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Final Exam MANCQ

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Enterprise Process Management (EPM) is primarily concerned with:

a)

Isolated IT systems

b)

Coordinating and improving business workflows

c)

Marketing and branding strategies

d)

Network infrastructure

2.

What does BPMN stand for?

a)

Business Process Management Network

b)

Business Process Model and Notation

c)

Business Performance Measurement Node

d)

Business Process Mapping Network

3.

Which technology automates repetitive, rule-based tasks?

a)

ERP

b)

BPMN

c)

RPA

d)

SCM

4.

Which ERP module manages payroll and employee records?

a)

SCM

b)

Financial Management

c)

Human Capital Management

d)

Logistics

5.

Why is workflow visualization important in EPM?

a)

It eliminates the need for KPIs

b)

It helps stakeholders understand and improve processes

c)

It increases system complexity

d)

It replaces automation

6.

What is the main goal of performance tracking in EPM?

a)

To monitor employee attendance

b)

To identify underperforming processes

c)

To automate business rules

d)

To eliminate audits

7.

Why are cloud ERP systems attractive to many organizations?

a)

They require high upfront costs

b)

They eliminate data integration

c)

They offer affordability and rapid deployment

d)

They avoid vendor support

8.

Which SCM flow includes invoices, payments, and refunds?

a)

Physical flow

b)

Information flow

c)

Financial flow

d)

Material flow

9.

A company uses BPMN diagrams to train new employees and reduce errors. Which EPM element is being applied?

a)

Automation

b)

Workflow visualization

c)

Performance tracking

d)

Reverse logistics

10.

An organization automates invoice processing to reduce errors and speed up operations. Which technology is most appropriate?

a)

ERP Financial Module

b)

BPMN

c)

RPA

d)

CRM

11.

A firm tracks cycle time and defect rates to improve operations. Which EPM practice is being used?

a)

Workflow automation

b)

Performance tracking

c)

Kaizen

d)

ERP deployment

12.

A retailer combines forecast-based production with real-time customer orders. Which supply chain model is applied?

a)

Push model

b)

Pull model

c)

Hybrid push–pull model

d)

Continuous flow model

13.

A company experiences delays due to redundant approval steps. Which EPM tool would best help diagnose the issue?

a)

RPA

b)

BPMN workflow mapping

c)

ERP deployment

d)

Financial reporting

14.

Why might a cloud ERP become expensive over time for high-usage organizations?

a)

Lack of scalability

b)

Accumulating operational costs

c)

Limited access

d)

Poor automation

15.

An organization avoids outsourcing critical processes to protect intellectual property. Which factor is influencing the decision?

a)

Cost efficiency

b)

Control and risk management

c)

Speed of deployment

d)

Automation capability

16.

A manufacturer adopts Just-in-Time production to minimize waste. Which SCM principle is applied?

a)

Agile model

b)

Lean manufacturing

c)

Fast chain model

d)

Reverse logistics

17.

Which ERP deployment model is most suitable for organizations with strict regulatory requirements?

a)

Cloud ERP

b)

Hybrid ERP

c)

On-premise ERP

d)

Vertical ERP

18.

A firm prioritizes scalability, remote access, and minimal IT burden. Which ERP deployment should it choose?

a)

On-premise ERP

b)

Vertical ERP

c)

Cloud ERP

d)

Custom ERP

19.

Why is supply chain visibility critical for organizational competitiveness?

a)

It increases inventory levels

b)

It improves coordination and responsiveness

c)

It eliminates forecasting

d)

It reduces customer interaction

20.

A company wants to improve efficiency, reduce costs, and remain adaptable. Which integrated approach best supports this goal?

a)

ERP only

b)

SCM only

c)

EPM with automation, KPIs, and continuous improvement

d)

Manual process redesign

21.

