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CRF and eCRF Practices Worksheet

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The primary purpose of a CRF is to:

a)

Capture source data exactly as recorded

b)

Serve as a legal document for the investigator

c)

Collect protocol-required data in a structured manner

d)

Replace medical records

2.

Which of the following best defines “CRF completion guidelines”?

a)

Instructions for database programmers

b)

Site-specific SOPs

c)

Sponsor-provided instructions on accurate CRF entry

d)

Regulatory submission requirements

3.

A CRA identifies consistent protocol deviations recorded in source but missing in CRF. This represents a failure in:

a)

Data validation

b)

Source data verification

c)

Data consistency and completeness

d)

Medical coding

4.

Which document primarily governs the design and content of a CRF?

a)

Monitoring Plan

b)

Study Protocol

c)

Investigator Brochure

d)

Statistical Analysis Plan

5.

When should a CRA recommend a CRF amendment?

a)

When a site requests it

b)

When data trends indicate ambiguity or missing protocol-required data

c)

After database lock

d)

Only during audits

6.

In eCRF systems, audit trails must record:

a)

Only final data values

b)

Investigator signatures

c)

Who changed data, when, and why

d)

System administrator access only

7.

Which situation most strongly indicates poor CRF design?

a)

High screen failure rate

b)

Frequent data entry queries across multiple sites

c)

Delayed monitoring visits

d)

Missing delegation logs

8.

For which data is 100% SDV most commonly justified in current trials?

a)

Demographics

b)

Exploratory endpoints

c)

Primary efficacy and critical safety data

d)

Concomitant medications

9.

In an eCRF, edit checks are primarily intended to:

a)

Replace CRA review

b)

Prevent incorrect or inconsistent data entry

c)

Lock the database early

d)

Reduce investigator workload

10.

Which data discrepancy should a CRA escalate immediately?

a)

Minor spelling errors

b)

Missing optional data

c)

Serious adverse event not reported in CRF

d)

Late visit window

11.

Who is ultimately responsible for CRF data accuracy at the site?

a)

CRA

b)

Data manager

12.

A change made directly in eCRF without source documentation is:

a)

Acceptable if signed later

b)

Allowed for non-critical data

c)

A violation of ALCOA+ principles

d)

Sponsor-dependent

13.

Which ALCOA+ principle is most directly supported by eCRF audit trails?

a)

Accurate

b)

Legible

c)

Contemporaneous

d)

Attributable

14.

In risk-based monitoring, CRF review should focus primarily on:

a)

All fields equally

b)

Financial data

c)

Critical data and processes

d)

Historical data only

15.

If a site consistently delays eCRF entry, the CRA should FIRST:

a)

Raise a protocol deviation

b)

Inform the sponsor immediately

c)

Assess root cause and retrain site staff

d)

Lock the site

16.

Which role typically performs medical coding linked to CRF data?

a)

CRA

b)

Investigator

c)

Data management team

d)

Ethics committee

17.

Which scenario best demonstrates correct query resolution?

a)

CRA resolves query on behalf of site

b)

Site deletes incorrect data without explanation

c)

Investigator updates data with justification

d)

Sponsor overrides site response

18.

In eCRF systems, role-based access control ensures:

a)

Faster data entry

b)

Better audit readiness

c)

Users can only perform authorized functions

d)

Reduced monitoring visits

19.

CRF/eCRF data are considered source data when:

a)

Printed and signed

b)

Defined as source in the protocol

c)

Verified by CRA

d)

Uploaded to TMF

20.

During an inspection, incomplete CRFs primarily raise concerns related to:

a)

Investigator workload

b)

Trial timelines

c)

Data integrity and subject safety

d)

Budget management

21.

An Adverse Event (AE) is best defined as:

a)

Any untoward medical occurrence causally related to IP

b)

Any untoward medical occurrence in a subject administered a product, regardless of causality

c)

Any event leading to hospitalization

d)

Any protocol deviation affecting safety

22.

A Serious Adverse Event (SAE) is identified primarily based on:

a)

Severity

b)

Expectedness

c)

Seriousness criteria

d)

Causality

23.

Which of the following is NOT a seriousness criterion?

a)

Death

b)

Life-threatening event

c)

Requires hospitalization

d)

Severe headache

24.

Under NDCT Rules 2019, an SAE must be reported by the investigator to the sponsor within:

a)

12 hours

b)

24 hours

c)

7 calendar days

d)

14 calendar days

25.

As per NDCT, the investigator must report SAE details to CDSCO, Ethics Committee, and Sponsor within:

a)

24 hours

b)

48 hours

c)

7 calendar days

d)

14 calendar days

26.

