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PHA final practice

Total questions: 136

Worksheet time: 1hrs 8mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A patient is prescribed a medication and asks the nurse if the drug is available in a generic form. The nurse understands that a generic medication will have a name that

a)

is a registered trademark.

b)

is always capitalized.

c)

is not owned by the drug manufacturer.

2.

What kind of drug names are Advil and Motrin?

a)

trade names

b)

generic names

c)

official names

d)

chemical names

3.

A patient is prescribed a controlled substance. The nurse understands prescription drugs with the highest potential for drug abuse are in which drug schedule?

a)

CS-I

b)

CS-II

c)

CS-III

d)

CS-IV

4.

The nurse understands that a drug administered by which route will require the most immediate assessment of its effects?

a)

topical (transdermal)

b)

subcutaneous injection

c)

intravenous injection

d)

oral

5.

The nurse is preparing to administer an oral medication and wants to ensure the most rapid drug absorption. Which form of the medication will the nurse administer?

a)

tablet

b)

enteric-coated tablet

c)

liquid suspension

d)

capsule

6.

The nurse is teaching a patient who will be discharged home with a prescription for an enteric-coated tablet. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

a)

"I may crush the tablet and put it in applesauce to improve absorption."

b)

"Taking this medication with food will enhance its absorption."

c)

"I should expect a delayed onset of the drug's effects after taking the tablet."

7.

The primary site of drug metabolism is which organ?

a)

stomach

b)

small intestine

c)

liver

d)

kidneys

8.

The nurse is preparing to administer a drug that is eliminated through the kidneys. The nurse reviews the patient's chart and notes that the patient has increased serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN). The nurse will perform which action?

a)

Administer the drug via IV

b)

Anticipate a shorter duration of action of the drug

c)

Expect decreased drug effects when the drug is given

d)

Notify the provider to discuss giving a lower dose

9.

Which adrenergic receptors are primarily in the airways of the lungs?

a)

Alpha-1

b)

Alpha-2

c)

Beta-1

d)

Beta-2

10.

Anaphylactic shock is treated with a

a)

adrenergic agonist

b)

adrenergic antagonist

c)

cholinergic agonist

d)

cholinergic antagonist

11.

The nurse understands that high doses of epinephrine can result in

a)

anaphylactic shock

b)

an asthmatic attack

c)

tachycardia and cardiac arrhythmias

d)

pupil constriction

12.

The nurse administers epinephrine to a patient who is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction. The nurse understands that the patient is at risk of which adverse effect?

a)

bradycardia (slow heart beat)

b)

urinary retention

c)

hypotension (low blood pressure)

13.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has asthma and administers an adrenergic drug to treat bronchospasm. The nurse understands that this drug has the potential to cause which side effect?

a)

Low blood glucose

b)

Shortness of breath

c)

Increased heart rate

d)

Increased gastrointestinal activity

14.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is prescribed metoprolol. The nurse understands that this has been prescribed to treat which condition?

a)

Asthma

b)

Anaphylactic shock

c)

Hypertension

d)

Urinary retention

15.

Which neurotransmitter is used in the parasympathetic nervous system?

a)

norepinephrine (NE)

b)

acetylcholine (ACh)

16.

Which drug is used to treat bradycardia?

a)

atenolol

b)

atropine sulfate

c)

oxybutynin

d)

albuterol

17.

When assessing an older adult's renal function, which laboratory value(s) will the nurse monitor?

a)

liver function tests

b)

blood electrolytes

c)

blood glucose

d)

creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

18.

Atropine belongs to which drug class?

a)

beta-1 blocker

b)

cholinergic

c)

cholinergic antagonist (non-selective)

d)

cholinergic antagonist (urinary specific)

19.

Albuterol belongs to which drug class?

a)

adrenergic agonist (non-selective)

b)

beta-2 agonist

c)

beta-1 blocker

d)

anticholinergic

20.

Bethanechol belongs to which drug class?

a)

adrenergic agonist

b)

adrenergic antagonist

c)

cholinergic agonist

d)

cholinergic antagonist

21.

Which adverse effect would the nurse expect to monitor for when administering bethanechol?

a)

tachycardia (rapid heart rate)

b)

hypertension

c)

increased salivation

d)

urinary retention

22.

