center.

e)

Capture traffic on the weekends when most employees are off work.

47.

Refer to the exhibit. Host B on subnet Teachers transmits a packet to host D on subnet Students. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3 addresses are contained in the PDUs that are transmitted from host B to the router?

a)

Layer 2 address: 00-00-0c-94-36-ab (MAC address of Fa0/0 interface on the router) Layer 3 address: 172.16.10.200 (IP address of host D)

b)

Layer 2 address: 00-00-0c-94-36-bb (MAC address of host D) Layer 3 address: 172.16.10.100 (IP address of host B)

c)

Layer 2 address: 00-00-0c-94-36-aa (MAC address of host B) Layer 3 address: 172.16.10.200 (IP address of host D)

d)

Layer 2 address: 00-00-0c-94-36-ab (MAC address of Fa0/0 interface on the router) Layer 3 address: 172.16.10.100 (IP address of host B)

48.

Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?

a)

192.168.1.32/27

b)

192.168.1.32/28

c)

192.168.1.64/29

d)

192.168.1.64/26

49.

What are two problems that can be caused by a large number of ARP request and reply messages?

a)

A large number of ARP request and reply messages may slow down the switching process, leading the switch to make many changes in its MAC table.

b)

The ARP request is sent as a broadcast, and will flood the entire subnet.

c)

Switches become overloaded because they concentrate all the traffic from the attached subnets.

d)

All ARP request messages must be processed by all nodes on the local network.

e)

The network may become overloaded because ARP reply messages have a very large payload due to the 48-bit MAC address and 32-bit IP address that they contain.

50.

Why would a Layer 2 switch need an IP address?

a)

to enable the switch to be managed remotely

b)

to enable the switch to receive frames from attached PCs

c)

to enable the switch to send broadcast frames to attached PCs

d)

to enable the switch to function as a default gateway

51.

How does the service password-encryption command enhance password security on Cisco routers and switches?

a)

It requires encrypted passwords to be used when connecting remotely to a router or switch with Telnet.

b)

It encrypts passwords that are stored in router or switch configuration files.

52.

Which two statements are correct in a comparison of IPv4 and IPv6 packet headers?

a)

The Destination Address field is new in IPv6.

b)

The Source Address field name from IPv4 is kept in IPv6.

c)

The Version field from IPv4 is not kept in IPv6.

d)

The Time-to-Live field from IPv4 has been replaced by the Hop Limit field in IPv6.

e)

The Header Checksum field name from IPv4 is kept in IPv6.

53.

Which two statements accurately describe an advantage or a disadvantage when deploying NAT for IPv4 in a network? (Choose two.)

a)

NAT provides a solution to slow down the IPv4 address depletion.

b)

NAT causes routing tables to include more information.

c)

NAT introduces problems for some applications that require end-to-end connectivity.

d)

NAT will impact negatively on switch performance.

e)

NAT improves packet handling.

54.

Match each item to the type of topology diagram on which it is typically identified.

a)

Bus, Star, and Ring topologies are commonly identified on topology diagrams.

b)

Only mesh topology is identified on topology diagrams.

c)

Tree topology is the only one identified on topology diagrams.

d)

Hybrid topology is not identified on topology diagrams.

55.

What service is provided by HTTP?

a)

An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.

b)

Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic images, sound, and video on the web.

c)

Allows for data transfers between a client and a file server.

d)

A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphic images, sound, video, and other multimedia files on the web.

56.

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 67. What service is the client requesting?

a)

Telnet

b)

FTP

c)

SSH

d)

DHCP

57.

What are the two most effective ways to defend against malware?

a)

Install and update antivirus software.

b)

Update the operating system and other application software.

c)

Implement a VPN.

d)

Implement strong passwords.

e)

Implement RAID.

58.

An administrator defined a local user account with a secret password on router R1 for use with SSH. Which three additional steps are required to configure R1 to accept only encrypted SSH connections?

a)

Enable inbound vty Telnet sessions.

b)

Enable inbound vty SSH sessions.

c)

Configure DNS on the router.

d)

Generate the SSH keys.

e)

Configure the IP domain name on the router.

59.

