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Genetic Disease in Vietnamese Society

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A rare premature aging condition appears in some families in Vietnam. Which statement best describes how genetic diseases can impact a community?

a)

They spread like infections through casual contact

b)

They cause temporary illness that always fully recovers

c)

They can influence families, healthcare, and social support

d)

They affect only one person without family concerns

2.

A student reads about a premature aging disease in Vietnam. Which action would most help local families manage this genetic condition?

a)

Avoid visiting hospitals during the rainy season

b)

Limit outdoor activities for all teenagers

c)

Encourage sharing clothes to build community

d)

Increase access to genetic counseling services

3.

A news report describes a child with rapid aging symptoms in Vietnam. Using reasoning, which explanation best fits why early diagnosis matters for genetic diseases?

a)

It makes the condition less noticeable to classmates

b)

It helps plan care, monitor complications, and support families

c)

It guarantees the disease will be cured quickly

d)

It prevents the gene from ever being inherited again

4.

Which gene is commonly associated with Hutchinson–Gilford Progeria Syndrome (HGPS)?

a)

BRCA1 gene variants cause HGPS

b)

LMNA gene variants cause HGPS

c)

MYH7 gene variants cause HGPS

d)

TP53 gene mutations cause HGPS

5.

What does a pathogenic variant mean in genetics?

a)

A disease-causing DNA change

b)

A temporary environmental effect

c)

A change that improves health

d)

A harmless change with no effect

6.

Match the chest shape term to its description.

a)

Dolichocephaly: long narrow head

b)

Pectus carinatum: chest protruding outward

c)

Pectus excavatum: chest sunken inward

d)

All three: normal chest shape

7.

A new LMNA variant is found in a patient with a protruding chest and long narrow head. Which phenotype names best fit these features?

a)

Pectus excavatum and brachycephaly

b)

Pectus carinatum and dolichocephaly

c)

Scoliosis and hydrocephalus

d)

Kyphosis and microcephaly

8.

Classic HGPS and nonclassic HGPS are both linked to LMNA variants. What mainly differs between them?

a)

They are unrelated to DNA changes

b)

They involve different body organs only

c)

They have distinct sets of phenotypic features

d)

They occur in different species

9.

In HGVS nomenclature, which prefix indicates a change described at the coding DNA level (using exon positions)?

a)

p.

b)

g.

c)

c.

d)

r.

10.

A variant is noted as c.76A>G. What does this tell you about the change?

a)

RNA base at position 76 switched from A to G

b)

Genomic position 76 changed from A to G

c)

Amino acid number 76 changed from A to G

d)

An adenine became guanine at coding DNA position 76

11.

Which part of a gene includes exons but excludes introns?

a)

Coding sequence forming mRNA

b)

Noncoding intronic sequence

c)

Upstream promoter region

d)

3' and 5' UTR only

12.

A variant is written as p.Gly12Val. Which statement best interprets it?

a)

Glycine in exon 12 changed to valine base

b)

Glycine at RNA position 12 changed to valine

c)

Guanine at DNA position 12 changed to valine

d)

Glycine at protein position 12 changed to valine

13.

Which term describes when a genetic trait is present in a person’s DNA but does not always appear in their physical traits?

a)

Incomplete penetrance

b)

Complete penetrance

c)

Variable expressivity

d)

Locus heterogeneity

14.

What does variability of expression mean for a genetic disorder?

a)

Symptoms skip every other generation

b)

Different people show different severity of symptoms

c)

The disease appears the same in everyone

d)

Only one gene can cause the disease

15.

Pleiotropy best describes which situation?

a)

Traits are only caused by environment

b)

One gene has no effect on traits

c)

Multiple genes affect one trait

d)

One gene affects multiple traits

16.

Which term refers to different mutations within the same gene causing a similar disease?

a)

Complete penetrance

b)

Locus heterogeneity

c)

Allelic heterogeneity

d)

Variable expressivity

17.

Locus heterogeneity means that:

a)

The environment alone causes the disease

b)

Different genes can cause the same disease

c)

One gene causes many different diseases

d)

All patients have identical DNA changes

18.

Which statement best describes a mechanism of disease?

a)

The number of genes in the genome

b)

A list of patient symptoms

c)

The way doctors name diseases

d)

The biological process that causes the disorder

19.