A patient with heart disease has been prescribed a medication to slow down their heart rate. Which class of drug was prescribed?

a)

Alpha-agonist

b)

Alpha-blocker

c)

Beta-agonist

d)

Beta-blocker

23.

A patient is brought to the emergency department for treatment of acute asthma. The patient uses albuterol as needed to control wheezing, though has been using the albuterol more than prescribed. The nurse notes wheezing, tremors, restlessness, and a heart rate of 120 beats per minute (normal = 60 - 100 bpm). The nurse suspects that the patient has

a)

overused the albuterol

b)

not been using the albuterol

c)

taken a cholinergic agonist

24.

Which is the highest priority nursing concern for a patient who is starting a beta-blocker?

a)

Decreased cardiac output related to effects of the medication

b)

Fatigue related to side effects of the medication

c)

Risk for sexual dysfunction related to side effects of the medication

d)

Disturbance in sleeping related to the medication

25.

Metoprolol belongs to which drug class?

a)

adrenergic agonist (non-selective)

b)

beta-2 agonist

c)

beta-1 blocker

d)

cholinergic agonist

26.

The nurse is preparing to administer atropine to a patient. Which symptom would be a contraindication (situation in which the drug should not be given)?

a)

decreased bowel sounds

b)

drooling

c)

loose stools

d)

shoulder pain

27.

Adverse effects of anticholinergics include which of the following (select all that apply)

a)

dry mouth

b)

constipation

c)

increased body temperature from decreased perspiration

d)

blurred vision and pupil dilation

28.

The sympathetic nervous system decreases

a)

heart rate

b)

blood pressure

c)

blood glucose

d)

digestive secretions and peristalsis (bowel activity)

29.

The nurse administers a drug that activates beta-2 adrenergic receptors. The nurse understands that this drug is a beta-adrenergic

a)

antagonist

b)

agonist

c)

blocker

d)

inhibitor

30.

The therapeutic index is

a)

the time it takes for a drug to become effective

b)

the difference between the therapeutic dose and the toxic dose

c)

the highest concentration in the blood

d)

the length of time the drug exerts a therapeutic effect

31.

The nurse is administering medication to an older adult with decreased kidney function. The nurse understands that the decreased kidney function will have which effect on the pharmacokinetics?

a)

The medication will be excreted more quickly

b)

The medication will be excreted more slowly

c)

The medication will be metabolized more slowly

d)

The medication will be metabolized more quickly

32.

A drug that will be administered to the patient has a half-life of 22 hours. The nurse gives the patient 800 mg800\ \text{mg} of it. How much drug will be left in the body after 44 hours?

a)

none

b)

200 mg

c)

400 mg

d)

600 mg

33.

The nurse gives a medication to a patient with a history of liver disease. The nurse will monitor this patient for

a)

decreased drug effects

b)

increased drug effects

c)

need for increased dosage.

34.

Drugs used for treating ADHD are

a)

non-prescription (over-the-counter) drugs

b)

prescription drugs, but none are controlled substances

c)

controlled substance schedule I

d)

controlled substance schedule II

35.

A patient has been using an amphetamine-like drug for several weeks and asks the nurse about the adverse effects of this type of medication. The nurse will explain that these drugs

a)

can cause arrhythmias and hypertension.

b)

contribute to the development of learning disorders.

c)

do not have side effects when used properly.

d)

can cause fatigue and hypotension.

36.

The nurse is checking an 8-year-old child who has ADHD and takes methylphenidate (Ritalin) during an annual well-child visit. Which assessments are especially important for this child?

a)

Heart rate, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation

b)

Height, weight, and blood pressure

c)

Measures of fine-motor skills

d)

Nausea, vomiting, and gastrointestinal upset

37.

The nurse is teaching a child and a parent about taking methylphenidate (Ritalin) to treat ADHD. Which statement by the parent indicates understanding?

a)

“I should give this drug to my child at bedtime to help with sleep.”

b)

“My child should avoid products containing caffeine.”

c)

“The drug should be stopped immediately if my child develops commonly known side effects.”

d)

“We should monitor my child’s weight since weight gain is common.”

38.

A teenager who started taking methylphenidate for ADHD 6 months ago returns to the clinic with their parent, who reports the teenager seems more sleepy and less focused than before. What will the nurse do first?

a)

Ask the patient whether they are still taking the drug as prescribed.

b)

Sleepiness, decreased focus and other symptoms of ADHD could indicate that the patient is no longer taking the drug as prescribed.

c)

Contact the provider to discuss increasing the dose.

d)

Recommend taking the drug with meals to reduce side effects.

e)

Report signs of drug toxicity to the patient's provider.

