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WorksheetsRefresher Quiz 2
Total questions: 145
Worksheet time: 2hrs 36mins
What is the definition of Cardiac Catheterization?
The surgical repair of heart valves
The insertion and passage of small plastic tubes (catheters) into arteries and veins to the heart to obtain x-ray images and measure pressures
The use of ultrasound to visualize heart structures
A procedure to remove fluid from the pericardial sac
After donning sterile attire, what is the standard buffer that should be maintained between the sterile area and non-sterile objects/field?
Greater than 1 inch
Less than 1 foot
No less than 1 foot
Greater than 2 inches
True or False: In a surgical hand scrub, each arm can be washed and rinsed simultaneously.
True
False
How long should a proper surgical hand scrub last?
2-5 minutes
3-5 minutes
4-7 minutes
5 minutes exactly
What does REM stand for and what is the maximum dose one can receive in a year?
Roentgen Equivalents Man; 2.5 REM per year
Radiation Exposure Measure; 5 REM per year
Roentgen Equivalents Man; 5 REM per year
Radiation Equivalent Man; 10 REM per year
Which precautions are a standard set of guidelines to prevent the transmission of bloodborne pathogens from exposure to blood and other potentially infectious materials?
Contact Precautions
Universal Precautions
Airborne Precautions
Droplet Precautions
Standard precautions apply to which of the following? (Select all that apply)
1. All patients, irrespective of disease state
2. Sweat
3. Non-intact skin
4. Mucous membranes
5. All body fluids, secretions, and excretions (except sweat)
Why do CVTs wear lead aprons?
To protect from primary radiation
To protect from secondary (scatter) radiation
To protect from thermal injury
To maintain sterility
Where should radiation badges be worn when wearing protective aprons and why?
Inside the apron at waist level
Outside the apron at the thyroid collar on the side closest to the image intensifier
Inside the apron at chest level
On the back of the apron
True or False: Secondary radiation is an unattenuated beam from the X-ray tube.
True
False
Explain the Inverse Square Law.
The intensity is directly proportional to the distance
The intensity is inversely proportional to the square of the distance; if moved twice as far away, the object receives one-quarter of the radiation
If moved twice as far away, the object receives half the radiation
Distance has no effect on radiation intensity
Which precautions are used for patients with known/suspected infection spread by direct and indirect patient contact?
Airborne
Droplet
Contact
Standard
Which precautions are used for pathogens spread by respiratory secretions suspended in the air for limited time periods?
Airborne
Droplet
Contact
Universal
Which precautions are used for pathogens spread by dust particles containing the infectious agent?
Airborne
Droplet
Contact
Standard
Identify the correct sequence of steps for gaining radial arterial access.
1. Insert sheath/dilator over wire
2. Insert the access needle with the beveled end facing up until a bleed back is observed
3. Numb the targeted access site subcutaneously
4. Insert access (J-wire) into the hub of the needle, thread up the artery, and remove the needle
5. Remove dilator & access wire, flush sheath
3,2,4,1,5
1,2,3,4,5
2,3,5,1,4
3,2,1,4,5
When obtaining femoral access, at what angle should the access needle be inserted?
50-65 degrees
30-45 degrees
45-65 degrees
20-30 degrees
One French (1 Fr) size is equal to how many millimeters?
1 mm
0.5 mm
0.33 mm
3 mm
When pulling an arterial sheath, how long should pressure be held per French size?
1-2 minutes
2-3 minutes
3-5 minutes
5-10 minutes
Where should one hold pressure when pulling an arterial sheath versus a venous sheath?
Arterial: Below access site; Venous: Above access site
Arterial: Above access site; Venous: Below access site
Both: Directly on the site
Arterial: Above access site; Venous: Above access site
Which of the following can be evaluated during a left heart cath? (Select all that apply)
1. Aortic Pressure
2. Right Ventricle Pressure
3. Left Ventricle
4. Left Coronary Artery
5. Right Coronary Artery
Where is the femoral vein located in relationship to the femoral artery?
Lateral
Medial
Anterior
Posterior
What is the standard left coronary catheter for performing femoral approach angiography?
