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Information Security and Cryptography MCQs

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

(0.200 Point) The three concepts that form what is often referred to as the CIA triad are ________. These three concepts embody the fundamental security objectives for both data and for information and computing services.

a)

confidentiality, integrity and availability

b)

communication, integrity and authentication

c)

confidentiality, integrity, access control

d)

communication, information and authenticity

2.

(0.200 Point) A loss of ________ is the unauthorized disclosure of information.

a)

authenticity

b)

confidentiality

c)

reliability

d)

integrity

3.

(0.200 Point) Verifying that users are who they say they are and that each input arriving at the system came from a trusted source is ________.

a)

authenticity

b)

credibility

c)

accountability

d)

integrity

4.

(0.200 Point) A __________ is any action that compromises the security of information owned by an organization.

a)

security attack

b)

security service

c)

security alert

d)

security mechanism

5.

(0.200 Point) A __________ takes place when one entity pretends to be a different entity.

a)

replay

b)

masquerade

c)

service denial

d)

passive attack

6.

(0.200 Point) _________ is the protection of transmitted data from passive attacks.

a)

Access control

b)

Data control

c)

Nonrepudiation

d)

Confidentiality

7.

(0.200 Point) A(n) __________ service is one that protects a system to ensure its availability and addresses the security concerns raised by denial-of-service attacks.

a)

replay

b)

availability

c)

masquerade

d)

integrity

8.

(0.200 Point) __________ threats exploit service flaws in computers to inhibit use by legitimate users.

a)

Information access

b)

Reliability

c)

Passive

d)

Service

9.

(0.200 Point) A(n) __________ is a potential for violation of security, which exists when there is a circumstance, capability, action, or event that could breach security and cause harm.

a)

threat

b)

attack

c)

risk

d)

attack vector

10.

(0.200 Point) The protection of the information that might be derived from the observation of traffic flows is _________.

a)

connectionless confidentiality

b)

connection confidentiality

c)

traffic-flow confidentiality

d)

selective-field confidentiality

11.

(0.200 Point) Data appended to, or a cryptographic transformation of, a data unit that allows a recipient of the data unit to prove the source and integrity of the data unit and protect against forgery is a(n) __________.

a)

security audit trail

b)

digital signature

c)

encipherment

d)

authentication exchange

12.

(0.200 Point) __________ techniques map plaintext elements (characters, bits) into ciphertext elements.

a)

Transposition

b)

Substitution

c)

Traditional

d)

Symmetric

13.

(0.200 Point) An original intelligible message fed into the algorithm as input is known as __________, while the coded message produced as output is called the __________.

a)

decryption, encryption

b)

plaintext, ciphertext

c)

deciphering, enciphering

d)

cipher, plaintext

14.

(0.200 Point) Restoring the plaintext from the ciphertext is __________.

a)

deciphering

b)

transposition

c)

steganography

d)

encryption

15.

(0.200 Point) A __________ attack involves trying every possible key until an intelligible translation of the ciphertext is obtained.

a)

brute-force

b)

Caesar attack

c)

ciphertext only

d)

chosen plaintext

16.

(0.200 Point) Techniques used for deciphering a message without any knowledge of the enciphering details is __________.

a)

blind deciphering

b)

steganography

c)

cryptanalysis

d)

transposition

17.

(0.200 Point) The __________ takes the ciphertext and the secret key and produces the original plaintext. It is essentially the encryption algorithm run in reverse.

a)

Voronoi algorithm

b)

decryption algorithm

c)

cryptanalysis

d)

diagram algorithm

18.

(0.200 Point) If both sender and receiver use the same key, the system is referred to as:

a)

public-key encryption

b)

two-key

c)

asymmetric

d)

conventional encryption

19.

(0.200 Point) __________ attacks exploit the characteristics of the algorithm to attempt to deduce a specific plaintext or to deduce the key being used.

a)

Brute-force

b)

Cryptanalytic

c)

Block cipher

d)

Transposition

20.

(0.200 Point) The __________ attack is the easiest to defend against because the opponent has the least amount of information to work with.

a)

ciphertext-only

b)

chosen ciphertext

c)

known plaintext

d)

chosen plaintext

21.

(0.200 Point) __________ refer to common two-letter combinations in the English language.

a)

Streaming

b)

Transposition

c)

Diagrams

d)

Polyalphabetic cipher

22.