39.

Zolpidem (Ambien) is in what drug class?

a)

sedative-hypnotic, non-benzodiazepine

b)

adrenergic agonist

c)

cholinergic agonist

d)

amphetamine-like drug

40.

Hypnotic drug therapy should normally be short term to prevent dependence.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

The nurse is caring for a patient with a bone fracture who receives morphine yet continues to experience pain. The patient reports regular narcotic use. The nurse understands that decreased response to a drug from long-term use, requiring increased doses for the desired effect, is called

a)

addiction

b)

dependence

c)

tolerance

d)

drug abuse

42.

A patient has been taking a benzodiazepine as a sleep aid for several months and wishes to stop the medication. After consulting with a provider, the nurse will suggest tapering the dose gradually (rather than abruptly) to avoid which effect?

a)

Tolerance

b)

Hangover

c)

Dependence

d)

Withdrawal symptoms

43.

Benzodiazepines

a)

are safe to stop taking abruptly

b)

are controlled substances (CSS-IV)

c)

are safe to combine with CNS depressants such as alcohol

d)

are safe to use when driving a motor vehicle

44.

The nurse is caring for an older adult patient who is receiving their first dose of lorazepam. What priority intervention will be included in the nurse’s plan of care for this patient?

a)

Reporting an increase in urinary frequency

b)

Teaching the patient that they can increase the dose as needed for insomnia

c)

Monitoring the patient to prevent falls due to dizziness and confusion

d)

Teaching the patient that this drug may be used for 3 to 6 months

45.

The nurse is teaching a patient who will begin taking zolpidem (Ambien) at bedtime as a sleep aid. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding?

a)

“This drug replaces a natural brain chemical that I am deficient in.”

b)

“This drug is safe for long-term treatment of insomnia.”

c)

“If this medication is not effective, I should take it earlier in the day.”

d)

“Tolerance and drug dependence may occur with this medication.”

46.

Because phenytoin has a narrow therapeutic range

a)

it is only used on a short-term basis.

b)

it must be monitored by serum drug testing and the dosage adjusted accordingly.

c)

it is only used for severe, prolonged seizures.

d)

it must be administered in higher doses and less frequently.

47.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has a seizure disorder and notes swollen gums that bleed easily. The nurse recognizes this finding as

a)

a sign of poor oral hygiene.

b)

a drug interaction with aspirin.

c)

a complication of epilepsy.

d)

an adverse effect of phenytoin therapy.

48.

The nurse is preparing to administer phenytoin (Dilantin) to a patient who has a seizure disorder. The patient appears drowsy, and the last random serum drug level was above the therapeutic range. What action will the nurse take?

a)

Hold the medication until there is an improvement in the patient's drowsiness.

b)

Contact the provider to discuss switching to a different antiseizure medication.

c)

Give the drug and monitor for adverse effects.

d)

Report drug toxicity to the provider.

49.

Which of the following should be avoided when taking phenytoin?

a)

caffeine

b)

alcohol

c)

tyramine-containing foods

d)

birth control pills

50.

Hydantoins such as phenytoin are safe during pregnancy.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

A child is brought to the emergency department while having a seizure that is very prolonged. Which drug will the nurse anticipate administering to this patient first?

a)

diazepam (Valium)

b)

cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)

c)

phenytoin (Dilantin)

d)

valproic acid (Depakene)

52.

An older patient exhibits tremors and stiffness. The nurse will expect the provider to order which medication for this patient?

a)

carbidopa-levodopa

b)

cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)

c)

donepezil (Aricept)

d)

haloperidol (Haldol)

53.

The spouse of a patient newly diagnosed with mild symptoms of Parkinson's disease asks what can be done to manage the disease. The nurse will tell the spouse that

a)

“Parkinson’s disease is a normal part of the aging process.”

b)

“Medication can help relieve symptoms but the disease will continue to progress.”

c)

“The disease will not progress if symptoms are treated early.”

d)

“Medication therapy can be curative if treatment is started in time.”

54.

