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Infection Control Worksheet

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 3600secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

Capable of destroying bacteria

a)

Virucidal

b)

Fungicidal

c)

Bactericidal

d)

Sporicidal

2.

Chemical agents that may kill, retard, or prevent the growth of bacteria; not classified as disinfectants

a)

Antiseptics

b)

Cleanser

c)

Vaccine

d)

Chelating Soaps

3.

The science that deals with the study of microorganisms called bacteria

a)

Virology

b)

Hematology

c)

Biology

d)

Bacteriology

4.

Round-shaped bacteria that appear singly (alone) or in groups; the three types of cocci are

a)

Staphylococci

b)

Streptococci

c)

Diplococci

d)

All of the above

5.

Spherical bacteria that grow in pairs and cause diseases such as pneumonia

a)

Diplococci

b)

Staphylococci

c)

Streptococci

d)

None of the above

6.

Disease marked by inflammation of the liver and caused by a bloodborne virus

a)

Diabetes

b)

Hepatitis

c)

Herpes

d)

Cancer

7.

Human immunodeficiency virus; virus that causes AIDS

a)

ADD

b)

AHA

c)

ARDS

d)

HIV

8.

Ability of the body to destroy any bacteria that have gained entrance to the body and resist infection in general

a)

Defenseless

b)

Immunity

c)

Susceptibility

d)

Vulnerability

9.

Communicable by infection from one person to another person from one infected body part to another

a)

Infectious

b)

Noncommunicable

c)

Antiseptic

d)

Germless

10.

Not harmful; nor disease-producing; organisms that perform useful functions

a)

Contagious

b)

Transmittable

c)

Nonpathogenic

d)

Noxious

11.

Organism that lives in or on another organism and draws its nourishment from that organism

a)

Parasite

b)

Symbiote

c)

Mutualism

d)

Germ

12.

Disease produced by disease-causing bacteria, such as staphylococcus and streptococcus (pus-forming bacteria), or viruses

a)

Bacterial Disease

b)

Pathogenic Disease

c)

Fungicidal Disease

d)

Protozoa Disease

13.

Skin disease caused by infestation of head lice

a)

Alopecia Aereta

b)

Psoriasis

c)

Pediculosis Capitis

d)

Vitiligo

14.

Disinfectant that is considered nontoxic, odorless, and fast-acting

a)

Quaternary Ammonium Compounds (quats)

b)

Bleach

c)

EPA

d)

Alcohol

15.

Spiral or corkscrew-shaped bacteria, such as Treponema pallida, which causes syphilis, and Borrelia burgdorferi, which causes Lyme disease

a)

Sarcina

b)

Micrococcus

c)

Bacilli

d)

Spirilla

16.

Pus-forming bacteria arranged in curved lines resembling a string of beads; cause infections such as strep throat and blood poisoning

a)

Treponema

b)

Spirochaetes

c)

Streptococci

d)

Anabaena

17.

Capable of destroying viruses

a)

Virucidal

b)

Communicable

c)

Contagious

d)

Fungicidal

18.

Transmission of blood or bloody fluids through touching (including shaking hands), kissing, coughing, sneezing and talking

a)

Indirect transmission

b)

Direct transmission

c)

Droplet transmission

d)

None of the above

19.

A disease caused by bacteria that are transmitted through coughing or sneezing

a)

Malaria

b)

Tuberculosis

c)

Syphilis

d)

Hepatitis

20.

Acquired immune deficiency syndrome, a disease caused by the HIV virus that breaks down the body's immune system

a)

AIDS

b)

HPV

c)

HBV

d)

HCV

21.

Effectiveness with which a disinfecting solution kills germs, when used according to the label

a)

Efficacy

b)

Impotence

c)

Lethargy

d)

Incompetence

22.

Body's response to injury or infection with redness, heat, pain, and swelling

a)

Recouping

b)

Inflammation

c)

Healing

d)

Dilating

23.

Safety information about products compiled by manufacturer

a)

Protocol

b)

Consent Form

c)

Material Data Safety Sheet

d)

Waiver

24.

Contagious skin disease that is caused by the itch mite, which burrows under the skin

a)

Scabies

b)

Eczema

c)

Epidermolysis

d)

Chromhidrosis

25.

