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Networking Fundamentals and Basic IP Addressing

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which two devices are intermediary devices? (Choose two)

a)

Routers

b)

Hosts

c)

Servers

d)

Switches

2.

During a routine inspection, a technician discovered that software that was installed on a computer was secretly collecting data about websites that were visited by users of the computer. Which type of threat is affecting this computer?

a)

spyware

b)

identity theft

c)

zero-day attack

d)

DoS attack

3.

Which type of network infrastructure connects devices in a limited geographic area, such as a school or office building?

a)

Extranet

b)

LAN

c)

VPN

d)

MAN

e)

WAN

4.

Which device performs the function of determining the path that messages should take through internetworks?

a)

a web server

b)

a router

c)

a DSL modem

d)

a firewall

5.

Which characteristic of a scalable network is MOST important for supporting growth?

a)

Requires constant manual reconfiguration

b)

Prevents use of IPv6

c)

Can expand without major redesign

d)

Has a fixed addressing scheme

e)

Uses only wireless media

6.

Which type of network covers a large geographical area, often a country or continent?

a)

LAN

b)

MAN

c)

PAN

d)

SAN

e)

WAN

7.

What is an ISP?

a)

It is a standards body that develops cabling and wiring standards for networking.

b)

It is an organization that enables individuals and businesses to connect to the Internet.

c)

It is a protocol that establishes how computers within a local network communicate.

d)

It is a networking device that combines the functionality of several different networking devices in one.

8.

What is the Internet?

a)

It provides network access for mobile devices.

b)

It is a private network for an organization with LAN and WAN connections.

c)

It provides connections through interconnected global networks.

d)

It is a network based on Ethernet technology.

9.

A large corporation has modified its network to allow users to access network resources from their personal laptops and smart phones. Which networking trend does this describe?

a)

online collaboration

b)

cloud computing

c)

video conferencing

d)

bring your own device

10.

An employee wants to access the network of the organization remotely, in the safest possible way. What network feature would allow an employee to gain secure remote access to a company network?

a)

SSH

b)

ACL

c)

IPS

d)

VPN

e)

BYOD

11.

What is the usable number of host IP addresses on a network that has a /29 mask?

a)

0

b)

3

c)

4

d)

1

12.

What is the broadcast address for network 172.16.16.0/21?

a)

172.16.20.25

b)

172.16.23.25

c)

172.16.19.25

d)

172.16.255.2

e)

172.16.16.25

13.

What is the usable number of host IP addresses on a network that has a /25 mask?

a)

64

b)

30

c)

62

d)

12

14.

What is the usable number of host IP addresses on a network that has a /23 mask?

a)

254

b)

512

c)

256

d)

510

15.

How many host addresses are available on the 192.168.10.128/27 network?

a)

30

b)

64

c)

62

d)

6

e)

12

16.

What is the last usable host address for 3.254.127.225/25? (Write your answer in decimal format, octets must be divided with dot)

a)

3.254.127.255

b)

3.254.127.254

c)

3.254.127.253

d)

3.254.127.252

17.

What is the last usable host address for 174.184.244.16/29? (Write your answer in decimal format, octets must be divided with dot)

a)

174.184.244.24

b)

174.184.244.21

c)

174.184.244.23

d)

174.184.244.22

18.

What is the last usable host address for 187.249.199.72/22? (Write your answer in decimal format, octets must be divided with dot)

a)

187.249.199.254

b)

187.249.199.255

c)

187.249.199.253

d)

187.249.199.252

19.

What is the first usable host address for 249.149.83.86/28? (Write your answer in decimal format, octets must be divided with dot)

a)

249.149.83.80

b)

249.149.83.81

c)

249.149.83.82

d)

249.149.83.83

20.

What is the last usable host address for 192.208.112.166/27? (Write your answer in decimal format, octets must be divided with dot)

a)

192.208.112.192

b)

192.208.112.189

c)

192.208.112.191

d)

192.208.112.190

21.