JL4
3DRC
JR 4
Pigtail
Which artery is located on top of the foot and used for distal pulse assessment prior to cardiac catheterization?
Posterior Tibial
Popliteal
Dorsalis Pedis
Radial
What is the greatest radiation hazard to cath lab personnel and what is the biggest source of this?
Primary beam; X-ray tube
Scatter radiation; Patient
Leakage; Image intensifier
Secondary radiation; Lead apron
Which distal pulse(s) are routinely assessed before a percutaneous femoral approach? (Select all that apply)
1. Radial
2. Popliteal
3. Dorsalis pedis
4. Ulnar
5. Posterior tibial
In a Reverse Barbeau's test, where is the pulse oximetry placed and why?
On the index finger to test radial patency
On the thumb to assess patency of the radiopalmar arch
On the pinky to test ulnar patency
On the toe to test pedal flow
What is the optimal catheter for left ventricular angiography?
3DRC
Pigtail
JR4
AL2
What are the standard femoral approach catheters for a left heart cath? (Select all that apply)
1. JL4
2. Pigtail
3. JR4
4. Multipurpose
What does ACLS stand for?
Advanced Cardiac Life Support
Advanced Cardiovascular Life Support
American Cardiovascular Life Support
Acute Coronary Life Support
The main organs involved in excretion are?
Liver and Lungs
Kidneys and Liver
Skin and Kidneys
Intestines and Spleen
What does ANS stand for?
Anterior Nervous System
Autonomic Nervous System
Automatic Neural System
Advanced Neural Support
What labs are used to assess kidney function?
PTT, ABG, Cr
Hgb, Cr, GFR
Hct, CrCl, Cr
GFR, Cr, CrCl
What relates to the relationship between preload and contractility and directly connects to cardiac output?
End Diastolic Volume
Pulmonary Capillary Wedge Pressure
Frank Starling's Law
Cardiac Index
Label the stages of pharmacokinetics in the correct numerical order.
Absorption, Metabolism, Distribution, Elimination
Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Elimination/Excretion
Distribution, Absorption, Metabolism, Elimination
Metabolism, Absorption, Elimination, Distribution
Match the medication class to its mechanism of action or focus.
1. Class I
2. Class II
3. Class III
4. Class IV
A) Potassium Blockers
B) Calcium Channel Blockers
C) Sodium Channel Blockers
D) Beta Blockers
1= C (Sodium) 2 = D (Beta Blockers) 3 = A (Potassium) 4 = B (Calcium)
1 = D (Beta Blockers) 2 = A (Potassium) 3 = C (Sodium) 4 = B (Calcium)
1 = C (Sodium) 2 = D (Beta Blockers) 3 = B (Calcium) 4 = A (Potassium)
1 = A (Potassium) 2 = B (Calcium) 3 = C (Sodium) 4 = D (Beta Blockers)
What do LOCM and HOCM stand for, and which is better for the patient?
Low Osmolar Contrast Media (better) and High Osmolar Contrast Media
Large Osmolar Contrast Media and High Osmolar Contrast Media (better)
Low Osmolar Contrast Media (better) and Heavy Osmolar Contrast Media
Light Osmolar Contrast Media and High Osmolar Contrast Media (better)
Which of the following are characteristics of contrast agents? (Select all that apply)
Hydrophilicity
Viscosity
Osmolality
Iodine Concentration
Match the contrast complication to its correct reaction level (Mild, Moderate, Severe).
1. Flushing
2. Vomiting
3. Death
4. Hypotension
5. Urticaria
6. Headache
7. Arrhythmias
1-Moderate, 2-Moderate, 3-Severe, 4-Severe, 5-Mild, 6-Moderate, 7-Mild
1-Mild, 2-Moderate, 3-Severe, 4-Severe, 5-Mild, 6-Mild, 7-Severe
1-Mild, 2-Moderate, 3-Moderate, 4-Severe, 5-Mild, 6-Mild, 7-Severe
1-Mild, 2-Moderate, 3-Severe, 4-Severe, 5-Mild, 6-Moderate, 7-Severe
How many cc's of fluid are contained in the pericardium?