Type of fungus that affects plants or grows on inanimate objects but does not cause human infections in the salon setting

a)

Histoplasmosis

b)

Mildews

c)

Candidiasis

d)

Dandruff

26.

Any organism of submicroscopic size

a)

Prokaryote

b)

Stander

c)

Parasite

d)

Microorganism

27.

An Occupational Disease is

a)

Illness resulting from conditions associated with employment

b)

Prolonged exposure to certain products or ingredients

c)

Repeated overexposure to certain products or ingredients

d)

All of the above

28.

Immunity that the body develops after it overcomes a disease, or through inoculation (such as vaccination) or through exposure to natural allergens such as pollen, cat dander, and ragweed

a)

Acquired Immunity

b)

Natural Immunity

c)

Herd Immunity

d)

Vaccinated Immunity

29.

Immunity that is partly inherited and partly developed through healthy living.

a)

Herd Immunity

b)

Vaccinated Immunity

c)

Acquired Immunity

d)

Natural Immunity

30.

Ways to clean your tools/implements

a)

Washing with soap and warm water, then scrubbing them with a clean and properly disinfected nail brush.

b)

Using ultrasonic unit

c)

Using a clean solvent

d)

All of the above

31.

The presence of viable organisms in or on an object or surface or the organic material on a surface or object before decontamination or sterilization.

a)

Bioburden

b)

Contaminated

c)

Purified

d)

Cleansed

32.

Occurs when you, the esthetician, touch an object or product with the same hand or utensil

a)

Illness

b)

Violation

c)

Cross contamination

d)

Cleaning

33.

Is to be worn for contact with all body fluids, even if blood is not visible.

a)

Head Drape

b)

PPE (personal protective equipment)

c)

Jewelry

d)

Magnifying Glasses

34.

Standard Precautions include

a)

Wearing personal protective equipment to protect skin

b)

Avoiding contact with the client's blood, body fluids, secretions (except sweat), excretions, non-intact skin

c)

Assuming that all blood and body fluids are potential sources of infection

d)

All of the above

35.

During this stage bacteria grow and reproduce.

a)

Active Stage

b)

Lag Stage

c)

Stationary Stage

d)

Death Stage

36.

Season for pink eye

a)

Summer

b)

Spring

c)

Winter

d)

Autumn

37.

An accumulation of sebum and pus, sometimes mixed with epidermal material, formed by dead cells over a wound or blemish while it is healing

a)

Sweat

b)

Crust

c)

Keratin

d)

Dandruff

38.

Disinfectants that are effective for cleaning blood and body fluids. Can be used on any non porous surface in the salon.

a)

Hospital disinfectants

b)

Alcohol

c)

EPA

d)

QUATS

39.

An item that is made or constructed of a material that has no pores or openings and cannot absorb liquids.

a)

Non-porous

b)

Single use

c)

Disposable

d)

Hazardous

40.

A microscopic germ that normally exists in tap water in small numbers.

a)

Protozoa

b)

Mycobacterium fortuitum

c)

Parasite

d)

Microorganism

41.

A device used to sterilize equipment and supplies by exposing them to high-pressure saturated steam for a specific length of time.

a)

Autoclave

b)

Sterilizer

c)

Dry Heat Machine

d)

Gas Sterilizer

42.

Client acknowledgement of the services being performed.

a)

Consultation Intake Form

b)

Waiver

c)

Material Safety Data Sheet

d)

Medical History Form

43.

A written agreement (understands and accepts all risk involved) between the client and technician for applying a particular treatment.

a)

Client History

b)

Missed Appointment Policy

c)

Consent Form

d)

Non-disclosure agreement

44.

The act of sharing information between two parties so that is effectively understood.

a)

Gossiping

b)

Client communication

c)

Hiring

d)

Informing the client

45.

Fluid product of inflammation that contains white blood cells and the debris of dead cells tissue elements, and bacteria

a)

Sweat

b)

Blood

c)

Pus

d)

Crust

46.

A comprehensive process of obtaining and interpreting the necessary data to understand the person, system, or situation.

a)

Criticizing

b)

Evaluation

c)

Comparison

d)

Improving

47.

Factors in the patient's condition that prevent the use of a particular treatment

a)

Contraindications

b)

Indication

c)

Evidence

d)

Symptom

48.