A patient who has parkinsonism will begin taking carbidopa-levodopa. What information will the nurse include when teaching this patient about this medication?

a)

“Call your health care provider immediately if your urine or perspiration turn a dark color.”

b)

“Rise slowly from your bed or your chair to avoid dizziness and falls.”

c)

“Taking the drug with food can increase drug absorption.”

d)

“The drug is administered through intramuscular injection.”

55.

The nurse is teaching a patient who has Parkinson's disease about carbidopa-levodopa. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

a)

“I may experience involuntary movements if I take high doses.”

b)

“My symptoms may return if I miss a dose of this drug.”

c)

“I should report mental disturbances to my provider.”

d)

“I can discontinue this drug once my tremors have improved.”

56.

The nurse provides teaching to a patient who will begin taking cyclobenzaprine to treat muscle spasms. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

a)

“I may experience drowsiness when I take this drug.”

b)

“I should not consume alcohol while taking this medication.”

c)

“I should rise slowly to avoid dizziness.”

d)

“I should avoid caffeine while taking this drug.”

57.

Which neurotransmitter is blocked by typical antipsychotics?

a)

norepinephrine (NE)

b)

acetylcholine (ACh)

c)

dopamine (D)

d)

epinephrine (Epi)

58.

A young adult patient with schizophrenia recently began taking fluphenazine and is exhibiting spasms of the neck. The nurse suspects which side effect?

a)

Acute dystonia

b)

Akathisia

c)

Pseudoparkinsonism

d)

Tardive dyskinesia

59.

The nurse is teaching a patient who will be discharged home on a typical antipsychotic medication to treat schizophrenia. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

a)

“I should not drink alcohol while taking this medication.”

b)

“I should use a heating pad or hot baths to treat muscle spasms while taking this medication.”

c)

“I should use sunscreen while taking this medication.”

d)

“I will need regular blood tests while taking this medication.”

60.

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome may occur as an adverse effect of

a)

antidepressants

b)

antipsychotics

c)

anxiolytics (antianxiety)

d)

mood stabilizers

61.

Atypical antipsychotics are more likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms than typical antipsychotics.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

Antipsychotics may increase mortality in elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

A patient arrives in the emergency department with difficulty breathing, palpitations, sweating, and trembling, reporting similar episodes previously and no current medications. The nurse will expect the provider to order which medication?

a)

fluoxetine (Prozac)

b)

haloperidol (Haldol)

c)

lorazepam (Ativan)

d)

zolpidem (Ambien)

64.

A patient presents to the emergency department with decreased respirations and sleepiness. Heart rate is 60 beats per minute and blood pressure is 80/58 mm Hg. The patient is known to take alprazolam (Xanax) to treat anxiety. The nurse will anticipate the provider to order which medication?

a)

fluoxetine (Prozac)

b)

flumazenil (Romazicon)

c)

lorazepam (Ativan)

d)

epinephrine

65.

Fluoxetine and other SSRIs may increase suicidal ideation.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

A patient diagnosed with depression will begin taking escitalopram (Lexapro). The nurse understands that an interaction with which of the following could cause serotonin syndrome?

a)

Tyramine-containing foods

b)

Grapefruit juice

67.

Which food will the nurse teach the patient to avoid while taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI)?

a)

sugar

b)

green leafy vegetables

c)

aged cheese

d)

fruit

68.

The nurse is providing teaching for the family of a patient who has been newly diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease. Which statement by the family member indicates understanding of the teaching?

a)

"Alzheimer's disease is a chronic, progressive condition."

b)

"Alzheimer's disease drugs work by promoting the action of serotonin in the brain."

c)

"There are no medications that can help someone with Alzheimer’s disease."

d)

"With proper treatment, symptoms of this disease can be stopped altogether."

69.

A family member of a patient who has been taking fluphenazine for 3 months calls to report that the patient's delusional thinking and auditory hallucinations have stopped since starting the medication, but that they are now exhibiting constant restlessness. The nurse will perform which action?

a)

Recommend they contact the provider to discuss increasing the dose.

b)

Remind them that complete drug effects may not occur for several more months.

c)

Contact the provider to discuss ways to manage adverse effects of the drug.

d)

Tell them to withhold the medication and notify the patient’s provider.

70.

