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CHM 101 FINAL MOCK 2025

Total questions: 42

Worksheet time: 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Calculate the kinetic energy (in J) of a 75.0 kg person running at 1.78 m/s.

a)

112 J

b)

119 J

c)

125 J

d)

133 J

2.

What is the potential energy (in kJ) of a 1360 kg car parked 36.6 m above ground? (g = 9.806 m/s²)

a)

450 kJ

b)

488 kJ

c)

512 kJ

d)

530 kJ

3.

Calculate work (in J) when a gas expands from 46 L to 64 L against 15 atm. (1 atm·L = 101.325 J)

a)

–27,400 J

b)

–27,357 J

c)

–25,000 J

d)

–18,200 J

4.

How much heat (in J) is absorbed by 15.0 g of water heated from 20.0°C to 50.0°C? (Cₛ = 4.18 J/g·°C)

a)

1,500 J

b)

1,880 J

c)

2,100 J

d)

2,500 J

5.

For a system where 15.6 kJ of heat is absorbed and 1.4 kJ of work is done *on* it, what is ΔU?

a)

14.2 kJ

b)

15.6 kJ

c)

17.0 kJ

d)

18.4 kJ

6.

A gas is compressed from 400 mL to 60.0 mL at 8.00 atm, and 140 J of heat is *released*. What is ΔU?

a)

–135 J

b)

+136 J

c)

–276 J

d)

+416 J

7.

How much heat is released when 4.50 g of CH₄ burns? (ΔH = –890 kJ/mol)

a)

–150 kJ

b)

–200 kJ

c)

–250 kJ

d)

–300 kJ

8.

If 2H₂(g) + O₂(g) → 2H₂O(l) releases 572 kJ, what is ΔH for H₂(g) + ½O₂(g) → H₂O(l)?

a)

–572 kJ

b)

–286 kJ

c)

+286 kJ

d)

+572 kJ

9.

A 4.82 g metal at 115.0°C is placed in 35 mL water at 28.7°C. Final T = 34.5°C. What is Cₘₑₜₐₗ?

a)

0.385 J/g·°C

b)

1.25 J/g·°C

c)

2.19 J/g·°C

d)

4.18 J/g·°C

10.

50.0 mL of 1.0 M HCl + 50.0 mL of 1.0 M NaOH → ΔT = 6.5°C. What is ΔH per mole of HCl?

a)

–27 kJ/mol

b)

–54 kJ/mol

c)

–81 kJ/mol

d)

–108 kJ/mol

11.

According to Dalton’s theory, atoms of the same element are:

a)

Identical in mass and properties

b)

Differ only in charge

c)

Always found in pairs

d)

Indivisible but variable in mass

12.

Who proposed the idea of isotopes in 1912?

a)

J.J. Thomson

b)

Ernest Rutherford

c)

Frederick Soddy

d)

Niels Bohr

13.

In Thomson’s “plum pudding” model, electrons are embedded in:

a)

A nucleus of protons

b)

A sphere of positive charge

c)

Orbiting shells

d)

Neutron soup

14.

Rutherford’s gold foil experiment showed the nucleus is how many times smaller than the atom?

a)

100

b)

1,000

c)

10,000

d)

100,000

15.

The Bohr model restricts electrons to:

a)

Elliptical orbits

b)

No in-between states

c)

Probability clouds

d)

Spiral decay paths

16.

What did Faraday’s electrolysis experiments suggest about atoms?

a)

They contain neutrons

b)

They have electrical component

c)

They emit light when excited

d)

They are mostly empty space

17.

Which subatomic particle did J.J. Thomson discover using cathode ray tubes?

a)

Proton

b)

Neutron

c)

Electron

d)

Positron

18.

In the quantum mechanical model, what does ψ² represent?

a)

Electron spin direction

b)

Orbital angular momentum

c)

Probability density

d)

Energy quantization

19.

For n = 3, how many orbitals are possible?

a)

3

b)

6

c)

9

d)

18

20.

Which quantum number defines orbital shape?

4 lines
21.

For n = 3, how many orbitals are possible?

a)

3

b)

6

c)

9

d)

18

22.

Which quantum number defines orbital shape?

a)

n

b)

l

c)

mₗ

d)

mₛ

23.

What is the electron configuration anomaly for chromium?

a)

[Ar] 4s² 3d⁴

b)

[Ar] 4s¹ 3d⁵

c)

[Ar] 4s⁰ 3d⁶

d)

[Ar] 4s² 3d³ 4p¹

24.

Which principle states no two electrons can have the same four quantum numbers?

a)

Aufbau

b)

Hund’s

c)

Heisenberg

d)

Pauli exclusion

25.

According to Hund’s rule, electrons in degenerate orbitals:

a)

Pair immediately

b)

Occupy separate orbitals with parallel spins

c)

Avoid p-orbitals

d)

Maximize opposite spins

26.

Which element has the electron configuration [Ne] 3s¹?

a)

Mg

b)

Na

c)

Al

d)

Ne

27.

Atomic radius decreases across a period due to:

a)

Increased shielding

b)

Decreased nuclear charge

c)

Increased effective nuclear charge

d)

Higher principal quantum number

28.

Which factor increases ionization energy?

a)

Larger atomic radius

b)

Greater shielding

c)

Higher nuclear charge

d)

Half-filled subshell instability

29.

Why is the first IE of Be > B?

a)

B has higher nuclear charge

b)

Be has a stable s-subshell

c)

B is larger

d)

Be has more protons

30.

Electronegativity is highest in which corner of the periodic table?

a)

Lower-left

b)

Upper-left

c)

Lower-right

d)

Upper-right

31.

Which element has the lowest first ionization energy?

a)

Li

b)

Na

c)

K

d)

Rb

32.

Metals have low ionization energy because:

a)

They have high electronegativity

b)

Their atoms are small

c)

Valence electrons are shielded

d)

They form anions easily

33.

What type of bond forms when electronegativity difference is large?

a)

Nonpolar covalent

b)

Polar covalent

c)

Ionic

d)

Metallic

34.

In MgO, ionic bonding is stronger than in NaCl because:

a)

Mg²⁺ and O²⁻ have higher charges

b)

MgO has covalent character

c)

NaCl is molecular

d)

MgO has larger ions

35.

Hybridization in methane (CH₄) is:

a)

sp

b)

sp²

c)

sp³

d)

dsp³

36.

What is the bond angle in sp² hybridization?

a)

109.5°

b)

120°

c)

180°

d)

90°

37.

Hydrogen bonding requires H bonded to:

a)

Any electronegative atom

b)

Small, highly electronegative atom

c)

Any atom in period 2

d)

Only oxygen

38.

Which has the highest boiling point due to H-bonding?

a)

CH₄

b)

HCl

c)

HF

d)

HBr

39.

In VSEPR theory, molecular shape minimizes:

a)

Nuclear repulsion

b)

Electron pair repulsion

c)

Bond length

d)

Orbital overlap

40.

What holds metal atoms together?

a)

Ionic bonds

b)

Covalent networks

c)

Delocalized electrons

d)

Dipole interactions

41.

Which property explains metal malleability?

a)

High melting point

b)

Delocalized electrons

c)

Atoms roll over without breaking bonds

d)

Ionic lattice flexibility

42.

Sublimation is:

a)

Liquid → gas

b)

Solid → liquid

c)

Solid → gas

d)

Gas → solid