5-20cc
15-50cc
10-20cc
10-30cc
Using the proper medical abbreviation, which artery determines right versus left coronary dominance in the heart?
LAD
RCA
PDA
LCx
Label the proper sequence of the electrical conduction of the heart.
1. SA Node
2. Internodal Pathways
3. AV Node
4. Bundle of His
5. Left & Right Bundle Branches
6. Purkinje Fibers
1-SA Node, 2-AV Node, 3-Internodal Pathways, 4-Bundle of His, 5-Bundle Branches, 6-Purkinje Fibers
1-SA Node, 2-Internodal Pathways, 3-AV Node, 4-Bundle Branches, 5-Bundle of His, 6-Purkinje Fibers
1-SA Node, 2-Internodal Pathways, 3-AV Node, 4-Bundle of His, 5-Bundle Branches, 6-Purkinje Fibers
1-Purkinje Fibers, 2-Internodal Pathways, 3-AV Node, 4-Bundle of His, 5-Bundle Branches, 6-SA-Node
True or False: Systemic capillary beds are where blood is received and O2 exchange occurs.
True
False
What are anticoagulants?
Drugs that inhibit clot formation by targeting phase 1 of the clotting cascade
Drugs that breakdown thrombus
Drugs that work against clot formation by reducing the blood's ability to clot
Drugs that increase platelet aggregation
What are antiplatelets?
Drugs that inhibit clot formation by targeting phase 2 of the clotting cascade
Drugs that inhibit clot formation by targeting phase 1 of the clotting cascade
Drugs that breakdown clots
Drugs that act as thrombin inhibitors
Are antiplatelets and thrombin inhibitors considered anticoagulants?
No, they are different classes entirely
Yes, because overall they inhibit successful clot formation
Only thrombin inhibitors are anticoagulants
Only antiplatelets are anticoagulants
Which of the following are examples of antiplatelets? (Select all that apply)
Aspirin
Aggrastat (Tirofiban)
Effient (Prasugrel)
Integrilin (Eptifibatide)
What are thrombin inhibitors?
Drugs that target phase 1 of clotting
Drugs that breakdown thrombus
AKA antithrombins; drugs that inhibit clot formation by targeting phase 2 of the clotting process
Drugs that prevent platelet aggregation
Which of the following are examples of thrombin inhibitors?
Alteplase and Reteplase
Aspirin and Plavix
Angiomax (Bivalirudin), Heparin, Lovenox (Enoxaparin)
Reopro and Effient
What are thrombolytics?
Drugs that inhibit phase 1 clotting
Drugs that strive to breakdown thrombus
Drugs that inhibit phase 2 clotting
Drugs that increase blood viscosity
Which of the following are examples of thrombolytics?
Heparin and Angiomax
Activase (Alteplase/tPA) and Retavase (Reteplase)
Aspirin and Plavix
Integrilin and Aggrastat
What happens in Phase 1 of the clotting cascade?
Thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin
Prothrombin is activated and converted into thrombin; thrombin and platelets aggregate to form a porous platelet plug
The clot is dissolved by plasmin
Thrombin signals fibrinogen to convert to fibrin; fibrin reinforces the porous platelet plug to form a solid clot
What happens in Phase 2 of the clotting cascade?
Prothrombin is activated and converted into thrombin; thrombin and platelets aggregate to form a porous platelet plug
Thrombin signals fibrinogen to convert to fibrin; fibrin reinforces the porous platelet plug to form a solid clot
Platelets aggregate loosely
Red blood cells are released
Identify the examples of ARBs (Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers).
Lisinopril and Enalapril
Losartan (Cozaar) and Valsartan (Diovan)
Metoprolol and Atenolol
Amlodipine and Diltiazem
59. Match the generic medication name to its trade name.
1. Sotalol
2. Diltiazem
3. Metoprolol
4. Integrilin
A) Lopressor
B) Eptifibatide
C) Betapace
D) Cardizem
1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B
1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
Match the anesthesia type to its definition.
