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Background and Scope of QRM

Total questions: 61

Worksheet time: 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best describes the primary purpose of Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) in pharmaceuticals?

a)

To ensure risks are largely controlled in manufacturing

b)

To eliminate all patient risk in healthcare delivery

c)

To guarantee zero defects across all product batches

d)

To increase production speed regardless of quality

2.

When control is less effective in pharmaceutical manufacturing, what is the most likely consequence?

a)

Distribution timelines automatically accelerate

b)

Costs will always decrease across the supply chain

c)

Patients may be at risk due to inadequate quality

d)

Regulators reduce inspection frequency

3.

Quality Risk Management (QRM) is best defined as which of the following?

a)

An overall and continuing process to manage product quality risks

b)

A one-time audit to confirm GMP certification

c)

A manufacturing scheduling tool for batch release

d)

A marketing strategy to improve brand perception

4.

Which activities are explicitly included in the scope of effective QRM across a product’s life cycle?

a)

Research, sourcing, manufacturing, packaging, testing, storage, distribution

b)

Human resources hiring and payroll management

c)

Branding, advertising, sales training, customer outreach

d)

Only clinical trials and post-market surveillance

5.

Which set lists core components of the QRM process for product quality?

a)

Ideation, prototyping, marketing, sales

b)

Assessment, control, communication, review of risks

c)

Certification, accreditation, standardization, publication

d)

Procurement, warehousing, invoicing, taxation

6.

Medicines regulatory authorities (MRAs) adopting a risk-based approach primarily aim to do what?

a)

Maximize manufacturer profits through tax incentives

b)

Lower the number of inspections regardless of risk levels

c)

Protect patients by focusing on product quality, safety, efficacy

d)

Standardize packaging sizes for all dosage forms

7.

Which opportunity reflects how MRAs can leverage QRM in planning oversight?

a)

Systematic, structured planning of risk-based reviews and inspections

b)

Delegating inspection entirely to manufacturers’ internal teams

c)

Prioritizing facilities with historically strong compliance only

d)

Randomized scheduling of inspections to avoid predictability

8.

Which statement best describes the first primary principle of Quality Risk Management in pharmaceuticals?

a)

Risk evaluation uses historical costs and budgets

b)

Risk evaluation relies on expert opinion alone

c)

Risk evaluation is based on scientific knowledge

d)

Risk evaluation focuses on production efficiency

9.

What does proportionate effort in QRM mean for the level of formality and documentation?

a)

It should follow corporate templates only

b)

It should match the assessed level of risk

c)

It should be equal across all risks

d)

It should be maximal for all activities

10.

A team designs a QRM process that is dynamic, iterative, and responsive to change. Which practice most directly supports this approach?

a)

Freezing risk registers after approval

b)

Collecting new data and updating assessments

c)

Limiting reviews to annual audits

d)

Using a single fixed risk matrix

11.

Continual improvement capability embedded in QRM primarily enables which outcome?

a)

Ongoing enhancement of risk controls and processes

b)

Outsourcing all risk decisions to consultants

c)

Permanent elimination of all product risks

d)

Replacement of scientific evidence with experience

12.

In the typical quality risk management process shown, which step immediately follows risk identification within risk assessment?

a)

Risk control planning stage

b)

Risk analysis within assessment

c)

Risk review of outcomes

d)

Risk communication summary

13.

According to the flowchart, when are review events conducted in the QRM process?

a)

After output/result generation

b)

Before risk identification begins

c)

Immediately after communication starts

d)

Concurrent with risk reduction

14.

A deviation is judged unacceptable after risk evaluation. Based on the process, what should the team do next?

a)

Move directly to risk review

b)

Restart with risk communication

c)

Archive results and close

d)

Proceed to risk reduction actions

15.

Which term describes a finished dosage form that has completed all manufacturing stages, including final container and labeling?

a)

Pharmaceutical product target profile

b)

Critical material attribute

c)

Finished pharmaceutical product

d)

Critical quality attribute

16.

Which term refers to a property that must remain within an appropriate limit, range, or distribution to ensure product quality?

a)

Failure mode

b)

Critical process parameter

c)

Critical quality attribute

d)

Risk priority number

17.

A material characteristic that can impact a critical quality attribute is called a:

a)

Risk identification step

b)

Quality target profile

c)

Planned risk assessment

d)

Critical material attribute

18.

Which term refers to a process parameter that can affect a critical quality attribute?

a)

Risk review procedure

b)

Critical material attribute

c)

Critical process parameter

d)

Stakeholder involvement

19.

Which activity uses information systematically to identify potential hazards related to a risk question or problem description?

a)

Risk evaluation

b)

Control strategy

c)

Risk identification

d)

Risk review

20.

Comparing estimated risk to given criteria using quantitative or qualitative scales best describes:

a)

Risk identification

b)

Failure mode analysis

c)

Risk evaluation

d)

Stakeholder analysis

21.