Look at the images labeled arachnodactyly, thumb’s sign, and wrist’s sign. What shared idea do these visual signs illustrate about genetic disorders?

a)

They prove complete penetrance in all patients

b)

They show pleiotropy across unrelated organs

c)

They are examples of variable expressivity in physical traits

d)

They rule out heterogeneity between different genes

20.

Which statement best describes autosomal dominant inheritance for conditions like Marfan syndrome and achondroplasia?

a)

One mutated gene can cause the trait

b)

Two mutated genes are always required

c)

Traits skip every other generation

d)

Only sons inherit the condition from fathers

21.

Which gene is most commonly mutated in Marfan Syndrome?

a)

BRCA1 gene mutation

b)

COL1A1 gene mutation

c)

MYH7 gene mutation

d)

FBN1 gene mutation

22.

Marfan Syndrome follows which inheritance pattern in families?

a)

Autosomal recessive inheritance

b)

X-linked dominant inheritance

c)

Autosomal dominant inheritance

d)

Mitochondrial inheritance

23.

Which body system is primarily affected by Marfan Syndrome?

a)

Endocrine glands

b)

Blood-forming tissues

c)

Digestive system tissues

d)

Connective tissue system

24.

A parent with Marfan Syndrome has a child. What is the chance the child inherits the condition?

a)

About 25 percent chance

b)

Always 100 percent chance

c)

About 75 percent chance

d)

About 50 percent chance

25.

Look at the images showing an apical lung bleb, severe myopia with ectopia lentis, and lumbosacral dural ectasia. Which set best represents key clinical features students should remember for Marfan Syndrome?

a)

Joint fractures, bone tumors, muscle tears

b)

Frequent infections, swollen glands, fever spikes

c)

Apical lung blebs, eye lens displacement, dural ectasia

d)

Skin rashes, hair loss, brittle nails

26.

Which term describes an unusually long, narrow head shape often seen in Marfan Syndrome?

a)

Pectus carinatum

b)

Arachnodactyly

c)

Kyphoscoliosis

d)

Dolichocephaly

27.

A chest that curves inward like a shallow bowl is called what?

a)

Pectus carinatum

b)

Thumb's sign

c)

High-arch palate

d)

Pectus excavatum

28.

Which feature means the chest sticks outward like a keel?

a)

Kyphoscoliosis

b)

Pectus carinatum

c)

Wrist's sign

d)

Pectus excavatum

29.

What does high-arch palate refer to?

a)

Roof of mouth is unusually high

b)

Elbow cannot fully extend

c)

Spine curves sideways and forward

d)

Fingers are exceptionally long

30.

Kyphoscoliosis combines which two spine curves?

a)

Flat back and inward chest

b)

Forward hunch and sideways curve

c)

Sideways curve and flat back

d)

Forward hunch and straight spine

31.

Arachnodactyly is best described as:

a)

Long, slender fingers

b)

Outward-curved chest

c)

Inward-curved chest

d)

High roof of mouth

32.

In the thumb’s sign, the thumb does what when the hand is closed?

a)

Bends backward at the knuckle

b)

Stays hidden under the fingers

c)

Touches the wrist bone

d)

Protrudes beyond the palm edge

33.

Which hand test shows overlapping fingers around the wrist due to slender hands?

a)

Chest keel test

b)

Wrist’s sign

c)

Thumb’s sign

d)

High-arch test

34.

Which skin change is commonly seen in Marfan Syndrome and appears as thin, stretch-like lines on the skin?

a)

Reduced elbow extension

b)

Striae atrophicae

c)

Inguinal hernia

d)

Incisional hernia

35.

A student notices a person cannot fully straighten their elbow. Which Marfan-related manifestation best explains this observation?

a)

Inguinal hernia

b)

Incisional hernia

c)

Reduced elbow extension

d)

Striae atrophicae

36.

If someone with Marfan Syndrome has a bulge in the groin after heavy lifting and later develops a bulge at a surgical scar, which two manifestations are most likely involved?

a)

Striae atrophicae and reduced elbow extension

b)

Reduced elbow extension and inguinal hernia

c)

Inguinal hernia and incisional hernia

d)

Striae atrophicae and inguinal hernia

37.