A host is trying to send a packet to a device on a remote LAN segment, but there are currently no mappings in its ARP cache. How will the device obtain a destination MAC address?

a)

It will send the frame and use its own MAC address as the destination.

b)

It will send the frame with a broadcast MAC address.

c)

It will send an ARP request for the MAC address of the destination device.

d)

It will send a request to the DNS server for the destination MAC address.

e)

It will send an ARP request for the MAC address of the default gateway.

60.

The header field 'Transport' belongs to which layer of the OSI model?

a)

Transport Layer

b)

Network Layer

c)

Data Link Layer

d)

Physical Layer

61.

In the OSI model, different layers have specific functions and responsibilities, and certain fields in network headers are associated with these layers: When a switch configuration includes a user-defined error threshold on a per-port basis, to which switching method will the switch revert when the error threshold is reached?

a)

fast-forward

b)

cut-through

c)

store-and-forward

d)

fragment-free

62.

What are proprietary protocols?

a)

protocols that can be freely used by any organization or vendor

b)

protocols developed by private organizations to operate on any vendor hardware

c)

a collection of protocols known as the TCP/IP protocol suite

d)

protocols developed by organizations who have control over their definition and operation

63.

What is an advantage to using a protocol that is defined by an open standard?

a)

An open standard protocol is not controlled or regulated by standards organizations.

b)

A company can monopolize the market.

c)

It encourages competition and promotes choices.

d)

The protocol can only be run on equipment from a specific vendor.

64.

Which type of server relies on record types such as A, NS, AAAA, and MX in order to provide services?

a)

email

b)

file

c)

web

d)

DNS

65.

Match the statement: 'Defines seven layers for network communication.' to the related network model.

a)

OSI model

b)

TCP/IP model

c)

Hybrid model

d)

Client-Server model

66.

A network administrator wants to have the same network mask for all networks at a particular small site. The site has the following networks and number of devices: IP phones – 22 addresses, PCs – 20 addresses needed, Printers – 2 addresses needed, Scanners – 2 addresses needed. The network administrator has deemed that 192.168.10.0/24 is to be the network used at this site. Which single subnet mask would make the most efficient use of the available addresses to use for the four subnetworks?

a)

255.255.255.192

b)

255.255.255.240

c)

255.255.255.224

d)

255.255.255.0

e)

255.255.255.248

67.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the LAN of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 prefix. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the network address must be used for the router interface. What is the network address for the fifth subnet?

a)

192.168.10.32

b)

192.168.10.40

c)

192.168.10.16

d)

192.168.10.24

68.

The router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the properties of the workgroup server to allow connectivity to the Internet?

a)

Set the default gateway to the first usable host address.

b)

Set the default gateway to the last usable host address.

c)

Set the default gateway to the network address.

d)

Set the default gateway to the broadcast address.

69.

The total number of unused host addresses across all four subnets is:

a)

60

b)

32

c)

48

d)

16

70.

The network IP address 192.168.99.0 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192 provides 62 usable host addresses for each subnet. Subnet A needs 30 host addresses. There are 32 addresses wasted. Subnet B uses 2 host addresses, so it wastes 60 addresses. Subnet C needs 16 host addresses, so it wastes 46 addresses. Subnet D needs 14 addresses, so it wastes 48 addresses. The total wasted addresses are 32+60+46+48=200 addresses.

a)

158

b)

200

c)

224

d)

88

e)

72

71.

What would be the interface ID of an IPv6 enabled interface with a MAC address of 1C-6F-65-C2-BD-F8 when the interface ID is generated by using the EUI-64 process?

a)

1E6F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8

b)

106F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8

c)

C16F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8

d)

06CF:65FF:FEC2:BDF8

72.

Which information does the show startup-config command display?

a)

the IOS image copied into RAM

b)

the bootstrap program in the ROM

c)

the contents of the saved configuration file in the NVRAM

d)

the contents of the current running configuration file in the RAM

73.

63. Match each type of frame field to its function. Which of the following best describes the function of a frame field?

a)

Identifies the start and end of a frame

b)

Determines the speed of data transmission

c)

Encrypts the data within the frame

d)

Assigns IP addresses to devices