1. Conscious Sedation
2. Local Anesthetic
3. General Anesthesia
A) Medication-induced reversible unconsciousness with loss of protective reflexes
B) Combination of meds (e.g., midazolam/fentanyl) for relaxation and pain relief during procedures
C) Medication injected into the skin to achieve numbness
1-B, 2-A, 3-C
1-B, 2-C, 3-A
1-A, 2-C, 3-B
1-C, 2-B, 3-A
Methylprednisolone (Solu-medrol) is classified as what and used for what?
Beta blocker; hypertension
Corticosteroid; rapidly control severe allergic or respiratory conditions
Opioid; pain relief
Anticoagulant; blood thinning
What drug binds to opioid receptors to alter pain perception and produce CNS depression?
Naloxone
Morphine
Aspirin
Lidocaine
Regarding Naloxone: What is its trade name, classification, mechanism, and use?
Narcan; Opioid Antagonist; Reverses opioid effects (respiratory depression); Treats overdose
Narcan; Opioid Agonist; Enhances opioid effects; Treats pain
Romazicon; Benzodiazepine Antagonist; Reverses sedation; Treats overdose
Adrenaline; Sympathomimetic; Increases HR; Treats arrest
Scenario: 92-year-old post-op patient on morphine is hard to arouse. BP 102/72, Resp 8, SpO2 86%. What are the priority actions? (Select all that apply)
Insert Foley catheter
Raise head of bed
Increase IV fluid
Administer oxygen
Administer Naloxone
When should Naloxone take effect, and when should respiratory status be reassessed?
5 minutes; every hour
Immediately; every 15 minutes
10 minutes; every 30 minutes
Immediately; every 5 minutes
The Right Coronary Artery (RCA) supplies blood to which of the following? (Select all that apply)
Left Atrium
Right Ventricle
Right Atrium
Anterior surface of Left Ventricle
Inferior surface of Left Ventricle
What is the ultimate purpose of the cardiovascular system?
To pump blood only
To facilitate exchange of gases, fluid, electrolytes, large molecules, and heat between cells and the outside environment
To maintain body temperature only
To transport hormones only
The _____ and the _____ ensure that adequate blood flow is delivered to organs for exchange to take place.
Lungs, Kidneys
Arteries, Veins
Heart, Vasculature
Brain, Heart
Match the Cardiac Cycle Phase to its description (Valves, ECG, etc.):
1. Phase 1
2. Phase 2
3. Phase 3
4. Phase 4
5. Phase 5
6. Phase 6
7. Phase 7
Options:
A) Rapid Filling: AV Open, Semilunar Closed
B) Isovolumetric Contraction: S1 Sound, QRS Complex
C) Atrial Systole: AV Open, Semilunar Closed, P Wave
D) Reduced Ejection: Semilunar Open, AV Closed, Ventricular Repolarization (T wave)
E) Isovolumetric Relaxation: All Valves Closed
F) Rapid Ejection: Semilunar Open, AV Closed
G) Reduced Filling: AV Open, Semilunar Closed
1-C, 2-B, 3-F, 4-D, 5-E, 6-A, 7-G
1-C, 2-F, 3-B, 4-D, 5-E, 6-A, 7-G
1-C, 2-B, 3-F, 4-E, 5-D, 6-A, 7-G
1-C, 2-B, 3-F, 4-D, 5-E, 6-G, 7-A
True or False: The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization.
True
False
True or False: The AV node is the primary pacemaker in the heart.
True
False
What causes the first heart sound (S1)?
Closure of Semilunar Valves
Closure of Atrioventricular Valves
Ventricular Filling
Atrial Contraction
True or False: S1 sounds like "DUB" and S2 sounds like "LUB"
True
False
What causes the second heart sound (S2)?
Closure of Atrioventricular Valves
Ventricular Filling
Closure of Semilunar Valves
Atrial Contraction
True or False: The aortic pulse pressure is the average pressure over time.
True
False
What is Preload and what does it influence?
Volume of blood in LV after systole; influences HR
Resistance in aorta; influences afterload
Pressure in RA; influences venous return
Volume of blood in LV after diastole; influences contractility
True or False: The T wave represents electrical depolarization of the atria.