The nurse is preparing to administer fluphenazine to a patient with schizophrenia who has been taking it for 15 months. The nurse notes involuntary movements of the lips and tongue. Which action by the nurse is correct?

a)

Administer the medication as ordered to treat these symptoms of psychosis.

b)

Hold the dose and notify the provider of these medication adverse effects.

c)

Request an order for an anticholinergic medication such as benztropine.

d)

Suggest that the provider increase the dose to 125 mg twice daily.

71.

When teaching a patient taking fluoxetine (Prozac), which information will the nurse include?

a)

Long term use of this drug can lead to dependence.

b)

The antidepressant effect may not begin for 3–4 weeks.

c)

The serum drug levels will need to be monitored on a regular basis.

72.

Which statement about lithium is true?

a)

Adverse effects include emotional instability and hyperactivity.

b)

It is taken as needed for its calming effect.

c)

The patient should maintain adequate fluid intake.

d)

The patient should avoid tyramine-containing foods.

73.

The patient has been started on a treatment regimen that includes amitriptyline. The patient tells the nurse that he also is being treated with diazepam for a separate condition. What is the nurse’s highest priority action?

a)

Notify the pharmacy because the dosage of the amitriptyline will need to be increased.

b)

Notify the healthcare provider because the patient may experience an anaphylactic reaction.

c)

Notify the pharmacy because the dosage of the amitriptyline will need to be decreased.

d)

Notify the healthcare provider because CNS depression may result.

74.

A patient who is about to begin taking the atypical antipsychotic clozapine is concerned about side effects. What information will the nurse include when teaching the patient about this medication?

a)

"You are more likely to experience dry mouth, constipation, and urinary retention."

b)

"You may experience weight gain and elevated blood glucose."

c)

"There is just as much risk of extrapyramidal symptoms as with typical antipsychotics."

d)

"You will not need frequent lab work while taking this medication."

75.

The nurse is reviewing the medications of a patient taking cyclobenzaprine. Which drug class does the nurse recognize as having potential interactions with cyclobenzaprine?

a)

NSAIDs

b)

opioids

c)

anticholinergics

d)

amphetamines

76.

When teaching a patient about the use of tricyclic antidepressants, what will the nurse emphasize?

a)

Common side effects include dry mouth and constipation.

b)

The patient should notify the healthcare provider if therapeutic effects are not noted within 24 hours.

c)

This drug class is often combined with monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs).

d)

These medications have no anticholinergic effects.

77.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is being administered morphine. The nurse notes a respiration rate of 8 breaths per minute. The nurse prepares to administer

a)

epinephrine

b)

methadone

c)

hydrocodone

d)

naloxone

78.

The nurse is preparing to administer the first dose of an antibiotic to a patient who has a complicated urinary tract infection. Which action is most important?

a)

Administering a small test dose to determine whether hypersensitivity exists

b)

Contacting the provider to confirm the dosage since it is their first dose

c)

Taking their blood pressure

d)

Checking that a urine specimen has been obtained for culture and sensitivity

79.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has recurrent urinary tract infections. The patient's current infection is not responding to an antibiotic that has been used successfully in the past. The nurse understands that this is most likely due to

a)

The bacteria have acquired drug resistance.

b)

The patient is having an allergic reaction to the drug.

c)

The patient has developed tolerance to the drug.

80.

The nurse is teaching a patient who will be taking amoxicillin twice daily for 10 days. Which statement by the nurse is correct?

a)

“Discontinue the antibiotic when your temperature returns to normal and your symptoms have improved.”

b)

“If upset stomach occurs, stop taking the drug immediately and contact your provider.”

c)

“Stop taking the drug and notify your provider if you develop a rash while taking this drug.”

d)

“Save any unused antibiotic to use in case your symptoms reoccur.”

81.

The nurse has administered an IM injection of penicillin G to a patient with a wound infection. The patient later experiences rash, itching, and shortness of breath. The nurse

a)

notifies the physician to discuss prescribing a different class of antibiotic.

b)

collects a wound sample for a culture and sensitivity test to rule out MRSA.

c)

prepares to administer epinephrine IM for anaphylaxis.

d)

takes the patient's temperature to assess the severity of the infection.

82.

The nurse caring for a patient who has been prescribed penicillin V asks the patient about previous drug reactions. The patient reports having had a rash when taking amoxicillin. The nurse will contact the provider to

a)

discuss giving a smaller dose of penicillin.

b)

discuss using erythromycin instead of penicillin.

c)

discuss using diphenhydramine (Benadryl).

d)

discuss using cephalexin (Keflex) instead of penicillin.