A mid-sized manufacturing company is experiencing frequent delays, high inventory costs, and poor coordination between procurement, production, and distribution. Management wants a solution that will integrate departments, provide real-time data visibility, and support both push-based planning and pull-based customer orders. Which integrated approach would BEST address these challenges?

a)

Implement standalone automation tools for each department

b)

Use BPMN diagrams only to document existing workflows

c)

Deploy an ERP system integrated with SCM using a hybrid push–pull model

d)

Outsource all logistics activities to third-party providers

22.

Which IS acquisition method involves building a system using an internal IT team?

a)

Off-the-shelf solution

b)

Outsourcing

c)

In-house development

d)

Cloud subscription

23.

What does COTS stand for in IS acquisition?

a)

Custom-Oriented Technical Software

b)

Commercial Off-The-Shelf

c)

Centralized Operational Technology System

d)

Cloud-Optimized Transaction Software

24.

Which ERP deployment model is known for affordability, rapid implementation, and minimal IT burden?

a)

On-premise ERP

b)

Hybrid ERP

c)

Cloud ERP

d)

Vertical ERP

25.

A company chooses QuickBooks instead of building its own accounting system. This best illustrates which acquisition method?

a)

In-house development

b)

Cloud computing

c)

Off-the-shelf (COTS) solution

d)

IT offshoring

26.

Why is strategic alignment important in IS acquisition?

a)

To reduce vendor competition

b)

To ensure systems support business goals

c)

To shorten contracts

d)

To eliminate training costs

27.

An organization evaluates encryption, authentication, and regulatory compliance before acquiring a system. Which factor is being prioritized?

a)

Cost efficiency

b)

Vendor reputation

c)

Scalability

d)

Security and compliance

28.

Why is a feasibility study conducted before acquiring an IS?

a)

To train users early

b)

To select vendors

c)

To assess economic, technical, and operational viability

d)

To finalize contracts

29.

A hospital assesses clinical needs, compares vendors, trains staff, and evaluates system performance. This scenario best represents:

a)

Procurement only

b)

Vendor evaluation

c)

IS acquisition lifecycle

d)

Outsourcing

30.

A firm lacks cybersecurity expertise and hires an overseas company to manage IT security. This is an example of:

a)

Insourcing

b)

IT offshoring

c)

In-house development

d)

Hardware leasing

31.

A government agency issues an RFP, reviews proposals, and negotiates SLAs. Which acquisition phase is illustrated?

a)

Needs assessment

b)

Vendor selection

c)

Implementation

d)

Post-implementation review

32.

A company wants full control over system features but is concerned about long-term maintenance. Which acquisition method presents this trade-off?

a)

Cloud ERP

b)

In-house development

c)

COTS solution

d)

Outsourcing

33.

An organization prefers buying software to focus on core competencies rather than IT development. Which make-or-buy factor is emphasized?

a)

Control

b)

Quality

c)

Strategic importance

d)

Expertise availability

34.

A company chooses a vendor with a strong financial history and excellent post-implementation support. Which acquisition factor is prioritized?

a)

Scalability

b)

Vendor reputation and reliability

c)

Cost efficiency

d)

Flexibility

35.

A firm evaluates delivery time, defect rates, and responsiveness when reviewing suppliers. Which vendor evaluation method is applied?

a)

Pilot testing

b)

Reference checks

c)

Performance metrics

d)

Site audits

36.

Which is a potential risk when implementing process automation?

a)

Increased manual labor

b)

Employee resistance to change

c)

Decreased process speed

d)

Higher error rates

37.

A company avoids outsourcing critical systems to protect intellectual property. Which make-or-buy factor is being analyzed?

a)

Cost

b)

Control over operations

c)

Production capacity

d)

Flexibility

38.

A public university complies with RA 12009 IRR to ensure transparency and accountability. Which principle is being upheld?

a)

Operational flexibility

b)

Strategic alignment

c)

Regulatory compliance

d)

Cost minimization

39.

A company considers switching vendors but fears migration complexity. Which risk is involved?

a)

Scalability risk

b)

Vendor lock-in

c)

Training risk

d)

Licensing risk

40.

A vendor scores highest using a weighted scoring model. Why is this method effective?

a)

It eliminates human judgment

b)

It ensures lowest cost selection

c)

It provides objective comparison

d)

It guarantees performance

41.