True
False
During the cardiac phase of Systole, what is the status of the valves?
AV valves open, Semilunar valves closed
All valves are closed
Semilunar valves open, AV valves closed
All valves are open
During the cardiac phase of Diastole, what is the status of the valves?
Semilunar valves open, AV valves closed
All valves are open
All valves are closed
AV valves open, Semilunar valves closed
What does GFR stand for and what does it represent?
Glomerular Function Ratio; kidney efficiency percentage
Glomerular Filtration Rate; amount of blood passing through glomeruli each minute
Gastric Filtration Rate; rate of digestion
Global Flow Rate; cardiac output measurement
What is the normal PaCO2 level in an ABG?
45-55 mm Hg
25-32 mm Hg
30-40 mm Hg
35-45 mm Hg
What is the normal HCO3 level in an ABG?
22-24 mmol/L
35-45 mmol/L
20-26 mmol/L
30-42 mmol/L
True or False: The respiratory system compensates for metabolic disturbances and the renal system compensates for carbon dioxide disturbances.
True
False
True or False: At rest, an adult heart beats 60 to 110 times per minute.
True
False
What is the definition of depolarization?
The relaxation of tissue after contraction
A change in electrical charge distribution in pacemaker cells that causes contraction
The filling of the ventricles with blood
The mechanical opening of the heart valves
What is the time duration represented by one small horizontal box on an ECG grid?
0.20 seconds
0.12 seconds
0.04 seconds
0.10 seconds
What is the time duration represented by one large horizontal box on an ECG grid?
0.20 seconds
0.40 seconds
0.04 seconds
0.12 seconds
What is the voltage represented by a large vertical box on an ECG?
1.0 mV
0.1 mV
0.25 mV
0.5 mV
Which method is used to calculate a patient's Heart Rate (HR) from an ECG rhythm strip?
Divide 1500 by the number of large boxes
Count the P waves in 6 seconds and multiply by 10
Divide 300 by the number of large boxes between R waves
Multiply the QRS duration by the PR interval
Which leads correspond to the Lateral Wall of the heart?
V1, V2
II, III, aVF
I, aVL, V5, V6
V3, V4
Which leads correspond to the Inferior Wall of the heart?
I, aVL, V5, V6
II, III, aVF
V1, V2
V3, V4
Which leads correspond to the Anterior Wall of the heart?
V3 and V4
I and aVL
V1 and V2
II and III
Which leads correspond to the Septal Wall of the heart?
V5 and V6
V1 and V2
V3 and V4
aVR and aVL
Where is lead V1 placed anatomically?
Fourth intercostal space, left sternal border
Mid-clavicular line, fifth intercostal space
Fourth intercostal space, right sternal border
Fifth intercostal space, anterior axillary line
Where is lead V2 placed anatomically?
Fourth intercostal space, left sternal border
Fourth intercostal space, right sternal border
Fifth intercostal space, mid-clavicular line
Fifth intercostal space, mid-axillary line
Where is lead V3 placed anatomically?
Fourth intercostal space, right sternal border
Mid-clavicular line, fifth intercostal space
Anterior axillary line, fifth intercostal space
Halfway between V2 and V4
Where is lead V4 placed anatomically?
Mid-clavicular line, fifth intercostal space
Axillary line, sixth intercostal space
Mid-axillary line, sixth intercostal space
Fourth intercostal space, left sternal border
Where is lead V5 placed anatomically?
Halfway between V4 and V6
Anterior axillary line, fifth intercostal space
Mid-axillary line, sixth intercostal space
Mid-clavicular line, fifth intercostal space
Where is lead V6 placed anatomically?
Mid-clavicular line, fifth intercostal space
Anterior axillary line, fifth intercostal space
Mid-axillary line, sixth intercostal space
osterior axillary line, seventh intercostal space
What is the definition of Depolarization?
The relaxing of tissue to its normal state
A change in electrical charge distribution in pacemaker cells that causes contraction
The movement of blood from the atria to the ventricles
The period of rest between heartbeats
What is the definition of Repolarization?