83.

The nurse assumes care for a patient who is currently receiving a dose of intravenous vancomycin infusing at 20 mg/min. The nurse notes red blotches on the patient's face, neck, and chest. Which action will the nurse take?

a)

Request an order for IV epinephrine to treat the anaphylactic reaction.

b)

Slow the infusion to 10 mg/min and observe the patient closely.

c)

Stop the infusion and obtain an order for a BUN and serum creatinine.

d)

Suspect Stevens-Johnson syndrome and notify the provider immediately.

84.

The nurse is caring for a 7-year-old who has been ordered antibiotic therapy. Which order will the nurse question?

a)

azithromycin

b)

trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

c)

penicillin V

d)

tetracycline

85.

A patient taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole to treat a urinary tract infection complains of sore throat. The nurse suspects an upper respiratory tract infection. The nurse will contact the provider to request an order for which laboratory test(s)?

a)

white blood count

b)

BUN and creatinine

c)

urinalysis

d)

liver enzymes

86.

The nurse is teaching a patient about rifampin. Which statement by the patient indicates an understanding of the teaching?

a)

“I will need to limit sun exposure while taking this drug.”

b)

“Rapid heart rate is a common adverse effect of this drug.”

c)

“Red-orange urine may indicate kidney damage.”

d)

“I understand that red-orange urine is a harmless side effect.”

87.

A patient who has tuberculosis asks the nurse why four drugs are used at the same time. The nurse will explain that multi-drug therapy is used to

a)

increase the likelihood of adhering to the drug therapy.

b)

reduce the likelihood of hypersensitivity reactions.

c)

reduce the likelihood of drug resistance.

d)

reduce the likelihood of adverse effects.

88.

The nurse is teaching a student about amphotericin B. Which statement by the student is incorrect?

a)

“Patients receiving this drug should have kidney function assessed.”

b)

“Patients with renal disease should not take amphotericin B.”

c)

“This drug is used for severe fungal infections.”

d)

“This drug is used to treat urinary retention.”

89.

A female patient who is taking a sulfonamide drug reports vaginal itching and discharge. The nurse will perform which action?

a)

Ask the patient if she might be pregnant.

b)

Reassure the patient that this is a normal side effect.

c)

Report a possible superinfection to the provider.

d)

Report to the provider that the patient's primary infection has spread to the vagina.

90.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving gentamicin 85 mg 4 times daily. The patient reports experiencing ringing in the ears. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss

a)

decreasing the dose.

b)

giving the dose 3 times daily.

c)

obtaining a serum drug level.

d)

ordering an MRI to rule out a tumor.

91.

An infant has been receiving intravenous gentamicin. While preparing to administer the next dose, the nurse notes that the infant has not produced any urine for several hours. The nurse will perform which action?

a)

Administer the medication and give the infant extra oral fluids.

b)

Contact the provider to request adding intravenous fluids when giving the medication.

c)

Hold the medication until the patient gets oral fluids.

d)

Hold the dose and contact the provider to discuss probable nephrotoxicity.

92.

A patient has been prescribed isoniazid (INH) as part of a four-drug tuberculosis regimen. The nurse will include which of the following in their patient teaching? (select all that apply)

a)

“The duration of treatment lasts from 6 to 9 months.”

b)

“Avoid alcohol because it increases the risk of hepatotoxicity.”

c)

“Discontinue the drug when coughing and chest pain have resolved.”

d)

“Take pyridoxine (vitamin B6) as prescribed to prevent neuropathy.”

93.

The nurse is counseling a patient who will begin taking ciprofloxacin (Cipro). What statement indicates the need for further teaching?

a)

“I should notify my provider if I feel pain in my tendons.”

b)

“I should avoid driving initially, due to possible dizziness.”

c)

“I should discontinue the medication once my symptoms resolve.”

d)

“I should notify my provider if I experience continuous diarrhea and abdominal pain.”

94.

A patient who is taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole calls to report developing an all-over rash and swollen lips. The nurse will instruct the patient to perform which action?

a)

Increase fluid intake to prevent crystals in the urine.

b)

Take an antihistamine such as diphenhydramine (Benadryl).

c)

Stop taking the antibiotic immediately and notify their provider.

d)

Stop the medication until the rash clears up.

95.