(0.200 Point) A way to improve on the simple monoalphabetic technique is to use different monoalphabetic substitutions as one proceeds through the plaintext message. The general name for this approach is __________.

a)

rail fence cipher

b)

cryptanalysis

c)

polyalphabetic substitution cipher

d)

polyanalysis cipher

23.

(0.200 Point) A technique referred to as a __________ is a mapping achieved by performing some sort of permutation on the plaintext letters.

a)

transposition cipher

b)

polyalphabetic cipher

c)

Caesar cipher

d)

monoalphabetic cipher

24.

(0.200 Point) The methods of __________ conceal the existence of the message in a graphic image.

a)

steganography

b)

decryptology

c)

cryptology

d)

cryptograph

25.

DES exhibits the classic ________ block cipher structure, which consists of a number of identical rounds of processing. (0.200 Point)

a)

Feistel

b)

SAC

c)

Shannon

d)

Rendell

26.

A sequence of plaintext elements is replaced by a ________ of that sequence which means that no elements are added, deleted or replaced in the sequence, but rather the order in which the elements appear in the sequence is changed. (0.200 Point)

a)

permutation

b)

diffusion

c)

stream

d)

substitution

27.

A ________ cipher is one that encrypts a digital data stream one bit or one byte at a time. (0.200 Point)

a)

product

b)

block

c)

key

d)

stream

28.

The vast majority of network-based symmetric cryptographic applications make use of ________ ciphers. (0.200 Point)

a)

linear

b)

block

c)

permutation

d)

stream

29.

A ________ cipher is one in which a block of plaintext is treated as a whole and used to produce a ciphertext block of equal length. (0.200 Point)

a)

bit

b)

product

c)

stream

d)

block

30.

__________ is when each plaintext element or group of elements is uniquely replaced by a corresponding ciphertext element or group of elements. (0.200 Point)

a)

Substitution

b)

Diffusion

c)

Streaming

d)

Permutation

31.

Key sizes of ________ or less are now considered to be inadequate. (0.200 Point)

a)

128 bits

b)

32 bits

c)

16 bits

d)

64 bits

32.

Feistel proposed that we can approximate the ideal block cipher by utilizing the concept of a ________ cipher, which is the execution of two or more simple ciphers in sequence in such a way that the final result or product is cryptographically stronger than any of the component ciphers. (0.200 Point)

a)

linear

b)

permutation

c)

differential

d)

product

33.

The criteria used in the design of the ________ focused on the design of the S-boxes and on the P function that takes the output of the S-boxes. (0.200 Point)

a)

Avalanche Attack

b)

Data Encryption Standard

c)

Product Cipher

d)

Substitution Key

34.

The greater the number of rounds, the ________ it is to perform cryptanalysis. (0.200 Point)

a)

easier

b)

less difficult

c)

equally difficult

d)

harder

35.

The function F provides the element of ________ in a Feistel cipher. (0.200 Point)

a)

clarification

b)

alignment

c)

confusion

d)

stability

36.

One of the most intense areas of research in the field of symmetric block ciphers is ________ design. (0.200 Point)

a)

S-box

b)

F-box

c)

E-box

d)

D-box

37.

Mister and Adams proposed that all linear combinations of S-box columns should be ________, which are a special class of Boolean functions that are highly nonlinear according to certain mathematical criteria. (0.200 Point)

a)

horizontal functions

b)

angular functions

c)

bent functions

d)

vertical functions

38.

The Nyberg approach that is more or less a manual approach with only simple mathematics to support it is ________. (0.200 Point)

a)

human-made

b)

random

c)

math-made

d)

random with testing

39.

Allowing for the maximum number of possible encryption mappings from the plaintext block is referred to by Feistel as the ________. (0.200 Point)

a)

ideal substitution cipher

b)

round function

c)

ideal block cipher

d)

diffusion cipher

40.

Authentication applied to the entire original IP packet is ________. (0.200 Point)

a)

security mode

b)

cipher mode

c)

tunnel mode

d)

transport mode

41.

Asymmetric encryption is also known as ________. (0.200 Point)

a)

public-key encryption

b)

private-key encryption

c)

optimal encryption

d)

digital-key encryption

42.

Public-key encryption is also known as ________. (0.200 Point)

a)

digital-key encryption

b)

asymmetric encryption

c)

one-way time exchange encryption

d)

optimal-key encryption

43.