In India, the responsibility for determining SAE compensation lies with:

a)

Investigator

b)

Sponsor

c)

Ethics Committee

d)

Central Licensing Authority (CDSCO)

27.

Which document is critical for assessing SAE causality?

a)

Monitoring Plan

b)

Informed Consent Form

c)

Investigator Brochure

d)

Site SOP

28.

An event that prolongs existing hospitalization is classified as:

a)

AE

b)

Non-serious AE

c)

SAE

d)

Protocol deviation

29.

A medically important event that does not result in hospitalization may still be an SAE if it:

a)

Is mild

b)

Is unrelated

c)

Requires intervention to prevent serious outcome

d)

Is expected

30.

Who is ultimately responsible for SAE reporting at the site?

a)

CRA

b)

Study coordinator

c)

Investigator

d)

Sponsor

31.

Which AE must always be reported as an SAE?

a)

Grade 3 nausea

b)

Death due to disease progression

c)

Mild rash

d)

Laboratory abnormality without symptoms

32.

Expectedness of an SAE is determined using the:

a)

Protocol

b)

CRF

c)

Investigator Brochure

d)

Monitoring Plan

33.

Under ICH-GCP E6 (R3), safety reporting emphasizes:

a)

Paper-based reporting

b)

Real-time risk management

c)

100% SDV

d)

Site-level decision making

34.

A CRA identifies an SAE recorded in source but not reported. This represents:

a)

Documentation delay

b)

Data entry issue

c)

Serious GCP non-compliance

d)

Minor protocol deviation

35.

Which timeline applies for sponsor reporting of fatal or life-threatening SUSARs to regulators (ICH)?

a)

24 hours

b)

7 calendar days

c)

10 calendar days

d)

15 calendar days

36.

Non-fatal, non–life-threatening SUSARs must be reported within:

a)

7 days

b)

10 days

c)

14 days

d)

30 days

37.

Which of the following is NOT part of SAE initial report requirements?

a)

Subject identifier

b)

Event description

c)

Detailed root cause analysis

d)

Onset date

38.

Follow-up SAE reports are required when

a)

The CRA requests them

b)

New significant information becomes available

c)

Database is locked

d)

EC meeting is scheduled

39.

A pregnancy during a clinical trial is

a)

Always an SAE

b)

Never reportable

c)

An AE of special interest

d)

A protocol deviation

40.

Which role ensures that SAEs are included in Development Safety Update Reports (DSUR)?

a)

CRA

b)

Investigator

c)

Sponsor

d)

Ethics Committee

41.

Severity grading of AEs is usually based on

a)

Investigator judgment only

b)

Regulatory requirement

c)

Predefined grading scale (e.g., CTCAE)

d)

Sponsor discretion

42.

An SAE occurring after study completion but related to IP should be

a)

Ignored

b)

Reported per protocol and regulations

c)

Reported only if fatal

d)

Documented as deviation

43.

Which principle ensures traceability of SAE changes in eCRF?

a)

Completeness

b)

Timeliness

c)

Audit trail

d)

Medical coding

44.

An AE that worsens in intensity should be recorded as

a)

A new AE

b)

Continuation without change

c)

Updated AE with increased severity

d)

SAE automatically

45.

Who is responsible for medical review of SAEs at sponsor level?

a)

CRA

b)

Pharmacovigilance physician

c)

Data manager

d)

Ethics Committee

46.

Which scenario most likely triggers a regulatory inspection finding?

a)

Late query resolution

b)

Missing AE end date

c)

Unreported SAE

d)

Typographical error

47.

An AE judged unrelated to IP still requires reporting if it is

a)

Expected

b)

Serious

c)

Mild

d)

Chronic

48.

Under NDCT, compensation is applicable when SAE is

a)

Expected

b)

Mild

c)

Related to clinical trial

d)

Due to negligence only

49.

Which document guides SAE reporting workflow and timelines?

a)

Monitoring Plan

b)

Safety Management Plan

c)

Delegation Log

d)

Financial Agreement

50.

A CRA’s PRIMARY role in SAE management is to

a)

Assess causality

b)

Enter SAE data

c)

Ensure timely reporting and compliance

d)

Approve compensation

51.

Which AE requires expedited reporting?

a)

Expected AE

b)

Non-serious AE

c)

SUSAR

d)

Resolved AE

52.

An SAE narrative should primarily describe

a)

Financial impact

b)

Regulatory opinion

c)

Clinical course and outcome

d)

Monitoring findings

53.

Which factor does NOT affect SAE causality assessment?

a)

Temporal relationship

b)

Dechallenge/rechallenge

c)

Monitor opinion

d)

Alternative etiology

54.

Under ICH-GCP E6 (R3), safety oversight is best supported by:

a)

Retrospective review

b)

Risk-based approach

c)

Paper documentation

d)

CRA-only review

55.