Which heart problem is commonly linked to Marfan Syndrome and involves the main artery leaving the heart becoming enlarged?

a)

Mitral valve prolapse enlargement of leaflets

b)

Aortic root dilatation widening near the heart

c)

Aortic regurgitation backward blood flow

d)

Apical lung bleb small air pocket in lung

38.

A student with Marfan Syndrome suddenly develops chest pain and trouble breathing. Which lung issue could most likely explain this?

a)

Severe myopia blurry distant vision

b)

Apical lung bleb air pocket at lung top

c)

Ectopia lentis lens moved from center

d)

Lumbosacral dural ectasia widened spinal covering

39.

Which eye finding best matches Marfan Syndrome and can cause very poor distance vision?

a)

Severe myopia needing strong minus lenses

b)

Aortic regurgitation valve leak causing murmur

c)

Mitral valve prolapse click sound with beat

d)

Dural ectasia ballooning of spinal dura

40.

A doctor suspects Marfan Syndrome in a teen with back pain and nerve symptoms. Which spinal feature supports this suspicion?

a)

Apical lung bleb small upper lung blister

b)

Ectopia lentis displaced eye lens

c)

Lumbosacral dural ectasia expanded spinal dura

d)

Aortic root dilatation near the heart

41.

Which heart problem in Marfan Syndrome involves the main body artery becoming wider than normal?

a)

Spontaneous pneumothorax

b)

Mitral valve prolapse

c)

Aortic dissection

d)

Aortic dilatation

42.

What is a dangerous tear in the wall of the aorta called?

a)

Dural ectasia

b)

Valve stenosis

c)

Aortic dissection

d)

Aortic dilatation

43.

Which valve issue in Marfan Syndrome happens when a valve flap bulges backward?

a)

Aortic dissection

b)

Hindfoot deformity

c)

Mitral valve prolapse

d)

Pulmonary stenosis

44.

A student can test the wrist-and-thumb sign. Which outcome suggests Marfan features?

a)

Wrist feels wider than palm

b)

Thumb cannot reach the palm

c)

Thumb stops at the palm edge

d)

Thumb overlaps beyond the palm

45.

Which chest shape is part of the systemic score for Marfan Syndrome?

a)

Barrel chest

b)

Flat chest

c)

Pectus carinatum

d)

Funnel chest

46.

Which finding is a foot-related sign counted in the systemic score?

a)

Hindfoot deformity

b)

Extra toe present

c)

Clubbed toes

d)

High arch only

47.

Which problem is a sudden air leak causing a collapsed lung and can occur in Marfan Syndrome?

a)

Mitral valve prolapse

b)

Dural ectasia

c)

Aortic dilatation

d)

Spontaneous pneumothorax

48.

Doctors add points for different body signs to make a systemic score. What is the main purpose of this score?

a)

Choose heart surgery dates

b)

Measure exercise stamina

c)

Help diagnose Marfan Syndrome

d)

Predict eye color in patients

49.

A teen with tall build has wrist-and-thumb sign and pectus carinatum. Which action helps decide if they have Marfan Syndrome?

a)

Calculate the systemic score

b)

Ignore the body signs

c)

Only test for allergies

d)

Treat with antibiotics

50.

What is the main purpose of a Marfan Syndrome Z-score calculator shown in the screenshot?

a)

Predicting future height growth in teenagers

b)

Assessing aortic root dilatation using measurements

c)

Estimating general heart rate during exercise

d)

Calculating daily medication doses for patients

51.

A student measures an aortic root size and enters age and body size into the calculator. Which step best explains how the Z-score helps with diagnosis?

a)

It converts the size into a blood pressure reading

b)

It directly diagnoses Marfan without other tests

c)

It hides measurement errors by rounding numbers

d)

It compares the value to average healthy ranges

52.

Which term describes when a genetic trait appears in some individuals who carry the mutation but not in others?

a)

Stable phenotype without variation

b)

Complete penetrance in all carriers

c)

Variable penetrance among carriers

d)

Uniform expression across tissues

53.

What does variability of expression in Marfan syndrome mean?

a)

Only the heart is affected

b)

Symptoms range from mild to severe

c)

The mutation changes every generation

d)

All patients look exactly the same

54.