What is the network address for 3.254.127.225/25? (Write your answer in decimal format, octets must be divided with dot)

a)

3.254.127.64

b)

3.254.127.192

c)

3.254.127.0

d)

3.254.127.128

22.

How many subnets will be created if you borrow 6 bits from the host portion of an address?

a)

63

b)

62

c)

64

d)

32

23.

How many subnets will be created if you borrow 2 bits from the host portion of an address?

a)

6

b)

8

c)

2

d)

4

24.

What is the first usable host address for 174.184.244.16/29? (Write your answer in decimal format, octets must be divided with dot)

a)

174.184.244.17

b)

174.184.244.18

c)

174.184.244.16

d)

174.184.244.19

25.

What is the next network address for 143.175.54.248/30? (Write your answer in decimal format, octets must be divided with dot)

a)

143.175.54.252

b)

143.175.54.250

c)

143.175.54.251

d)

143.175.54.249

26.

What does the statically way of obtaining local IPv6 link addresses for a device mean?

a)

The device is configured by default.

b)

The device has been manually configured.

c)

Using the Extended Unique Identifier (EUI) method, which uses the client MAC address along with additional bits.

d)

The device creates its own interface ID by using randomly generated values.

27.

Which dynamic addressing method for GUAs is the one where devices get their IPv6 configuration in a RA message and request DNS information from a DHCPv6 server?

a)

Method 3: Stateful DHCPv6

b)

Method 1: SLAAC

c)

Method 4: DHCP

d)

Method 2: SLAAC and Stateless DHCPv6

28.

At a minimum, which address is required on IPv6-enabled interfaces?

a)

Site local

b)

Link-local

c)

Unique local

d)

Global unicast

29.

Which of the following techniques use native IPv6 connectivity?

a)

Tunneling

b)

All of the above

c)

Dual stack

d)

Translation

30.

What are the two methods a device can use to generate its own IPv6 interface ID?

a)

Randomly generated

b)

EUI-64

c)

Stateful DHCPv6

d)

SLAAC

e)

Stateless DHCPv6

31.

Given a /48 Global Routing Prefix and a /64 prefix, what is the subnet portion of the following address: 2001:db8:cafe:1111:2222:3333:4444:5555

a)

2222

b)

Café

c)

4444

d)

1111

e)

3333

32.

How to convert 0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0001 the IPv6 address into short form?

a)

0000::1

b)

Fe80::1

c)

::1

d)

Leave unchanged

33.

What parts does the Ethernet MAC address consist of? Choose two.

a)

RIR Prefix

b)

Organizationally Unique Identifier (OUI)

c)

Network prefix and prefix length

d)

Default gateway address

e)

Device Identifier

34.

Given a /32 Global Routing Prefix and a /64 prefix, how many bits would be allocated for the Subnet ID?

a)

64

b)

32

c)

8

d)

48

e)

16

35.

What is the minimum configuration for a router interface that is enabled for IPv6?

a)

To have both an IPv4 and an IPv6 address

b)

To have both a link-local and a global unicast IPv6 address

c)

To have a link-local IPv6 address

d)

To have a self-generated loopback address

36.

Which commands are encapsulated by the ICMP protocol (Choose two)?

a)

ipconfig

b)

traceroute

c)

telnet

d)

ping

e)

netstat

37.

Which utility uses the Internet Control Messaging Protocol (ICMP)?

a)

curl

b)

ping

c)

nslookup

d)

ftp

38.

A user pings 127.0.0.1 and gets four positive replies. What conclusion is most accurate?

a)

The PC can access the network; issue is outside LAN

b)

The PC can access Internet; browser may not work

c)

The TCP/IP stack on the PC is functional

d)

The IP from DHCP is correct and fully routable

39.

A technician suspects a faulty intermediate node dropping packets and only knows the destination IP. Which command helps identify the failing hop?

a)

Ping

b)

Ipconfig /flushdns

c)

Ipconfig /displaydns

d)

Tracert

40.