An AE recorded only in progress notes but not in CRF indicates a lapse in:

a)

Source documentation

b)

Data reconciliation

c)

Data completeness

d)

Protocol adherence

56.

Which committee reviews cumulative safety data at sponsor level?

a)

Ethics Committee

b)

Data Monitoring Committee (DMC)

c)

CRA team

d)

Site management

57.

Which AE outcome must always be followed until resolution or stabilization?

a)

Mild AE

b)

Expected AE

c)

SAE

d)

Screen failure AE

58.

Failure to report an SAE within timelines may result in:

a)

Data query

b)

Monitoring visit

c)

Regulatory action

d)

Database delay only

59.

Which of the following best reflects ALCOA+ in SAE documentation?

a)

Handwritten notes

b)

Delayed entry

c)

Attributable, contemporaneous recording

d)

Monitor verification

60.

During inspection, regulators most commonly verify SAE compliance by reviewing:

a)

Monitoring reports

b)

Safety narratives and reporting timelines

c)

CRA visit frequency

d)

Financial records

61.

The primary ethical principle underlying informed consent is:

a)

Beneficence

b)

Justice

c)

Respect for persons (autonomy)

d)

Non-maleficence

62.

As per ICH-GCP E6 (R3), informed consent must be obtained:

a)

After enrollment

b)

Before any trial-related procedures

c)

Before randomization only

d)

Before first dose only

63.

Under NDCT Rules 2019, who is responsible for obtaining informed consent?

a)

CRA

b)

Study coordinator

64.

Which of the following is NOT a mandatory element of an ICF?

a)

Purpose of the study

b)

Potential risks and benefits

c)

Investigator’s financial disclosures

d)

Voluntary participation and right to withdraw

65.

Informed consent must be documented by:

a)

Verbal agreement only

b)

Subject signature and date

c)

Subject and investigator/designee signatures and dates

d)

CRA confirmation

66.

When must a revised ICF be implemented at the site?

a)

After sponsor approval only

b)

After Ethics Committee approval

c)

After CRA approval

d)

After database lock

67.

Re-consent of trial participants is required when:

a)

The study timeline changes

b)

New safety information becomes available

c)

Monitoring frequency increases

d)

Site staff changes

68.

According to NDCT, audio-visual (AV) recording of consent is mandatory for:

a)

All clinical trials

b)

Phase IV studies only

c)

Vulnerable populations and new chemical entities (as applicable)

d)

Bioavailability studies only

69.

The language of the ICF should be:

a)

English only

b)

Technical and precise

c)

Understandable to the subject

d)

As per sponsor preference

70.

Who should receive a copy of the signed informed consent form?

a)

Sponsor only

b)

CRA only

c)

Trial subject

d)

Ethics Committee only

71.

If a subject is illiterate, informed consent must include:

a)

Thumb impression only

b)

Signature of a legally acceptable representative

c)

An impartial witness signature

d)

CRA signature

72.

Which situation represents invalid informed consent?

a)

Consent obtained before screening

b)

Consent obtained after explaining risks and benefits

c)

Consent obtained after trial-related procedure

d)

Consent documented with signatures and dates

73.

Under ICH-GCP E6 (R3), informed consent is viewed as:

a)

A one-time signature process

b)

An administrative requirement

c)

An ongoing process throughout the trial

d)

A sponsor responsibility

74.

The CRA’s PRIMARY responsibility regarding ICF is to:

a)

Obtain consent

b)

Translate the consent form

c)

Verify proper consent process and documentation

d)

Approve consent versions

75.

Which element must be clearly explained in the ICF regarding compensation?

a)

Sponsor profits

b)

Financial incentives for participation

c)

Compensation for trial-related injury

d)

CRA payments

76.

If a subject withdraws consent, the investigator should:

a)

Destroy all collected data

b)

Stop trial procedures and document withdrawal

c)

Continue safety follow-up without consent

d)

Replace the subject immediately

77.

Who approves the final ICF before use at a site?

a)

Sponsor only

b)

CRA

c)

Ethics Committee

d)

Data Management

78.

Which is a common inspection finding related to ICFs?

a)

Late monitoring visit

b)

Missing subject initials

c)

Use of outdated ICF version

d)

Delayed database lock

79.

Under NDCT, consent must be obtained from a Legally Acceptable Representative (LAR) when:

a)

Subject is elderly

b)

Subject is illiterate

c)

Subject is unable to give informed consent

d)

Subject refuses participation

80.

The principle of voluntariness in informed consent ensures that:

a)

Subjects receive financial benefit

b)

Participation is free from coercion or undue influence

c)

Subjects complete the trial

d)

Sponsor obligations are fulfilled