The contraction of the myocardium
The firing of the SA node
The relaxing of the tissue (pacemaker cells) to their normal state after depolarization
The conduction of impulses through the AV node
True or False: ECG deflections that record below the isoelectric line are considered positive deflections.
True
False
True or False: Deflections recorded above the isoelectric line are negative deflections.
True
False
Which Phase of the cardiac cycle corresponds with the P wave?
Phase 1
Phase 2
Phase 4
Phase 3
True or False: The PR interval reflects conduction from the sinus node to the atrium.
True
False
What is the normal range for the PR interval?
0.08–0.12 seconds
0.20–0.30 seconds
0.12–0.20 seconds
0.12–0.24 seconds
True or False: The PR segment represents atrial repolarization.
False
True
What does the QRS complex represent?
Atrial Repolarization
Ventricular Repolarization
Ventricular Depolarization
Atrial Depolarization
Which cardiac cycle phase corresponds with the QRS Complex?
Phase 4
Phase 1
Phase 3
Phase 2
What does the T wave represent?
Atrial Depolarization
Ventricular Depolarization
Ventricular Repolarization
Atrial Repolarization
True or False: The T wave represents electrical depolarization of the atria.
False
True
What is the normal duration of a QT segment?
0.12–0.20 seconds
0.25–0.40 seconds
0.04–0.12 seconds
0.40–0.50 seconds
What does the QT interval represent?
Beginning of atrial depolarization to end of ventricular repolarization
Beginning of ventricular depolarization to end of ventricular repolarization
End of P wave to beginning of QRS complex
Beginning of QRS complex to end of T wave
An elongated QT segment can give rise to which of the following arrhythmias? (Select all that apply)
Torsade de pointes
Ventricular Fibrillation
Ventricular Bradycardia
Heart Block
How is First Degree Heart Block described?
PR interval is variable with dropped beats
PR interval >0.20 seconds; the rate is regular
No relationship between P waves and QRS complexes
PR interval gradually lengthens until a beat is dropped
How is Second Degree Mobitz I Heart Block described?
PR interval >0.20 seconds and constant
PR becomes longer and longer until one is dropped, leaving an unconducted beat
ndependent atrial and ventricular rhythms
PR elongated and regular until one unconducted beat is seen
What is the alternative name for Second Degree Mobitz I heart block?
Complete Heart Block
Wenkebach
Mobitz II
Torsades
How is Second Degree Mobitz II Heart Block described?
PR elongated and regular until one unconducted beat is seen
PR becomes longer and longer until a beat is dropped
Independent atrial and ventricular rhythms
PR interval >0.20 seconds with a regular rate
How is Third Degree Heart Block described?
No supraventricular impulses conduct past the AV node, leading to independent atrial and ventricular rhythms
PR interval >0.20 seconds with dropped beats
PR interval lengthens progressively until a beat is dropped
Regular PR interval with occasional dropped beats
What is the alternative name for Third Degree Heart Block?
Wenkebach
Complete heart block
Mobitz II
Bundle Branch Block
Where is the Phlebostatic Axis located? (Select all that apply)
2nd Intercostal Space
4th Intercostal Space
Below Xiphoid Process
Midaxillary Line
At the Apex of the heart
Which atrial wave represents a rise in pressure in the atrium during atrial contraction?
C wave
V wave
A wave
y descent
In relation to the ECG, when does the A wave occur?
Immediately after the QRS complex
Slightly after the P wave
During the T wave
Exactly at the J-point
Which wave represents the peak of passive filling of the right atrium when the tricuspid valve closes?
A wave
y descent
C wave
V wave
Which hemodynamic wave corresponds to the tricuspid valve closing
C wave
V wave
A wave
x descent
What does the y descent represent in the atrial pressure waveform?
Atrial contraction
Isovolumetric contraction
Blood moving into the right ventricle
Closure of the aortic valve
What is the general formula and units for Cardiac Output (CO)?