A growing startup wants scalability, low upfront costs, and remote access. Which acquisition strategy should it design?

a)

On-premise ERP with perpetual licenses

b)

In-house development

c)

Cloud-based ERP and IaaS

d)

Hardware leasing only

42.

An organization wants to redesign its sourcing strategy to reduce risks while maintaining flexibility. Which approach is most appropriate?

a)

Sole-sourcing

b)

Full insourcing

c)

Hybrid sourcing (make-and-buy)

d)

Eliminating vendors

43.

Which of the following best describes tacit knowledge?

a)

Easily documented manuals and reports

b)

Personal, experience-based insights difficult to articulate

c)

Shared knowledge stored in databases

d)

Publicly available information

44.

Which stage of the Knowledge Management Value Chain involves distributing knowledge across the organization?

a)

Acquisition

b)

Storage

c)

Dissemination

d)

Application

45.

Artificial Narrow Intelligence (ANI) is designed to:

a)

Perform any intellectual task a human can do

b)

Surpass human intelligence in all fields

c)

Perform specific tasks with high proficiency

d)

Learn independently without data

46.

Which of the following is not considered a core AI technology?

a)

Machine Learning

b)

Blockchain

c)

Expert Systems

d)

Natural Language Processing

47.

What is the primary function of a community provider in digital business?

a)

Sell physical goods online

b)

Provide a platform for social interaction

c)

Manage financial transactions

d)

Automate manufacturing processes

48.

Which cloud service model provides virtualized computing resources such as servers and storage?

a)

SaaS

b)

PaaS

c)

IaaS

d)

DaaS

49.

What is the main goal of Business Process Reengineering (BPR)?

a)

Make minor incremental improvements

b)

Radically redesign processes for dramatic performance gains

c)

Automate manual tasks only

d)

Outsource business functions

50.

Which type of knowledge is formal, structured, and easily communicated?

a)

Tacit knowledge

b)

Explicit knowledge

c)

Collective knowledge

d)

Internal knowledge

51.

(Understanding) Which AI technique learns through trial and error by receiving feedback on actions?

a)

Supervised Learning

b)

Reinforcement Learning

c)

Unsupervised Learning

d)

Genetic Algorithms

52.

Digital market goods differ from physical goods because they:

a)

Require shipping and inventory management

b)

Exist only in digital form

c)

Are manufactured in factories

d)

Cannot be copied

53.

Artificial General Intelligence (AGI) is defined as AI that:

a)

Performs specific narrow tasks

b)

Matches human cognitive abilities across all domains

c)

Surpasses human intelligence in all fields

d)

Is used only in gaming applications

54.

(Analyzing) Which stage of the Knowledge Management Value Chain is most critical for gaining competitive advantage?

a)

Acquisition

b)

Dissemination

c)

Application

d)

Storage

55.

One of the major challenges in selling digital market goods is:

a)

Managing warehouse inventory

b)

Piracy and unauthorized sharing

c)

High shipping costs

d)

Physical damage during transport

56.

Platform as a Service (PaaS) primarily allows developers to:

a)

Access computing hardware only

b)

Build, test, and deploy applications without managing infrastructure

c)

Use pre-built software applications only

d)

Host physical servers onsite

57.

According to Hammer and Champy, Business Process Reengineering aims to improve:

a)

Cost, quality, speed, and service dramatically

b)

Employee satisfaction only

c)

Marketing strategies incrementally

d)

Product features

58.

Which type of knowledge is personal and experience-based?

a)

Explicit knowledge

b)

Tacit knowledge

c)

Collective knowledge

d)

External knowledge

59.

What AI technology is modeled after the human brain and composed of interconnected nodes?

a)

Expert Systems

b)

Neural Networks

c)

Genetic Algorithms

d)

Transaction Brokers

60.

Which cloud computing model allows subscription-based access to software applications?

a)

IaaS

b)

SaaS

c)

PaaS

d)

On-premise