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Untitled Quiz

Total questions: 83

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which network service automatically assigns IP addresses to devices on the network?

a)

NTP server synchronizing clocks

b)

DNS server with static zones

c)

DHCP server using leases

d)

ARP service resolving MACs

2.

What are NOT benefits of using a layered network model? (Choose three.)

a)

Eliminates the need for protocols entirely

b)

Encourages standard interfaces across layers

c)

Prevents interoperability between vendors

d)

Simplifies troubleshooting complex networks

3.

What are NOT the goals and benefits of protocols in data communications? (Choose three.)

a)

Define error handling and recovery

b)

Increase ambiguity of message formats

c)

Enable reliable data exchange

d)

Introduce inconsistent addressing schemes

4.

Which logical addresses are NOT changed in the process of delivery of data to a remote network (NAT is not used)? Please select all applicable options.

a)

Source MAC address remains unchanged

b)

Destination MAC address remains unchanged

c)

Destination IP address remains unchanged

d)

Source IP address remains unchanged

5.

Please mark below all incorrect statements. (Choose three.)

a)

Routers operate at OSI Layer 3

b)

Switches always modify IP headers

c)

TCP provides connection-oriented transport

d)

UDP offers best-effort delivery

6.

Which type of communication are NOT sending a message to a group of host destinations simultaneously? (Choose two.)

a)

Broadcast to all devices

b)

Anycast to nearest instance

c)

Multicast to subscribed group

d)

Unicast to a single host

7.

What requirements are defined by the protocols used in network communications to allow message transmission across a network? (Choose three.)

a)

Message encoding and formatting

b)

Error detection and recovery

c)

Cable colors and rack layout

d)

Addressing and routing rules

8.

What are two functions of end devices on a network? (Choose two.)

a)

Forward frames across segments

b)

Originate and consume data

c)

Apply network policies centrally

d)

Route packets between LANs

9.

What is the primary benefit of a peer-to-peer network for small environments?

a)

Centralized authentication services

b)

Low cost with simple sharing

c)

Guaranteed enterprise scalability

d)

Built-in fault-tolerant routing

10.

Please select below the most proper statement about the data transportation speed.

a)

Bandwidth indicates capacity not latency

b)

Speed equals application throughput always

c)

Latency defines frames per second only

d)

Throughput ignores protocol overheads

11.

Please find below the organization which defines standards for the first TCP/IP layer.

a)

ICANN assigns MAC addresses

b)

IEEE defines physical media

c)

ISO manages file formats

d)

IETF sets cabling pinouts

12.

Which TCP/IP model layer combines the OSI Data Link and Physical layers?

a)

Transport layer

b)

Network Access layer

c)

Internet layer

d)

Application layer

13.

What layer of the TCP/IP protocol model determines the best path through the network?

a)

Application layer

b)

Transport layer

c)

Internet layer

d)

Network Access layer

14.

Which function is provided by the Presentation layer of the OSI model?

a)

Reliable end-to-end delivery

b)

Path selection and routing

c)

Data encryption and translation

d)

Session establishment control

15.

What is the primary purpose of decapsulation in networking?

a)

Add headers for transmission

b)

Translate addresses across VLANs

c)

Encrypt payloads before routing

d)

Remove headers at each layer

16.

Which OSI layer provides reliable end-to-end delivery using acknowledgements and retransmissions?

a)

Transport layer

b)

Network layer

c)

Data Link layer

d)

Physical layer

17.

What is another name for the OSI transport layer?

a)

Session layer

b)

Host-to-host layer

c)

Presentation layer

d)

Network layer

18.

Which term describes data at the OSI Network layer?

a)

Frames

b)

Segments

c)

Packets

d)

Bits

19.

What is the name of PDU at the forth layer of OSI model?

a)

Frame

b)

Bit

c)

Packet

d)

Segment

20.

A web client is sending a request for a webpage to a web server. From the perspective of the client, what is the correct order of the protocol stack that is used to prepare the request for transmission?

a)

Transport, Network Access, Internet, Application

b)

Internet, Application, Transport, Network Access

c)

Network Access, Internet, Transport, Application

d)

Application, Transport, Internet, Network Access

21.

What type of intermediate devices analyses data link layer addresses? (Choose two.)

a)

Firewall and router

b)

Hub and modem

c)

Bridge and switch

d)

Router and bridge

22.