O = SV / HR (L/min)
CO = HR x SV (L/min)
CO = HR x SV (mL/beat)
CO = EDV - ESV (L/min)
What is the general formula for Ejection Fraction (EF)?
EF = (SV / EDV) x 100
EF = (EDV - ESV) x 100
EF = (CO / BSA) x 100
EF = (HR x SV) / 100
What is the formula and unit for Cardiac Index (CI)?
CI = CO / BSA (L/min/m²)
CI = CO x BSA (L/min)
CI = SV / BSA (mL/beat/m²)
CI = HR x SV (L/min/m²)
What is the formula for Fick Cardiac Output?
O2 Consumption / (Art O2 sat - Ven O2 sat) x 1.36 x Hgb x 10
O2 Consumption x 1.36 x Hgb / (Art O2 sat - Ven O2 sat)
(Art O2 sat - Ven O2 sat) / O2 Consumption x 1.36
HR x SV
What is the Hakki formula for Aortic Valve Area (AVA)?
AVA = CO (L/min) / square root of MPG
AVA = CO (mL/min) / MPG
AVA = SV / square root of MPG
AVA = CO x square root of MPG
What Aortic Valve Area (AVA) size would typically require a TAVR?
Less than 1.5 cm²
Less than 1.0 cm²
Less than 2.0 cm²
Greater than 1.0 cm²
What is the Grolin formula for Aortic Valve Area (AVA)?
(CO (mL/min) / (SEP x HR)) / 44.3 x (sqroot MPG)
(CO (mL/min) / (DFP x HR)) / 37.7 x (sqroot MPG)
CO (L/min) / 44.3 x (sqroot MPG)
CO / (SEP x HR)
What is the Grolin constant for Aortic Valve Area (AVA)?
37.7
1.36
44.3
10
What is the Grolin formula for Mitral Valve Area (MVA)?
CO (mL/min) / (SEP x HR)) / 44.3 x (sqroot MPG)
(CO (mL/min) / (DFP x HR)) / 37.7 x (sqroot MPG)
CO / (sqroot MPG)
CO (L/min) / 37.7 x (sqroot MPG)
What is the Grolin constant for Mitral Valve Area (MVA)?
44.3
50
1.36
37.7
What Mitral Valve Area (MVA) size would require open-heart surgery?
Less than 2.0 cm²
Less than 1.5 cm²
Less than 1.0 cm²
Greater than 1.5 cm²
What is the formula for Regurgitant Fraction (RF)?
RF = (Fick CO - Angio CO / Fick CO) x 100
RF = (Angio CO - Fick CO / Angio CO) x 100
RF = (SV / EDV) x 100
RF = (CO / BSA) x 100
What does the MVO2 sat represent?
O2 filtration rate in RBC (Hgb)
RBC (Hgb) CO2 carrying capacity.
RBC (Hgb) O2 carrying capacity.
CO2 filtration rate in RBC (Hgb)
How is MVO2 stat found?
Flamm formula
Hakki AVA Formula
Grolin MVA Formula
Fick Cardiac Output
What is the Flamm Formula?
(1(SVC) + 3(IVC)) / 4
(3(SVC) + 1(IVC)) / 4
(SVC + IVC) / 2
(3(IVC) + 1(SVC)) / 4
What is the formula for Shunt Calculation?
(AO O2sat - MV O2sat) / (PV O2sat - PA O2sat)
(PV O2sat - PA O2sat) / (AO O2sat - MV O2sat)
CO / BSA
SV x HR
A shunt calculation result greater than 1 indicates what type of shunt?
Right to Left
Left to Right
No Shunt
Bidirectional
A shunt calculation result less than 1 indicates what type of shunt?
Bidirectional
Left to Right
No Shunt
Right to Left
What are the standard right atrium pressure values and O2 saturation?
(a)
What are the standard left atrium pressure values and O2 saturation?
(a)
What are the standard right ventricle pressure values and O2 saturation?
(a)
What are the standard left ventricle pressure values and O2 saturation?
(a)
What are the standard pulmonary artery pressure values and O2 saturation?
(a)
What are the standard aorta pressure values and O2 saturation?
(a)