Which ICMPv6 field indicates a packet has expired?

a)

TTL field

b)

Time exceeded field

c)

CRC field

d)

Hop limit field

41.

Which protocol provides error feedback from destination to source hosts about packet delivery?

a)

ARP

b)

DNS

c)

ICMP

d)

BOOTP

42.

Which function distinguishes tracert from ping on a workstation?

a)

Sends one ICMP message per hop in the path

b)

Tests basic connectivity between two devices

c)

Reaches the destination significantly faster

d)

Shows information on routers along the path

43.

Which two results can ping determine? Choose two.

a)

Whether the destination host is reachable

b)

Average time each router in the path responds

c)

IP address of router closest to the destination

d)

Number of routers between source and destination

e)

Average round‑trip time to the destination

44.

Which protocol is used by both IPv4 and IPv6 for error messaging?

a)

ICMP

b)

NDP

c)

ARP

d)

DHCP

45.

When booting, which ICMPv6 message does a host send to acquire IPv6 configuration?

a)

Neighbor Advertisement (NA) message

b)

Neighbor Solicitation (NS) message

c)

Router Advertisement (RA) message

d)

Router Solicitation (RS) message

46.

Which is an example of a Layer 7 protocol?

a)

ARP

b)

HTTP

c)

IP

d)

Ethernet

e)

TCP

47.

What delivery type uses data link layer addresses?

a)

Remote delivery

b)

Remote delivery using routers

c)

Local delivery

d)

Local and remote delivery

48.

Which three acronyms represent standards organizations? Choose three.

a)

IEEE

b)

IANA

c)

IETF

d)

TCP/IP

e)

HTTP

49.

Which OSI layer is responsible for converting data into electrical, optical, or radio signals?

a)

Network

b)

Data Link

c)

Physical

d)

Presentation

e)

Transport

50.

Which protocol provides connection-oriented communication with guaranteed delivery?

a)

ARP

b)

UDP

c)

TCP

d)

IP

e)

ICMP

51.

Which message delivery option is used when all devices need to receive the same message simultaneously?

a)

duplex

b)

broadcast

c)

multicast

d)

anycast

52.

Which OSI layer provides reliable end-to-end delivery using acknowledgments and retransmissions?

a)

Data Link

b)

Transport

c)

Physical

d)

Session

e)

Presentation

53.

What type of communication will send a message to all devices on a local area network?

a)

broadcast

b)

anycast

c)

allcast

d)

unicast

e)

multicast

54.

What process is used to place one message inside another message for transfer from the source to the destination?

a)

encapsulation

b)

flow control

c)

access control

d)

decoding

55.

Which term describes the process of breaking down data into smaller pieces for transmission?

a)

Encapsulation

b)

Synchronization

c)

Multiplexing

d)

Segmentation

e)

Translation

56.

What is a characteristic of UTP cabling?

a)

woven copper braid or metallic foil

b)

cladding

c)

immunity to electrical hazards

d)

cancellation

57.

Which two components are typically found in a fiber-optic link? (Choose two.)

a)

Electrical amplifier

b)

RJ-45 connector

c)

Photo detector

d)

Light source

58.

Which message delivery option is used when a single sender targets many specific recipients without reaching every device?

a)

multicast

b)

unicast

c)

broadcast

d)

anycast

59.

What is the purpose of the OSI physical layer?

a)

exchanging frames between nodes over physical network media

b)

performing error detection on received frames

c)

controlling access to media

d)

transmitting bits across the local media

60.

Which OSI layer is responsible for encoding data into signals before transmission?

a)

Data Link

b)

Presentation

c)

Physical

d)

Transport

e)

Network

61.

Which type of fiber is used for long-distance, high-bandwidth communication with minimal modal dispersion?

a)

Step-index multimode

b)

Multimode

c)

Plastic optical fiber

d)

Gradient-index multimode

e)

Single-mode

62.