A female patient will receive doxycycline to treat a sexually transmitted infection. What information will the nurse include when teaching this patient about this medication?

a)

Nausea and vomiting are rare.

b)

The first dose of the drug will immediately prevent her from transmitting the infection to others.

c)

Increase intake of dairy products with each dose of this medication.

d)

It is important to avoid pregnancy while taking the medication.

96.

Match the drug with the indication (only one drug per indication): Gout

a)

allopurinol

b)

infliximab

c)

ketorolac

97.

Match the drug with the indication (only one drug per indication): Rheumatoid arthritis

a)

allopurinol

b)

infliximab

c)

ketorolac

98.

Match the drug with the indication (only one drug per indication): Severe post-surgical pain

a)

allopurinol

b)

infliximab

c)

ketorolac

99.

Match the drug class to the drug prototype (one drug class per drug prototype): Penicillin — choose the prototype

a)

amoxicillin

b)

ceftriaxone (Rocephin)

c)

gentamycin

d)

erythromycin

e)

levofloxacin (Levaquin)

100.

Match the drug class to the drug prototype (one drug class per drug prototype): Cephalosporin — choose the prototype

a)

amoxicillin

b)

ceftriaxone (Rocephin)

c)

gentamycin

d)

erythromycin

e)

levofloxacin (Levaquin)

101.

Match the drug class to the drug prototype (one drug class per drug prototype): Aminoglycoside — choose the prototype

a)

amoxicillin

b)

ceftriaxone (Rocephin)

c)

gentamycin

d)

erythromycin

e)

levofloxacin (Levaquin)

102.

Match the drug class to the drug prototype (one drug class per drug prototype): Macrolide — choose the prototype

a)

amoxicillin

b)

ceftriaxone (Rocephin)

c)

gentamycin

d)

erythromycin

e)

levofloxacin (Levaquin)

103.

Match the drug class to the drug prototype (one drug class per drug prototype): Fluoroquinolone — choose the prototype

a)

amoxicillin

b)

ceftriaxone (Rocephin)

c)

gentamycin

d)

erythromycin

e)

levofloxacin (Levaquin)

104.

Match the drug class to the drug prototype (one drug class per drug prototype): Sulfonamide — choose the prototype

a)

trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

b)

ceftriaxone (Rocephin)

c)

gentamycin

d)

erythromycin

e)

levofloxacin (Levaquin)

105.

Malaria can be prevented with

a)

antibiotics

b)

antiviral drugs

c)

antiprotozoal drugs

d)

Malaria cannot be prevented with drugs

106.

The most common parasitic worm in the US is the

a)

tapeworm

b)

hookworm

c)

pork roundworm

d)

pinworm

107.

At the start of treatment, a patient with HIV infection had a viral load of 60 copies/mL and a CD4 count of 450 cells/mm3. After 2 months of antiretroviral therapy, he has a viral load of 20 copies/mL and a CD4 cell count of 800 cells/mm3. How will the nurse interpret the patient's results?

a)

A drug-resistant strain of HIV is likely.

b)

The patient is responding to the treatment as expected.

c)

The patient is having an adverse reaction to the antiretroviral therapy.

d)

The treatment has not been effective.

108.

A patient with HIV infection will begin treatment with efavirenz. The nurse explains that this drug can cause

a)

opportunistic infections

b)

dizziness, sedation, and euphoria

c)

muscle pain and weakness

d)

risk of kidney stones

109.

Which of the following is an adverse effect associated with protease inhibitors?

a)

dyslipidemia and insulin resistance

b)

disturbances in mood

c)

bone marrow suppression

d)

drowsiness

110.

Where should the nurse go to find current information about vaccines?

a)

The current nursing drug handbook

b)

The State Health Department

c)

The Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

d)

The Center for Disease Control (CDC)

111.

Which term refers to a live pathogen that has been weakened so it will not cause disease when used in a vaccine?

a)

inactivated

b)

attenuated

112.

A woman who is pregnant has been ordered a vaccine. Which vaccine(s) may be administered to this patient?

a)

Measles

b)

Inactivated influenza vaccine

c)

Rubella

d)

Varicella vaccine

113.