Monitoring outputs of the risk management process considering new knowledge and experience about the risk refers to:

a)

Risk review

b)

Risk evaluation

c)

Risk identification

d)

Control strategy

22.

Different ways a process or subprocess can fail to provide the anticipated result are called:

a)

Failure modes

b)

Quality profiles

c)

Critical attributes

d)

Risk criteria

23.

Which method systematically identifies and prevents product and process problems?

a)

Material specification plan

b)

FMECA approach

c)

Stakeholder mapping

d)

Risk review cycle

24.

In FMECA, the Risk Priority Number (RPN) is the product of which three ratings?

a)

Likelihood, impact, mitigation

b)

Input, process, output

c)

Quality, compliance, cost

d)

Severity, occurrence, detection

25.

An assessment conducted in advance of an activity, allowing quality to be built into activities and risk to be reduced, is a:

a)

Planned risk assessment

b)

Control strategy audit

c)

Risk review meeting

d)

Unplanned risk assessment

26.

An assessment to evaluate the impact of a situation that has already occurred is called:

a)

Unplanned risk assessment

b)

Risk evaluation

c)

Planned risk assessment

d)

Risk identification

27.

Which term describes a planned set of controls that assures process performance and product quality, covering parameters for APIs, FPP, materials, and monitoring?

a)

Control strategy

b)

Stakeholder registry

c)

Risk review

d)

Target product profile

28.

Who are considered primary stakeholders in pharmaceutical QRM?

a)

Patients, health‑care professionals, MRAs, industry

b)

Academics, investors, community groups, NGOs

c)

Suppliers, auditors, media outlets, insurers

d)

Retailers, couriers, hospital visitors, students

29.

Selecting process parameters to maintain a CQA within its acceptable range is primarily part of which activity?

a)

Control strategy

b)

Risk identification

c)

Failure mode listing

d)

Stakeholder analysis

30.

Which statement about the FPP is accurate in QRM context?

a)

It is the final labeled dosage form

b)

It is a research stability sample

c)

It is a raw material container

d)

It is an unvalidated pilot batch

31.

Which item is NOT a component used to calculate RPN in FMECA?

a)

Cost of failure

b)

Severity rating

c)

Occurrence rating

d)

Detection rating

32.

Which activity would most likely be performed after implementing a control strategy to see if new information changes risk understanding?

a)

Risk review

b)

Target profile update

c)

Risk identification

d)

Planned risk assessment

33.

Which pair correctly matches term to brief role in QRM?

a)

RPN: outlines target product properties

b)

Stakeholder: defines dosage form strength

c)

CQA: ensures product quality limits

d)

CPP: lists market authorization bodies

34.

Which task comes first when initiating a Quality Risk Management (QRM) process?

a)

Select mitigation actions immediately

b)

Draft the final risk report

c)

Allocate the full project budget

d)

Define the risk question clearly

35.

Who should be identified early to coordinate tasks and resources during QRM initiation?

a)

A vendor representative for supplies

b)

A regulatory inspector for oversight

c)

A finance auditor for budget control

d)

A QRM leader with necessary resources

36.

Which pair best represents planning outputs set at the start of a QRM process?

a)

Timeline and deliverables

b)

Control limits and CAPA

c)

Batch records and SOPs

d)

Validation protocol and URS

37.

What is the primary reason for assembling a multidisciplinary QRM team in pharmaceutical operations?

a)

To ensure diverse product-specific expertise

b)

To eliminate regulatory inspections

c)

To reduce documentation requirements

d)

To streamline only financial decisions

38.

During risk evaluation, which action distinguishes risks that require control from those that can be accepted?

a)

Assess impact and likelihood systematically

b)

Check if risks are mentioned in SOPs

c)

Confirm budget availability for controls

d)

Compare risks to competitor practices

39.

When applying QRM to a specific operation, which documentation tool best supports understanding of preceding and following steps?

a)

A vendor qualification checklist

b)

An equipment lubrication log

c)

A process flow diagram covering operations

d)

A monthly production summary report

40.

During pharmaceutical manufacturing risk assessment, which areas should typically be considered?

a)

Materials, processes, premises, equipment, and personnel

b)

Regulatory fines and legal counsel selection

c)

Sales forecasting and distribution logistics

d)

Brand reputation and market share only

41.

Which basic question directly assesses severity in a QRM risk assessment?

a)

What might go wrong in this step?

b)

What is the nature of possible risks?

c)

How easy is it to detect the risk?

d)

What are the consequences (the severity)?

42.

Which statement best distinguishes quantitative from qualitative risk assessment outputs?

a)

Quantitative focuses detection; qualitative focuses prevention

b)

Quantitative is faster to perform; qualitative is more accurate

c)

Quantitative uses expert panels; qualitative uses algorithms

d)

Quantitative uses numeric probability; qualitative uses categories

43.