Why do we need a loopback interface test? Select the best statement.

a)

To check WAN link errors

b)

To test remote routing paths

c)

To verify local TCP/IP stack

d)

To measure wireless throughput

23.

Please provide the definition of a socket.

a)

Physical interface on NIC

b)

Process scheduling handle

c)

Logical port plus IP address

d)

Encrypted tunnel endpoint

24.

The user wants to see the active connections of his PC. Please select below the command he should use.

a)

netstat -ano

b)

nslookup -type=any

c)

ipconfig /all

d)

arp -a

25.

The technician activated the network security authentication function. Please select below the goal of this action.

a)

Encrypt stored files

b)

Block outbound emails

c)

Inspect traffic patterns

d)

Verify user identity

26.

What is the role of an IDS?

a)

Prevent malware execution

b)

Detect malicious activity

c)

Authorize user accounts

d)

Encrypt network sessions

27.

What is the objective of a network reconnaissance attack?

a)

Jam wireless signals

b)

Destroy critical data

c)

Discover system information

d)

Exploit buffer overflows

28.

Which device is used by other network devices to authenticate and authorize management access?

a)

Wireless controller

b)

AAA server

c)

Content filter

d)

Load balancer

29.

Which services are provided by the AAA framework? (Choose three.)

a)

Authentication, Authorization, Accounting

b)

Accounting, Auditing, Alerts

c)

Access, Agreement, Assurance

d)

Assessment, Approval, Accounting

30.

The technician activated the network security accounting function. Please select below the goal of this action.

a)

Log user activities

b)

Grant admin rights

c)

Encrypt TLS traffic

d)

Reset passwords

31.

Which attack involves a compromise of data that occurs between two end points?

a)

Man-in-the-middle

b)

Watering hole

c)

Password spraying

d)

SQL injection

32.

Please find below the best solution for endpoint security.

a)

Host firewall and EDR

b)

BGP prefix filtering

c)

DHCP snooping and ARP inspection

d)

VLAN hopping prevention

33.

Please find below the best description of the vulnerability term.

a)

An exploitable weakness

b)

A detected intrusion

c)

A deliberate threat

d)

A backup strategy

34.

What type of attack may involve the use of tools such as nslookup and ping?

a)

Ransomware distribution

b)

Reconnaissance scanning

c)

Privilege escalation

d)

Session hijacking

35.

What kind of threat is described when a threat actor impersonates another person to obtain credit information about that person?

a)

Phishing

b)

Dumpster diving

c)

Identity theft

d)

Tailgating

36.

The network technician found out that the client database of a company was copied and sent to outside e-mail. How is this action described from the security stand point?

a)

Data exfiltration

b)

Backup replication

c)

Privilege abuse

d)

Internal segmentation

37.

The hackers cracked a company web server and legal users could not access marketing information. What security impact best describes this action?

a)

Authentication bypass of user logins

b)

Availability attack denying service

c)

Integrity breach of stored files

d)

Confidentiality loss for private data

38.

A security specialist detected that the content of an important file was changed. What was the attacker’s primary goal?

a)

Expose confidential records

b)

Reduce system availability

c)

Evade user authentication

d)

Compromise data integrity

39.

George ran a simple FTP server with the weak password "file." His workstation was compromised and used to upload documents online. What type of attack best fits this scenario?

a)

Malware exploiting zero-day bug

b)

Dictionary attack against weak credentials

c)

Elevation of local privileges

d)

Brute-force password guessing

40.

In summer the office router stopped working due to an AC unit problem. Which statement best classifies this threat?

a)

External cyber attack event

b)

Intentional insider sabotage

c)

Environmental hazard causing outage

d)

Network misconfiguration error

41.

A malicious visitor disconnected the printer from its computer and nobody can print. What type of attack is this?

a)

Firmware corruption of device

b)

Wireless jamming interference

c)

Physical disruption of service

d)

Credential theft for printing

42.

Which security concern is common with BYOD policies?

a)

Loss of device and corporate data

b)

Strong control of patch updates

c)

Reduced need for access policies

d)

Guaranteed endpoint standardization

43.

Which two forms of software programs or processes provide access to the network? Choose two.

a)

AAA authentication daemon

b)

VPN client application

c)

Routing protocol service

d)

Remote desktop agent

44.

Which two protocols are used to establish a remote access network connection to a device? Choose two.

a)

SSH secure shell protocol

b)

SNMP management protocol

c)

Telnet remote terminal

d)

FTP file transfer protocol

45.