Two MOST common type of eye shapes

a)

Monolid or hooded

b)

Oblong (almond) or hooded

c)

Rounded or monolid

d)

Rounded or oblong (almond)

49.

What are the growth phases of the eyelashes?

a)

Anagen

b)

Catagen

c)

Telogen

d)

All of the above

50.

Active growing phase of eyelashes. The smallest, finest, and shortest eyelash hairs that exist for up to 2 months.

a)

Anagen

b)

Catagen

c)

Telogen

d)

None of the above

51.

End of the growing phase, transitional, medium in length and texture.

a)

Anagen

b)

Catagen

c)

Telogen

d)

None of the above

52.

Final phase in the growth cycle ready to shed. Lashes are the longest, dark, and coarse.

a)

Anagen

b)

Catagen

c)

Telogen

d)

None of the above

53.

Inflammation of the eyelids characterized by redness and swelling and dried crusts.

a)

Blepharitis

b)

Endometriosis

c)

Asthma

d)

Arthritis

54.

Loss of lashes.

a)

Alopecia

b)

Madarosis

c)

Onycholysis

d)

Vitiligo

55.

Condition of ingrowing eyelashes that rub against the cornea, causing a constant irritation to the cornea.

a)

Cataract

b)

Trichiasis

c)

Glaucoma

d)

Amblyopia

56.

Decreased production of tears or composition of the three basic layers of the eye (oil, water, mucus).

a)

Teary eye syndrome

b)

Dry eye syndrome

c)

Inflammation

d)

Irritation

57.

Microscopic mites burrowing into the follicle of the eyelash or eyebrow follicle that can cause blepharitis.

a)

Demodex mite

b)

Clover mites

c)

Itch mites

d)

Scabies mites

58.

A type of allergic reaction of the skin resulting from exposure to a specific allergen or irritants.

a)

Hay Fever

b)

Hives

c)

Contact Dermatitis

d)

Eczema

59.

A manifestation of an allergic response caused by direct contact with an allergen.

a)

Allergic Rheumatoid

b)

Allergic Rhinitis

c)

Anaphylaxis

d)

Allergic dermatitis

60.

An injury, such as a scratch or irritation, to the outer layers of the cornea.

a)

Atopic Dermatitis

b)

Impetigo

c)

Ringworm

d)

Corneal Abrasion

61.

Lesion on the cornea after an infection or injury to the corneal epithelium.

a)

Nodule

b)

Corneal Ulcer

c)

Rash

d)

Wheal

62.

A cycle lasting approximately 30 to 60 days that includes growth cycles (anagen-growth, catagen-rest, telogen-shedding).

a)

Eyelash Growth Cycle

b)

Mitosis

c)

Cell division

d)

Cell Turnover Rate

63.

The process of keeping one single natural eyelash from its neighboring lashes.

a)

Lashing

b)

Isolation

c)

Removal

d)

Application

64.

Reaction due to extreme sensitivity to certain food, chemicals, or other normally harmless substances.

a)

Infected

b)

Allergy

c)

Contagious

d)

Illness

65.

Soft tissue surrounding the eye.

a)

Blood Vessels

b)

Tendons

c)

Periorbital area

d)

Nerves

66.

Large, white area of the eye.

a)

Sclera

b)

Cornea

c)

Pupil

d)

Bulbar Conjunctiva

67.

Thin covering of skin that protects the eye.

a)

Vitreous Humor

b)

Iris

c)

Eyelash

d)

Eyelid

68.

The transparent covering over the iris and pupil that protects the lens and iris.

a)

Anterior Chamber

b)

Cornea

c)

Posterior Chamber

d)

Pupil

69.

Keep the eye moist, helps heal wounds, and protects against eye infection.

a)

Sebum

b)

Sweat

c)

Water

d)

Tears

70.

Membrane that lines underside of eyelids

a)

Palpebral Conjunctiva

b)

Cornea

c)

Eyelid

d)

Sclera

71.

Moist mucous membrane that coats the inner surfaces of the eyelids and outer surface of the eye.

a)

Oil Glad

b)

Tear Duct

c)

Conjunctiva

d)

Sweat Gland

72.