A step requires control for safety but no measure exists. What should be done according to QRM?

a)

Reassign responsibilities to production staff

b)

Include a control measure at that step immediately

c)

Proceed and document the gap for later review

d)

Skip the step until audit approval is obtained

44.

Which statement best describes the primary purpose of risk control within Quality Risk Management?

a)

To document risk history for future audits only

b)

To reduce or accept risks to an acceptable level

c)

To eliminate all risks regardless of feasibility

d)

To postpone decisions until more data is available

45.

During risk control, which question helps evaluate unintended consequences of interventions?

a)

What is the root cause of the risk?

b)

Are new risks introduced by controlling identified risks?

c)

Which team owns the process documentation?

d)

How many resources were used last quarter?

46.

Which measure represents changing the likelihood rather than removing the risk source?

a)

Ceasing the risky activity entirely

b)

Outsourcing the activity to a contractor

c)

Installing redundant alarms to prevent process drift

d)

Substituting a hazardous solvent with water

47.

Which statement best describes periodic monitoring in the risk review stage of pharmaceutical QRM?

a)

Scheduled measurement of a specific risk control versus limits

b)

Continuous auditing of all departments for compliance

c)

Occasional informal inspection when issues are reported

d)

Routine checking of general operations without metrics

48.

A facility changes its supplier for a critical excipient. What is the most appropriate QRM risk review action?

a)

Skip review if supplier is certified and reputable

b)

Reassess the original decision considering new supplier information

c)

Archive previous records and start a new QRM process

d)

Only monitor equipment since materials are unchanged

49.

Who should sign and date records generated during risk review activities in a pharmaceutical quality unit?

a)

Any available staff member in production

b)

External consultant hired for the audit

c)

Person conducting the review and responsible quality official(s)

d)

Only the head of regulatory affairs

50.

Which statement best explains why training in QRM principles is essential in pharmaceutical organizations?

a)

It guarantees regulatory approval without inspections

b)

It primarily reduces manufacturing cycle times

c)

It enables consistent identification and control of risks

d)

It ensures uniform documentation across departments

51.

During product development, when should the first formal QRM exercise be performed?

a)

Immediately after clinical Phase I begins

b)

After Quality Target Product Profile is defined

c)

Once commercial scale validation is complete

d)

Before any preformulation activities start

52.

A cross‑functional team is implementing QRM in a new formulation project. Which approach most clearly reflects proper assignment of responsibilities?

a)

Leave decisions to the most senior manager

b)

Document roles so all personnel understand duties

c)

Rotate tasks weekly to build versatility

d)

Assign all risk tasks to quality unit only

53.

Which statement best describes the purpose of a process flow chart in pharmaceutical quality risk management?

a)

Visualizes workflow steps to spot risks

b)

Lists equipment specifications for audits

c)

Ranks suppliers by historical defect rates

d)

Summarizes batch records for release decisions

54.

In a fishbone diagram used for root cause analysis, which choice represents an appropriate major category branch?

a)

Machines and tooling factors

b)

Customer loyalty tiers

c)

Marketing campaign themes

d)

Weekly sales targets

55.

You observe recurring granulation failures. Which tool should you first use to map where the failure may occur across the manufacturing sequence?

a)

Process flow chart visualization

b)

Pareto chart frequency ranking

c)

Control chart trend monitoring

d)

Fishbone diagram brainstorming

56.

A team is brainstorming why tablets show low hardness. Which approach aligns with fishbone diagram use?

a)

Calculate process capability indices immediately

b)

Organize causes under branches like Material and Methods

c)

Only trace the linear steps of the process

d)

Replace the press without investigating

57.

When implementing solutions from a fishbone analysis, which reasoning shows effective strategic thinking?

a)

Assume operator skill is the sole root cause

b)

Prioritize causes with evidence and test countermeasures

c)

Change multiple variables simultaneously without data

d)

Ignore measurement system errors as unlikely

58.

Which statement best defines the purpose of a risk matrix in pharmaceutical quality risk management?

a)

To assign budgets to mitigation projects

b)

To categorize risks by probability and impact

c)

To calculate process capability indices

d)

To schedule audits across manufacturing sites

59.

In a probability versus impact matrix, which axis pairing is most appropriate for prioritizing risks?

a)

Occurrence frequency on both axes

b)

Likelihood on the x-axis, cost on the y-axis

c)

Severity on both axes for redundancy

d)

Probability on one axis, impact on the other

60.

A risk scored as 'Almost certain' probability and 'Critical' impact would most likely be prioritized as which color zone in a typical heat map?

a)

Low-risk green zone

b)

Moderate-risk yellow zone

c)

High-risk red zone

d)

Informational blue zone

61.

Which pairing correctly matches probability score with an example frequency from the consequences table?

a)

Score 1: Seen more than once a year

b)

Score 3: Seen every 10–30 years

c)

Score 2: Seen every 1–5 years

d)

Score 5: Seen several times a year