An employee needs secure remote access to a company network. Which network feature enables this in the safest way?

a)

Port forwarding to office PC

b)

VPN with encryption tunnels

c)

Open Telnet over internet

d)

Public guest Wi‑Fi bridge

46.

Which term refers to a network that provides secure access to corporate offices by suppliers, customers, and collaborators?

a)

DMZ screened subnet

b)

WAN carrier service

c)

Intranet private network

d)

Extranet partner network

47.

A technician was in interface configuration mode and entered the command no shutdown. What is the result of this action?

a)

Starts routing daemon globally

b)

Enables the interface administratively

c)

Disables the interface state

d)

Resets the device to default

48.

The technician configured VTY lines with password for remote access. Which command should also be used to hide these passwords in the configuration file?

a)

enable algorithm md5

b)

username secret enable

c)

ip ssh version two

d)

service password-encryption

49.

What is the best description of the difference between enable password and enable secret on Cisco IOS?

a)

Secret applies to vty lines only

b)

Password uses stronger hash

c)

Secret is hashed; password is plaintext

d)

Both store cleartext passwords

50.

Technician is configuring the interface of the switch but he wants to see the rest of configuration without leaving a configuration mode. Which command does he need to use to see the current running configuration?

a)

print current startup file

b)

view active configuration lines

c)

display running settings now

d)

show run from config mode

51.

Which statements are NOT true about copy running-config startup-config?

a)

It erases NVRAM contents fully

b)

It saves RAM config to NVRAM

c)

It triggers router reload immediately

d)

It backs up active configuration

52.

After reload the router entered setup mode. Please select below the most probable reason of this action.

a)

Incorrect interface speed

b)

Bad console cable used

c)

Corrupt IOS image in flash

d)

No startup-config in NVRAM

53.

Which memory location on a Cisco router or switch stores the running configuration file?

a)

ROM stores running-config

b)

NVRAM stores running-config

c)

RAM stores running-config

d)

Flash stores running-config

54.

Which important procedure requires a technician enter the command copy startup-config running-config?

a)

Loading IOS from flash

b)

Restoring saved config to RAM

c)

Saving RAM config to NVRAM

d)

Backing up to external TFTP

55.

Which statement is true about the running configuration file in a Cisco IOS device?

a)

It resides in RAM and is editable

b)

It resides in ROM and immutable

c)

It resides in flash permanently

d)

It resides in NVRAM encrypted

56.

Which command can be used to save the running configuration to the startup configuration? (Choose two)

a)

commit running to boot

b)

write memory command

c)

copy run start command

d)

save active config now

57.

Technician wants to cleanup the startup-configuration of the switch. Which command does he need to run?

a)

clear running-config

b)

delete flash config

c)

reset nvram contents

d)

erase startup-config

58.

The technician wants to delete an incorrectly configured ip address on a router port. What command does he need?

a)

remove address now

b)

no ip address interface

c)

delete ip from port

d)

unset layer3 on port

59.

A router with a valid operating system does not contain a configuration file stored in NVRAM. When the router boots up, which mode will display?

a)

Setup dialog mode

b)

ROMMON prompt

c)

Privileged EXEC

d)

User EXEC only

60.

Which type of access should be secured on a Cisco router or switch with the enable secret password? (Choose all applicable)

a)

Privileged EXEC access

b)

Console user access

c)

VTY remote access

d)

ROMMON recovery access

61.

Which passwords are NOT used to protect access to privileged EXEC mode? (Choose three.)

a)

enable secret password

b)

aux line password

c)

vty line password

d)

console line password

62.

Please select below the commands which set up secure access to a router through a connection to the console interface. (Choose three)

a)

transport input ssh only

b)

login local command

c)

password command set

d)

line console 0 command

63.

Being in privileged mode the technician entered the following commands: cont t, line vty 0 4, transport input ssh. Please select below the statement which describes the result of this action.

a)

HTTP access configured

b)

VTY lines accept SSH only

c)

Console lines accept SSH

d)

Telnet enabled on VTY

64.

Technician issued “service password-encryption” command. What was the result of his action?

a)

Enable SSH key exchange

b)

Protect enable secret only

c)

Disable Telnet globally

d)

Encrypt plain text passwords

65.