Asymmetric encryption can be used for ________. (0.200 Point)

a)

both confidentiality and authentication

b)

neither confidentiality nor authentication

c)

confidentiality

d)

authentication

44.

The plaintext is recovered from the ciphertext using the paired key and a ________. (0.200 Point)

a)

digital signature

b)

recovery encryption

c)

decryption algorithm

d)

encryption algorithm

45.

The most widely used public-key cryptosystem is ________. (0.200 Point)

a)

optimal asymmetric encryption

b)

asymmetric encryption

c)

RSA

d)

DES

46.

Public-key algorithms are based on ________. (0.200 Point)

a)

permutation

b)

mathematical functions

c)

substitution

d)

symmetry

47.

__________ are two related keys, a public key and a private key that are used to perform complementary operations, such as encryption and decryption or signature generation and signature verification. (0.200 Point)

a)

Asymmetric keys

b)

Key exchanges

c)

Symmetric keys

d)

Cipher keys

48.

The ________ indicates that the subscriber identified in the certificate has sole control and access to the private key. (0.200 Point)

a)

OAEP

b)

Public Key Certificate

c)

Digital Signature

d)

PKI

49.

(0.200 Point) A __________ is a cryptographic algorithm that uses two related keys, a public key, and a private key. The two keys have the property that deriving the private key from the public key is computationally infeasible.

a)

Private Key (Symmetric) Cryptographic Algorithm

b)

Key Exchange Cryptographic Algorithm

c)

Public Key (Asymmetric) Cryptographic Algorithm

d)

RSA Digital Cryptographic Algorithm

50.

(0.200 Point) A public-key encryption scheme has __________ ingredients.

a)

six

b)

four

c)

eight

d)

two

51.

(0.200 Point) The key used in symmetric encryption is referred to as a __________ key.

a)

public

b)

secret

c)

private

d)

decryption

52.

(0.200 Point) The readable message or data that is fed into the algorithm as input is the __________.

a)

ciphertext

b)

exchange

c)

plaintext

d)

encryption

53.

(0.200 Point) Two issues to consider with the computation required to use RSA are encryption/decryption and __________.

a)

time complexity

b)

trap-door one-way functions

c)

key generation

d)

asymmetric encryption padding

54.

(0.200 Point) __________ depend on the running time of the decryption algorithm.

a)

Mathematical attacks

b)

Timing attacks

c)

Chosen ciphertext attacks

d)

Brute-force attacks

55.

(0.200 Point) We define the __________ of an algorithm to be f(n) if, for all n and all inputs of length n the execution of the algorithm takes at most f(n) steps. This is a common measure of the efficiency of an algorithm.

a)

time complexity

b)

one-way function

c)

timing attack

d)

OAEP

56.

(0.200 Point) Authentication applied to all of the packet except for the IP header is __________.

a)

tunnel mode

b)

transport mode

c)

association mode

d)

security mode

57.

(0.200 Point) __________ consists of an encapsulating header and trailer used to provide encryption or combined encryption/authentication. The current specification is RFC 4303.

a)

SPI

b)

ESP

c)

ISA

d)

IPsec

58.

(0.200 Point) The __________ payload allows peers to identify packet flows for processing by IPsec services.

a)

Configuration

b)

Vendor ID

c)

Traffic Selector

d)

Extensible Authentication Protocol

59.

(0.200 Point) Which technology is a primary method that IPsec uses to implement data integrity?

a)

MD5

b)

AES

c)

RSA

d)

DH

60.

(0.200 Point) What are the source and destination addresses used for an encrypted IPsec packet?

a)

Original sender and receiver IP addresses

b)

Original sender’s and outbound VPN gateway’s addresses

c)

Sending and receiving VPN gateways

d)

Sending VPN gateway and original destination address in the packet

61.

(0.200 Point) Which phase is used for private management traffic between the two VPN peers?

a)

IPsec

b)

IKE Phase 1

c)

IKE Phase 2

d)

IKE Phase 3

62.

(0.200 Point) Which of the following are negotiated during IKE Phase 1?

a)

Hashing

b)

DH group

c)

Encryption

d)

Authentication method

e)

All answer is correct

63.

(0.200 Point) What method is used to allow two VPN peers to establish shared secret keys and to establish those keys over an untrusted network?

a)

AES

b)

SHA

c)

RSA

d)

DH

64.