What is indicated by the term throughput?

a)

the capacity of a particular medium to carry data

b)

the measure of the bits transferred across the media over a given period of time

c)

the guaranteed data transfer rate offered by an ISP

d)

the time it takes for a message to get from sender to receiver

e)

the measure of the usable data transferred across the media

63.

Which term describes the weakening of a signal as it travels through a medium?

a)

Attenuation

b)

Reflection

c)

Jitter

d)

Dispersion

e)

Interference

64.

Which three characteristics are defined by the Physical layer? (Choose three.)

a)

Voltage levels

b)

Timing of signals

c)

IP addressing

d)

Error recovery

e)

Cable types

65.

Which statement describes a characteristic of the frame header fields of the data link layer?

a)

They all include the flow control and logical connection fields.

b)

They vary depending on protocols.

c)

Ethernet frame header fields contain Layer 3 source and destination addresses.

d)

They include information on user applications.

66.

Convert 01101110.01100101.11011111.11111011 binary IPv4 address to decimal format

a)

110.100.223.251

b)

109.101.223.251

c)

110.101.222.251

d)

110.101.223.251

67.

Convert 01100000.00101111.00100111.00110001 binary IPv4 address to decimal format

a)

96.47.39.49

b)

96.47.38.49

c)

95.47.39.49

d)

96.46.39.49

68.

Convert 138.178.25.112 IPv4 Address to binary format

a)

10001010.10110010.00011001.01110000

b)

10001010.10110010.00011000.01110000

c)

10001010.10101110.00011001.01110000

d)

10001001.10110010.00011001.01110000

69.

Convert 00001111.10001101.00101110.10100110 binary IPv4 address to decimal format

a)

15.141.45.166

b)

14.141.46.166

c)

15.140.46.166

d)

15.141.46.166

70.

Convert 11111111.01111100.00001000.11111001 binary IPv4 address to decimal format

a)

255.124.9.249

b)

255.124.8.249

c)

254.124.8.249

d)

255.123.8.249

71.

Convert 109 decimal to hexadecimal equivalent

a)

6C

b)

6D

c)

6E

d)

5D

72.

Convert 210 decimal to hexadecimal equivalent

a)

E2

b)

D1

c)

C2

d)

D2

73.

Convert 165 decimal to hexadecimal equivalent

a)

B5

b)

A4

c)

A6

d)

A5

74.

Convert 2A hexadecimal to decimal equivalent

a)

44

b)

38

c)

40

d)

42

75.

Convert 127 decimal to hexadecimal equivalent

a)

7F

b)

7E

c)

80

d)

6F

76.

Convert BB hexadecimal to decimal equivalent

a)

186

b)

187

c)

191

d)

178

77.

Convert 9E hexadecimal to decimal equivalent

a)

148

b)

156

c)

160

d)

158

78.

Convert E4 hexadecimal to decimal equivalent

a)

228

b)

220

c)

232

d)

226

79.

Convert FA hexadecimal to decimal equivalent

a)

248

b)

254

c)

250

d)

240

80.

Convert 167 decimal to hexadecimal equivalent

a)

A6

b)

97

c)

B7

d)

A7

81.

Choose the binary equivalent for the address 172.16.18.183:

a)

10101100.00010000.00010010.10110111

b)

10101000.00010000.00010010.10110111

c)

10101100.00001000.00010000.10110111

d)

10101100.00100000.00010010.10110111

82.

Which is the hexadecimal equivalent of 254?

a)

FE

b)

EA

c)

ED

d)

FA

83.

What is the decimal equivalent of 0xC9?

a)

201

b)

200

c)

199

d)

209

84.

Given the binary address of 11000000.10101000.01000001.00100110, which address does this represent in dotted decimal format?

a)

192.168.65.38

b)

192.168.64.38

c)

194.168.67.36

d)

192.165.67.38

85.

Choose the binary equivalent for the address 209.165.200.229:

a)

11000001.10100101.11001000.11100101

b)

11010000.10100101.11001000.11100101

c)

11010001.10100101.11001000.11100101

d)

11010001.10100100.11001000.11100101