Which concept explains why a single Marfan syndrome mutation can affect eyes, heart, and skeleton?

a)

Expression limited to one organ

b)

Heterogeneity within one locus

c)

Pleiotropy with multiple systems

d)

Penetrance across all carriers

55.

Allelic heterogeneity in Marfan syndrome refers to what?

a)

Different mutations within FBN1

b)

Different genes cause the same disease

c)

Same mutation in all patients

d)

One mutation causes many traits

56.

Locus heterogeneity in Marfan-like conditions means what?

a)

Features occur without any gene changes

b)

One gene creates several proteins

c)

Multiple genes can cause similar features

d)

Only FBN1 is ever involved

57.

Which mechanism best summarizes how Marfan syndrome develops at the molecular level?

a)

Loss of melanin production in skin

b)

Gain of hemoglobin function

c)

Defective fibrillin-1 affects connective tissue

d)

Overactive insulin signaling in muscles

58.

Which gene change most commonly causes achondroplasia?

a)

Extra copy of chromosome 21

b)

Deletion of hemoglobin gene

c)

Variant in FGFR3 gene

d)

Mutation in collagen type I

59.

How is achondroplasia usually inherited within families?

a)

X-linked recessive pattern

b)

Autosomal dominant pattern

c)

Mitochondrial inheritance

d)

Autosomal recessive pattern

60.

Which physical feature is most typical of achondroplasia?

a)

Thin bones with frequent fractures

b)

Delayed puberty and growth

c)

Disproportionate short stature

d)

Tall height with long limbs

61.

A parent has achondroplasia. What is the chance each child will inherit it?

a)

About one in ten

b)

About one in two

c)

About nine in ten

d)

Zero percent always

62.

Which complication can be associated with achondroplasia as children grow?

a)

Severe hearing loss always

b)

Spinal stenosis and breathing issues

c)

High blood sugar and diabetes

d)

Immune system deficiency

63.

Which feature best describes the pattern of limb shortening commonly seen in achondroplasia?

a)

Distal segments shorter than middle segments

b)

Proximal segments shorter than distal segments

c)

All limb segments equally short

d)

Proximal segments disproportionately shorter than middle and distal

64.

What hand appearance is often associated with achondroplasia?

a)

Extra thumb called polydactyly

b)

Three-way finger spacing called a trident hand

c)

Curved fingers called ulnar clawing

d)

Fused fingers forming a mitten shape

65.

Which facial feature combination is typical in achondroplasia?

a)

Midface hypoplasia with depressed nasal bridge

b)

Flat forehead with long nasal bridge

c)

Wide midface with elevated nasal bridge

d)

Prominent chin with wide nasal bridge

66.

A student compares two skeleton drawings. In achondroplasia, which body proportion is most accurate?

a)

Short trunk with normal limb length

b)

Normal trunk with disproportionate short limbs

c)

Normal trunk and limbs, reduced skull size

d)

Long trunk with long limbs and small hands

67.

During a simple movement test, which joint limitation might be observed in someone with achondroplasia?

a)

Knee hyperextension

b)

Wrist flexion limitation

c)

Hip flexion limitation

d)

Elbow extension limitation

68.

Which lower limb feature can be present in achondroplasia?

a)

Tibial bowing

b)

Fibular bowing

c)

Femoral bowing only

d)

No bowing anywhere

69.

Look at the X-ray diagrams showing Achondroplasia. Which feature best explains why people with Achondroplasia often have spinal stenosis?

a)

Extra ribs increasing chest width

b)

Long vertebral bodies widening the canal

c)

Thick intervertebral discs adding space

d)

Narrow spinal canal due to short pedicles

70.

In pelvic X-rays of Achondroplasia, which pelvic shape is most characteristic?

a)

Square pelvis with wide sciatic notches

b)

Trident-shaped pelvis with flared iliac wings

c)

Round pelvis with enlarged acetabula

d)

Triangular pelvis with narrow inlet

71.

Which complication involves narrowing of the cervical spine and can press on the spinal cord?

a)

Anesthetic risks during surgical procedures

b)

C-spine stenosis causing cord compression

c)

Respiratory insufficiency from small chest

d)

Hydrocephalus causing brain fluid buildup

72.

What is hydrocephalus best described as in people with achondroplasia?

a)

Narrowing of the spinal canal

b)

Weak bones in the arms and legs

c)

Excess fluid in the brain ventricles

d)

Poor oxygen exchange in the lungs

73.