Add longer extensions to the outer corners of the eye.

a)

Rounded Eyes

b)

Monolid Eyes

c)

Hooded Eyes

d)

Downturned Eyes

73.

Use longer extensions to the center of the eye

a)

Upturned Eyes

b)

Almond Eyes

c)

Rounded Eyes

d)

Hooded Eyes

74.

Use extra-long eyelashes at the outer corners

a)

Oval

b)

Oblong

c)

Round

d)

Square

75.

Slightly longer and curlier extensions requires

a)

Wide Set

b)

Close Set

c)

Deep Set

d)

Upturned Eyes

76.

Use longer extensions near the middle of the eyes

a)

Square Face Shape

b)

Round Face Shape

c)

Square Face Shape

d)

Oblong Face Shape

77.

Close-set eyes best benefit from?

a)

Long extensions on the inner corners of the eye

b)

Short extensions on the inner corners of the eye

c)

Long extensions on the outer corners of the eye

d)

Short extensions on the outer and inner corners of the eye

78.

Round shaped eyes benefit from?

a)

Long extensions on the inner corners of the eye

b)

Short extensions on the inner corners of the eye

c)

Long extensions on the outer corners of the eye

d)

Short extensions on the outer and inner corners of the eye

79.

Eyes closer than one width apart

a)

Wide Set

b)

Deep Set Eyes

c)

Upturned Eyes

d)

Close set eyes

80.

Place longer extensions at the inner corners

a)

Wide set eyes

b)

Deep Set Eyes

c)

Close Set Eyes

d)

Downturned Eyes

81.

Longer extensions to the center of the eye

a)

Square Face Shape

b)

Oval Face Shape

c)

Oblong Face Shape

d)

Round Face Shape

82.

Cat eye is most flattering on

a)

Wide Set Eyes

b)

Deep Set Eyes

c)

Upturned Eyes

d)

Close set eyes

83.

How far should the eyes be?

a)

One eye width apart

b)

½ eye width apart

c)

1 inch apart

d)

Varies from person to person

84.

Which is true about protruding eyes?

a)

Avoid using long lashes

b)

Focus on thickness not length.

c)

Use medium lengths placing them on the sides to balance

d)

All of the above

85.

What does not determine the shape of the eyes?

a)

Quantity

b)

Placement

c)

Tissue around the eye

d)

Nose position on face

86.

Mono-lidded eyes

a)

Long extensions on the inner corners of the eye

b)

Longer extensions should be placed in the center.

c)

Short extensions on the inner corners of the eye

d)

Short extensions on the outer and inner corners of the eye

87.

Ocular herpes is

a)

Infection of the cornea, the retina, or the uvea

b)

Infection of the genitals

c)

Oral Infection

d)

None of the above

88.

Ectropion is the

a)

Inflammation of the eye

b)

Infection of the eyelash follicle

c)

Lower eyelid loose and rolling outward.

d)

A healthy eye

89.

Ocular Rosacea is

a)

Inflammation of the skin surrounding the eye

b)

Irritation of the tear duct

c)

Inflammation of the eyelash follicle

d)

Irritation of the cornea

90.

A corneal ulcer is

a)

Inflammation of the skin surrounding the eye

b)

A local inflammation of the cornea caused by injury or inflammation

c)

Irritation of cornea

d)

Pupil dilation

91.

The benefits of the twist and peel technique are

a)

It removes poorly based extensions

b)

Used on extensions that develop air pockets between the extension and natural lash

c)

Eliminates the need for extension removed during touch ups or application

d)

All of the above

92.

How many times should you perform the separation technique?

a)

Once

b)

Twice

c)

Four Times

d)

Five Times

93.

Which tweezer is used to isolate a single natural eyelash?

a)

Curved

b)

Straight

c)

Angled

d)

L shape

94.

A blunt end of an extension that fails to bond properly with the base of the natural eyelash.

a)

Loose base

b)

Strong base

c)

Healthy Lash

d)

Unhealthy Lash

95.

When the tapered tips of the extension and the natural eyelash fail to meet due to a significant difference in the curvature of the two eyelashes.

a)

Strong Base

b)

Loose Base

c)

Split end

d)

Mended End

96.

The time between the application of a full set, and when they begin to naturally shed (touch ups or full replacement).

a)

Longevity

b)

Shedding

c)

Growing

d)

Damaging

97.