(0.200 Point) What are the two main methods for authenticating a peer as the last step of IKE Phase 1? (Choose all that apply.)

a)

RSA signatures, using digital certificates to exchange public keys

b)

PSK (pre-shared key)

c)

TCP three-way handshake

d)

DH Group 2

65.

(0.200 Point) A customer has asked for its wireless equipment to be managed as securely as possible. Which three management protocols will provide encrypted access to the equipment? (Choose three)

a)

Secure Shell

b)

HTTPS

c)

SNMPv3

d)

SNMPv2c

e)

HTTP

66.

(0.200 Point) A customer has completed the installation of an 802.11ac greenfield deployment at their corporate headquarters. They would like to leverage 802.11ac enhanced speeds on the trusted employee WLAN. In order to configure the employee WLAN, what Layer 2 security policies are valid?

a)

WPA2 (TKIP)

b)

WPA(AES)

c)

OPEN

d)

WEP

67.

(0.200 Point) An engineer wants to set up guest wireless that requires users to log in via a splash page prior to accessing the network. Which authentication method should be configured?

a)

LDAP

b)

RADIUS

c)

local authentication

d)

WebAuth

68.

(0.200 Point) An engineer would like to setup secure authentication for a wireless network that will utilize single sign-on. Which two authentication methods can be used to accomplish this? (Choose two.)

a)

LDAP

b)

RADIUS

c)

Local authentication

d)

WEP

e)

PSK

69.

(0.200 Point) While undergoing a security audit, a network administrator is told to set up the WLANs with at least 128-bit encryption but also keeping the 802.11n speeds. What WLAN configuration would meet the requirements?

a)
WPA2-AES
b)

WPA-TKIP

c)

Static WEP

d)

 CKIP

70.

(0.200 Point) What Cisco Catalyst switch feature can be used to define ports as trusted for DHCP server connections?

a)
DHCP snooping
b)

port security

c)

802.1x

d)

private VLANs

71.

(0.200 Point) Which statement about named ACLs (Access Control Lists) is true?

a)

They support standard and extended ACLs.

b)

They are used to filter usernames and passwords for Telnet and SSH.

c)

They are used to filter Layer 7 traffic.

d)

They support standard ACLs only.

e)

They are used to rate limit traffic destined to targeted networks.

72.

(0.200 Point) Which identification number is valid for an extended ACL?

a)

99

b)

100

c)

299

d)

64

73.

Refer to the exhibit output of the command on R1: "R1# show access-lists" "Extended IP access list 175" "10 deny tcp any any time-range nonworkhours (active)" "20 permit tcp any any time-range nonworkhours (inactive)" Which reason for a connectivity problem to a PC behind R1 is most likely true?

a)

The permit all ACL entry on R1 is inactive.

b)

The ACL of R1 is misconfigured.

c)

A deny all ACL entry is currently active on R1.

d)

An implicit deny is causing R1 to block network traffic.

74.

When troubleshooting an ACL issue on a router, which command helps you verify which interfaces are affected by the ACL?

a)

show ip access-lists

b)

show access-lists

c)

show interface

d)

show ip interface

75.

A network administrator is configuring ACLs on a Cisco router to allow traffic from hosts on networks 192.168.146.0, 192.168.147.0, 192.168.148.0, and 192.168.149.0 only. Which two ACL statements, when combined, are best for accomplishing this task? Choose two.

a)

access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.1.255

b)

access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.147.0 0.0.255.255

c)

access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.148.0 0.0.1.255

d)

access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.149.0 0.0.255.255

76.

In which solution is a router ACL used?

a)

filtering packets that are passing through a router

b)

to change the default administrative distance of a route in the route table

c)

protecting a server from unauthorized access

d)

controlling path selection, based on the route metric

77.

Which IPsec security protocol should be used when confidentiality is required?

a)

MD5

b)

PSK

c)

AH

d)

ESP

78.

A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch. Which two statements are true? Choose two.

a)

The network administrator can apply port security to dynamic access ports.

b)

The network administrator can apply port security to EtherChannels.

c)

When dynamic MAC address learning is enabled on an interface, the switch can learn new addresses, up to the maximum defined.

d)

The sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the running configuration.

79.

On which options are standard access lists based?

a)

destination address and wildcard mask

b)

destination address and subnet mask

c)

source address and subnet mask

d)

source address and wildcard mask

80.

Which component of VPN technology ensures that data is unaltered between the sender and recipient?

a)

encryption

b)

authentication

c)

key exchange

d)

data integrity

81.