A patient with achondroplasia needs surgery. Which risk should the medical team plan for first?

a)

No need for neck positioning checks

b)

Reduced bleeding due to strong clotting

c)

Greater chance of rapid bone growth

d)

Higher anesthetic risks requiring careful airway

74.

Spinal stenosis in achondroplasia most likely leads to which symptom pattern?

a)

Stronger breathing during exercise

b)

Headaches relieved by hydration

c)

Leg numbness and walking difficulty

d)

Improved balance and faster reflexes

75.

Respiratory insufficiency in achondroplasia usually happens because of which factor?

a)

Overactive immune cells in airways

b)

Small chest size limiting lung expansion

c)

Too much blood clotting in vessels

d)

Extra cerebrospinal fluid in brain

76.

Which term describes when a genetic trait like achondroplasia appears in all individuals who carry the mutation?

a)

Variable expressivity across carriers

b)

Complete penetrance in carriers

c)

Incomplete penetrance in carriers

d)

Genetic heterogeneity among carriers

77.

Achondroplasia shows variability of expression. What does this mean for affected individuals?

a)

Symptoms appear only in adults

b)

Mutation never causes symptoms

c)

Features vary in severity

d)

All have identical features

78.

Pleiotropy in achondroplasia best describes which situation?

a)

One gene copies itself twice

b)

Many genes affect one trait

c)

A trait is only environmental

d)

One gene affects many traits

79.

Allelic heterogeneity in achondroplasia involves what pattern at the same gene?

a)

Different traits, same mutation

b)

No mutations, same trait

c)

Same mutation, different genes

d)

Different mutations, same gene

80.

Locus heterogeneity related to skeletal disorders means what?

a)

The locus changes during aging

b)

Different loci cause similar traits

c)

One locus causes many traits

d)

A single trait has no genetic cause

81.

Which mechanism most directly explains achondroplasia at the molecular level?

a)

FGFR3 gain-of-function mutation

b)

Chromosome number change

c)

Mitochondrial DNA deletion

d)

F8C clotting factor deficiency

82.

Which statement best describes autosomal recessive inheritance?

a)

A trait appears when one mutated allele is present

b)

A trait appears only when two mutated alleles are present

c)

A trait is passed only from fathers to sons

d)

A trait affects males but never females

83.

Which disease is an example of an autosomal recessive disorder?

a)

Huntington disease with dominant inheritance

b)

Thalassemias involving hemoglobin gene mutations

c)

Color blindness linked to the X-chromosome

d)

Hemophilia A affecting X-chromosome gene F8

84.

What do thalassemias and hemoglobinopathies mainly affect in the blood?

a)

White blood cell infection defense

b)

Platelet clot formation ability

c)

Globin chain production in red cells

d)

Blood sugar transport molecules

85.

Which best describes the genetic basis of thalassemias and hemoglobinopathies?

a)

Mutations in globin genes

b)

Radiation damage to body tissues

c)

Extra copies of chromosome 21

d)

Bacterial DNA inserted into cells

86.

What is a common consequence of globin gene mutations in these disorders?

a)

Hemolysis causing red cell breakdown

b)

Stronger heart muscle contractions

c)

Higher oxygen levels in tissues

d)

Increased bone growth in limbs

87.

How are thalassemias and many hemoglobinopathies usually inherited?

a)

Autosomal dominant inheritance

b)

Autosomal recessive inheritance

c)

X-linked dominant inheritance

d)

Mitochondrial maternal inheritance

88.

A population has a high carrier frequency for a hemoglobinopathy. Which situation is most likely?

a)

Instant cure for affected individuals

b)

Fewer genes related to blood formation

c)

More children born with the disorder

d)

No effect on future inheritance patterns

89.

Which statement best defines thalassemia in relation to hemoglobin?

a)

A dietary condition increasing iron absorption

b)

A qualitative variant changing hemoglobin structure

c)

A quantitative variant reducing hemoglobin production

d)

A contagious illness affecting red blood cells

90.

Hemoglobinopathy is most accurately described as which type of change to hemoglobin?

a)

A qualitative variant altering protein structure

b)

A quantitative variant lowering gene expression

c)

A temporary change from exercise levels

d)

A variant increasing the number of red cells