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Doctopia Dec 27th Quiz 8pm

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The "Pterion" is a fragile point on the skull where the frontal, parietal, temporal, and sphenoid bones meet. A fracture here is most likely to rupture the:

a)

Middle Meningeal Artery

b)

Anterior Cerebral Artery

c)

Facial Artery

d)

Superficial Temporal Artery

2.

The Great Saphenous Vein is consistently located:

a)

Posterior to the Lateral Malleolus

b)

Anterior to the Lateral Malleolus

c)

Posterior to the Medial Malleolus

d)

Anterior to the Medial Malleolus

3.

Skeletal muscle contraction is initiated when Calcium binds to:

a)

Tropomyosin

b)

Troponin C

c)

Troponin I

d)

Actin

4.

Which of the following is the most effective substance for measuring Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)?

a)

Creatinine

b)

Urea

c)

Inulin

d)

Glucose

5.

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) relies on a heat-stable DNA polymerase extracted from:

a)

Escherichia coli

b)

Thermus aquaticus

c)

Saccharomyces cerevisiae

d)

Human stem cells

6.

Wilson’s Disease is characterized by a low serum level of:

a)

Transferrin

b)

Ferritin

c)

Albumin

d)

Ceruloplasmin

7.

"Aschoff Bodies" are seen in:

a)

Tuberculosis

b)

Rheumatic Heart Disease

c)

Sarcoidosis

d)

Myocardial Infarction

8.

A "Starry Sky" appearance on lymph node biopsy is characteristic of:

a)

Burkitt Lymphoma

b)

Hodgkin Lymphoma

c)

Follicular Lymphoma

d)

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia

9.

India Ink preparation is used to visualize the capsule of:

a)

Candida albicans

b)

Cryptococcus neoformans

c)

Histoplasma capsulatum

d)

Aspergillus fumigatus

10.

Blue-green pus in burn wounds is caused by:

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Streptococcus pyogenes

c)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

d)

Proteus mirabilis

11.

Isoniazid therapy requires supplementation with:

a)

Vitamin B12

b)

Vitamin B6

c)

Vitamin B1

d)

Vitamin B9

12.

Thalidomide is currently used to treat:

a)

Morning sickness

b)

Erythema Nodosum Leprosum

c)

Hypertension

d)

Diabetes

13.

Cadaveric spasm is typically associated with:

a)

Carbon monoxide poisoning

b)

Extreme emotional or physical stress before death

c)

Opioid overdose

d)

Hypothermia

14.

Hesitation cuts are most commonly found in:

a)

Homicidal wounds

b)

Suicidal wounds

c)

Accidental wounds

d)

Defense wounds

15.

ASHA worker is posted at the level of:

a)

1 per 1,000 population

b)

1 per 5,000 population

c)

1 per 30,000 population

d)

1 per 100,000 population

16.

Sentinel surveillance is used to detect:

a)

Total number of cases

b)

Hidden iceberg portion

c)

Missing cases

d)

Outbreaks

17.

Frey’s syndrome is a complication of surgery on the:

a)

Thyroid gland

b)

Parotid gland

c)

Submandibular gland

d)

Tonsils

18.

Steeple sign on X-ray is seen in:

a)

Epiglottitis

b)

Croup

c)

Retropharyngeal abscess

d)

Foreign body

19.

Argyll Robertson pupil is seen in:

a)

Neurosyphilis

b)

Multiple sclerosis

c)

Diabetes

d)

Glaucoma

20.

Pizza-pie appearance of retina is seen in:

a)

CMV retinitis

b)

Toxoplasmosis

c)

Diabetic retinopathy

d)

Hypertensive retinopathy

21.

Opening snap with mid-diastolic murmur suggests:

a)

Mitral regurgitation

b)

Mitral stenosis

c)

Aortic stenosis

d)

Aortic regurgitation

22.

Tram-track lines on chest imaging indicate:

a)

Pneumonia

b)

Bronchiectasis

c)

Emphysema

d)

Pulmonary fibrosis

23.

Anti-dsDNA antibodies are specific for:

a)

Rheumatoid arthritis

b)

Systemic lupus erythematosus

c)

Scleroderma

d)

Sjogren syndrome

24.

Goodsall’s rule is used in:

a)

Inguinal hernia

b)

Fistula-in-ano

c)

Branchial fistula

d)

Thyroglossal fistula

25.

Midline neck swelling moving with tongue protrusion is:

a)

Branchial cyst

b)

Thyroglossal cyst

c)

Dermoid cyst

d)

Thyroid adenoma

26.

Most common cause of VVF in developing countries:

a)

Malignancy

b)

Obstructed labor

c)

Radiotherapy

d)

Hysterectomy

27.

First sign of magnesium sulfate toxicity is loss of:

a)

Respiratory rate

b)

Patellar reflex

c)

Urine output

d)

Consciousness

28.

Kawasaki disease increases risk of:

a)

Aortic stenosis

b)

Coronary artery aneurysm

c)

Pulmonary hypertension

d)

Mitral prolapse

29.

Sweat chloride test diagnoses:

a)

Cystic fibrosis

b)

G6PD deficiency

c)

Hypothyroidism

d)

Phenylketonuria

30.

Earliest sign of compartment syndrome:

a)

Pulselessness

b)

Pain out of proportion

c)

Pallor

d)

Paralysis

31.

Bamboo spine is seen in:

a)

Rheumatoid arthritis

b)

Ankylosing spondylitis

c)

Osteoarthritis

d)

Psoriatic arthritis

32.

Tzanck smear with multinucleated giant cells suggests:

a)

Impetigo

b)

Herpes simplex/zoster

c)

Pemphigus

d)

Molluscum contagiosum

33.

Exclamation mark hairs are seen in:

a)

Tinea capitis

b)

Alopecia areata

c)

Trichotillomania

d)

Androgenic alopecia

34.

La belle indifférence is seen in:

a)

Generalized anxiety disorder

b)

Conversion disorder

c)

Hypochondriasis

d)

Panic disorder

35.

Lithium use in pregnancy causes:

a)

Tetralogy of Fallot

b)

Ebstein’s anomaly

c)

Transposition of great arteries

d)

Coarctation of aorta

36.

Apple-core lesion on barium enema suggests:

a)

Crohn disease

b)

Colorectal carcinoma

c)

Ulcerative colitis

d)

Diverticulitis

37.

Honeycomb lung on HRCT indicates:

a)

Emphysema

b)

End-stage interstitial lung disease

c)

Bronchiectasis

d)

Tuberculosis

38.

Mallampati score assesses:

a)

Malignant hyperthermia risk

b)

Difficulty of intubation

c)

Depth of sedation

d)

Recovery from anesthesia

39.

Beck’s triad indicates:

a)

Tension pneumothorax

b)

Cardiac tamponade

c)

Hemothorax

d)

Myocardial contusion

40.

Which antihypertensive is contraindicated in bilateral renal artery stenosis?

a)

Calcium channel blockers

b)

ACE inhibitors / ARBs

c)

Beta blockers

d)

Diuretics

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