How does using the service password-encryption command on a router provide additional security?

a)

by encrypting all passwords passing through the router

b)

by encrypting passwords in the plain text configuration file

c)

by requiring entry of encrypted passwords for access to the device

d)

by configuring an MD5 encrypted key to be used by routing protocols to validate routing exchanges

82.

When are packets processed by an inbound access list?

a)

before they are routed to an outbound interface

b)

after they are routed to an outbound interface

c)

before and after they are routed to an outbound interface

d)

after they are routed to an outbound interface but before being placed in the outbound queue

83.

The company internetwork is subnetted using 29 bits. Which wildcard mask should be used to configure an extended access list to permit or deny access to an entire subnetwork?

a)

255.255.255.224

b)

255.255.255.248

c)

0.0.0.224

d)

0.0.0.8

e)

0.0.0.7

84.

What are three valid reasons to assign ports to VLANs on a switch? Choose three.

a)

to isolate broadcast traffic

b)

to allow more devices to connect to the network

c)

to logically group hosts according to function

d)

to increase network security

85.

Which protocol should be used to establish a secure terminal connection to a remote network device?

a)

SSH

b)

Telnet

c)

WEP

d)

SNMPv1

e)

SNMPv2

86.

What three pieces of information can be used in an extended access list to filter traffic? Choose three.

a)

protocol

b)

TCP or UDP port numbers

c)

source IP address and destination IP address

d)

source MAC address and destination MAC address

e)

source switch port number

87.

Which command is necessary to permit SSH or Telnet access to a Cisco switch that is otherwise configured for these vty line protocols?

a)

transport output all

b)

transport preferred all

c)

transport type all

d)

transport input all

88.

What features can protect the data plane? Choose three.

a)

policing

b)

ACLs

c)

IPS

d)

DHCP-snooping

e)

QoS

89.

Which statement is true regarding a stateless packetfiltering firewall? Select the best answer.

a)

It can operate at Layer 4 of the OSI model.

b)

It is more secure than a stateful packetfiltering firewall.

c)

It tracks packets as a part of a stream.

d)

It is not susceptible to IP spoofing attacks.

90.

Which of the following statements is true of all firewalls? Select the best answer.

a)

They maintain a state table.

b)

They hide the source of network connections.

c)

They operate at Layer 7 of the OSI model.

d)

They are multihomed devices.

91.

Which feature can validate address requests and filter out invalid messages?

a)
DHCP snooping
b)

port security

c)

IP Source Guard

d)

dynamic ARP inspection

92.

A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch. Which two statements are true? (Choose two)

a)

The network administrator can apply port security to dynamic access ports.

b)

The network administrator can apply port security to EtherChannels.

c)

When dynamic MAC address learning is enabled on an interface, the switch can learn new addresses, up to the maximum defined.

d)

The sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the running configuration.

93.

What are three reasons that an organization with multiple branch offices and roaming users might implement a Cisco VPN solution instead of point-to-point WAN links? (Choose three.)

a)

reduced cost

b)

broadband incompatibility

c)

increased security

d)

scalability

e)

reduced latency

94.

Which feature can you use to monitor traffic on a switch by replicating it to another port or ports on the same switch?

a)

copy run start

b)

traceroute

c)

the ICMP Echo IP SLA

d)

SPAN

95.

Which keywords can be substituted for access list wildcards while configuring access lists? (Choose two.)

a)

all

b)

any

c)

host

d)

range

e)

subnet

96.

Which IEEE mechanism is responsible for the authentication of devices when they attempt to connect to a local network?

a)

802.1x

b)

802.11

c)

802.2x

d)

802.3x

97.

Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information ?

a)

in the MAC address table

b)

in the CAM table

c)

in the DHCP binding database

d)

in the VLAN database

98.

Which command can you enter in a network switch configuration so that learned mac addresses are saved in configuration as they connect?

a)

Switch(confg-if)#Switch port-security

b)

Switch(confg-if)#Switch port-security Mac-address sticky

c)

Switch(confg-if)#Switch port-security maximum 10

d)

Switch(confg-if)#Switch mode access

99.

Which two security appliances will you use in a network? (Choose two.)

a)

ATM

b)

IDS

c)

IOS

d)

IPS

e)

SDM

100.

Which one of the following follows best practices for a secure password?

a)

ABC123!

b)

SlE3peR1#

c)

tough-passfraze

d)

InterEstIng-PaSsWoRd