Please select below the best statement which uniquely describes the SSH connection.

a)

Encrypted management protocol

b)

Legacy clear-text protocol

c)

Layer2 control protocol

d)

Unreliable transport service

66.

Which command should be used on a Cisco router or switch to allow log messages to be displayed on remotely connected sessions using Telnet or SSH?

a)

debug all command

b)

service password-encryption

c)

show logging command

d)

terminal monitor command

e)

logging buffered command

67.

Where are Cisco IOS debug output messages sent by default?

a)

Syslog external server

b)

Logging buffer memory

c)

VTY remote session

d)

Console line interface

e)

AUX modem port

68.

What is the function of the shell in an OS?

a)

Kernel hardware control

b)

Interface to run commands

c)

Network stack routing role

d)

File system storage layer

e)

Graphical window manager

69.

A technician is using the debug ip icmp privileged EXEC command to capture live router output. Which commands would stop this debug command on a Cisco router? (Choose two.)

a)

show processes and stop debug

b)

terminal no monitor and exit

c)

undebug all and no debug all

d)

clear counters and disable debug

e)

no logging console and reload

70.

Which command should a network engineer use to find the IP address information, host name, and IOS version of neighboring network devices?

a)

show cdp neighbors detail

b)

show lldp neighbors brief

c)

show ip interface brief

d)

show arp cache

e)

show version output

71.

A ping fails when performed from router R1 to directly connected router R2. The network administrator then issues the show cdp neighbors command. Why would the administrator issue this command if the ping failed between the two routers?

a)

Test DNS resolution issues

b)

Confirm default gateway settings

c)

Inspect access control lists

d)

Check routing table entries

e)

Verify Layer 2 adjacency details

72.

What information about a Cisco router can be verified using the show version command?

a)

IOS version and uptime

b)

CDP neighbor details

c)

Interface counters only

d)

ACL rule summaries

e)

Routing protocol status

73.

Which functions are NOT provided to users by the context-sensitive help feature of the Cisco IOS CLI? (Choose three).

a)

Configuration wizards automation

b)

Command syntax verification

c)

Performance monitoring graphs

d)

Security policy audit reports

e)

Available command listings

74.

Which software installed on key hosts can reveal the types of network traffic flowing through the network?

a)

Compression archiver app

b)

Antivirus signature tool

c)

Backup client agent

d)

Text editor utility

e)

Protocol analyzer software

75.

What are NOT functions of NVRAM? (Choose three).

a)

Boot loader persistence

b)

Volatile runtime memory

c)

Temporary packet buffering

d)

Startup configuration storage

e)

CPU cache management

76.

By following a structured troubleshooting approach, a network administrator identified a network issue after a conversation with the user. What is the next step that the administrator should take?

a)

Gather more detailed evidence

b)

Escalate to senior management

c)

Purge configuration files

d)

Deploy a network redesign

e)

Close the incident ticket

77.

A network engineer is analyzing reports from a recently performed network baseline. Which situation would depict a possible latency issue?

a)

High RTTs and jitter spikes

b)

Low CPU utilization overall

c)

Stable throughput readings

d)

Consistent packet sizes

e)

Frequent ARP resolution

78.

Which command displays system log messages on the terminal for a remote session?

a)

terminal monitor output

b)

debug ip packet log

c)

logging console only

d)

monitor session enable

e)

show logging buffer

79.

A technician has concluded that a network switch should be replaced. What is the next step before proceeding?

a)

Document findings and obtain change approval

b)

Order parts and replace the switch immediately

c)

Notify users and perform an unplanned outage

d)

Escalate to executive leadership for sign-off

80.

Which requirement enables classifying network traffic according to priority for QoS?

a)

Client-side traffic shaping software

b)

Encrypted tunnels for all applications

c)

Defined traffic classes and marking policy

d)

A larger switch backplane capacity

81.

Which term describes employees using personal devices to access company resources?

a)

BYOD

b)

SSO

c)

MAM

d)

NAC

82.

How does BYOD change the way businesses implement networks?

a)

Requires robust security and access controls

b)

Eliminates need for corporate Wi‑Fi networks

c)

Forces all users to adopt one device model

d)

Removes compliance and auditing obligations

83.

Which acronyms represent standards organizations? Choose three.

a)

TLS, WPA, SSH

b)

DMZ, NAT, QoS

c)

LAN, WAN, MAN

d)

IEEE, ISO, IETF