The chemical name for a certain family of fast-acting adhesives that solidify into an inert (non-reactive) polymer

a)

Teflon

b)

Cyanoacrylate

c)

Polyethylene

d)

Nylon

98.

Shock polymerization occurs when

a)

When too much adhesive has been applied

b)

When the adhesive is not curing

c)

When excess moisture is exposed to a fresh cyanoacrylate bond

d)

When lashes shed prematurely

99.

What Materials are lash extensions made of?

a)

Polybutylene Terephthalate

b)

Polyethylene

c)

Hevea Brasiliensis

d)

Silicon Dioxide

100.

A colorless gas with a sharp suffocating odor.

a)

Methane

b)

Formaldehyde

c)

Nitrogen Dioxide

d)

Natural Gas

101.

The application, removal, and trimming of threadlike natural or synthetic fibers to an eyelash, and includes the cleansing of the eye area and lashes.

a)

Threading

b)

Eyelash extensions

c)

Sugaring

d)

Facial

102.

A chain composed of smaller molecular units that make up a long strand of attached monomers

a)

Long-chain monomer

b)

Short-chain polymer

c)

Long-chain polymer

d)

Short-chain monomer

103.

The relative thickness of a liquid substance.

a)

Viscosity

b)

Density

c)

Incoherence

d)

Porosity

104.

A molecule that can be bonded to other identical molecules to form a polymer.

a)

Monomer

b)

Diatomic

c)

Heteronuclear

d)

Carbon Monoxide

105.

A large molecule composed of repeating structural units.

a)

Monomer

b)

Polymer

c)

Monoxide

d)

Diatomic

106.

A short string of repeating molecular units (monomers) that come together when cyanoacrylate adhesive solidifies from loose monomers into a chain of linked polymers.

a)

Long-chain monomer

b)

Short-chain polymer

c)

Long-chain polymer

d)

Short-chain monomer

107.

Who is the inventor of the first permanent wave machine and patented "artificial eyelashes"

a)

Charles Nessler

b)

Alexandre Godefroy

c)

Issac Shero

d)

Abu Al-Qasim Al-Zahrawi

108.

Excessive tearing symptoms watering eyes, mucus, puss discharge

a)

Dry Eye

b)

Infected Eye

c)

Irritated Eye

d)

Leaky Eye

109.

A red, painful bump inflamed area on eyelid and a bacterial infection

a)

Diptheria

b)

Infectious Mononucleosis

c)

Stye

d)

Giardiasis

110.

Inflammation of the sclera causing pain and vision loss

a)

Uveitis

b)

Conjunctivitis

c)

Scleritis

d)

Thyroid Eye Disease

111.

What is an irritation?

a)

Same symptoms of an allergy but only lasts no more than 24 hours

b)

Worse symptoms of an allergy

c)

Same symptoms of an allergy but lasts more than 7 days

d)

No symptoms and only lasts a few hours

112.

What is true of sensitive adhesive

a)

High amount of cyanoacrylate

b)

Slower drying

c)

More fumy

d)

Great retention

113.

What is not true of advanced adhesives

a)

High amount of cyanoacrylate

b)

Faster drying

c)

More fumy

d)

Poor retention

114.

When caring for your adhesive you should

a)

Keep nozzle clean

b)

Store in cool dark place

c)

Replace every 4 weeks

d)

All of the above

115.

Unopened bottles last up to 6 months and can be stored in a refrigerator lasting up to 8 months.

a)

True

b)

False

116.

Opened bottles need to be kept in a cool/dark place and lasts between 5–6 weeks after it's been opened.

a)

True

b)

False

117.

Nano Misters slow the gassing of the fumes and increases eye redness and irritation.

a)

True

b)

False

118.

Which tweezers is perfect for isolation and lash pick up

a)

Curved Tweezer

b)

L Shaped Tweezer

c)

Straight Tweezer

d)

Volume Tweezers

119.

It doesn’t matter what hand is your dominant because you will always isolate with which hand?

a)

Left

b)

Right

c)

Dominant

d)

Non-dominant hand

120.

Placing tweezer with dominant hand

a)

Curved Tweezer

b)

Straight Tweezer

c)

Volume Tweezer

d)

Pointed Tweezer