A 4-year-old child with a cold is in the clinic for a well-child checkup. The provider has ordered the following vaccines: varicella; measles–mumps–rubella (MMR); inactivated polio (IPV); and diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DTaP). Which action by the nurse is correct?

a)

Administer the vaccines as ordered.

b)

Hold all vaccines until 1 week after the child recovers.

c)

Contact the provider to discuss not giving all the vaccines on the same day.

d)

Recommend aspirin to help relieve the child’s discomfort.

114.

The provider orders the zoster vaccine for a 60-year-old patient. The patient reports having had chicken pox as a child. Which action will the nurse take?

a)

Administer the vaccine as ordered.

b)

Counsel the patient that the vaccine may cause a severe reaction because of previous exposure.

c)

Hold the vaccine and notify the provider of the patient’s history.

d)

Request an order for a varicella booster instead of the zoster vaccine.

115.

A provider has ordered HPV vaccine be given to a 9-year-old girl. The parent asks the nurse if this vaccine can be postponed until the child is in high school. The nurse will tell the parent that this vaccine

a)

is less effective in older adolescents.

b)

is more effective if given before sexual activity begins.

c)

is more effective if given prior to going through puberty.

d)

is not effective if given after the onset of menstruation.

116.

The parent of a 12-month-old child who has received the MMR, varicella, and hepatitis A vaccine calls the clinic to report redness and swelling at the injection sites and a temperature of 100.3100.3^\circ F. The nurse will perform which action?

a)

Educate the patient regarding aspirin for pain and fever.

b)

Educate the patient regarding acetaminophen and cold compresses.

c)

Report these adverse effects to the Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System (VAERS).

d)

Schedule an appointment in clinic so the provider can evaluate the child.

117.

Anticancer drugs will most likely have adverse effects on the

a)

bone marrow

b)

kidneys

c)

liver

118.

The nurse is teaching a patient who will begin undergoing chemotherapy. Which statement by the patient indicates the need for further teaching?

a)

“This medication can make me anemic.”

b)

“This medication may cause my mouth to feel swollen and painful.”

c)

“The medication targets the cancer cells only”

d)

“I will need to have a complete blood count done regularly.”

119.

A patient on chemotherapy is concerned about low platelets (thrombocytopenia). The nurse explains that

a)

symptoms can be alleviated with frequent mouth rinses and ice chips.

b)

they should take precautions against infections.

c)

it is treated with ferrous sulfate (iron) and RBC infusion.

d)

they should report excessive bruising and bleeding.

120.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving cyclophosphamide. The nurse will monitor which of the following?

a)

Heart sounds for arrhythmias

b)

BUN and creatinine for decreased renal function

c)

Bowel movements for constipation

d)

Urine for hematuria

121.

Which of the following would most likely cause cardiotoxicity?

a)

cyclophosphamide

b)

methotrexate

c)

doxorubicin

d)

vincristine

122.

The nurse is teaching a patient who is receiving vincristine. Which information will the nurse provide in teaching the patient?

a)

“If you experience red discoloration of urine, it is a harmless side effect of the drug.”

b)

“Report any swelling in your ankles to your provider.”

c)

“You should ask for anti-nausea medication as soon as you start to feel nausea.”

d)

“You should report numbness of hands to your provider.”

123.

A patient is receiving the erythropoietin-stimulating agent epoetin alfa. Which assessment finding would cause the nurse to notify the patient’s provider?

a)

Blood pressure of 100/70 mm Hg

b)

Headache and nausea

c)

Hemoglobin >11>11 g/dL

d)

Decrease in fatigue

124.

The nurse is working with a patient who has been prescribed metronidazole. Which statement by the patient indicates that they need more education?

a)

“I should report any tingling or numbness to my provider”

b)

“I will need to have my kidney function tested before starting the drug.”

c)

“I should avoid alcohol while using this drug.”

d)

“A yeast infection (candidiasis) could occur when taking this medication.”

125.

The nurse is educating a client who has just returned from an area where malaria is endemic. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

a)

“My risk of getting infected with the germ that causes malaria is decreased.”

b)

“Now that I am home, I should discontinue chloroquine.”

c)

“I should report if I get chills, fever, and sweating.”

d)

“I should continue to take chloroquine for 4 more weeks.”

126.

The nurse is educating a cancer patient who is receiving filgrastim. Which statement indicates understanding?

a)

“It protects the bladder from the harmful effects of the chemotherapy.”

b)

“It stimulates the production of white blood cells.”

c)

“It inhibits the growth of all rapidly-growing cells.”

d)

“It blocks the effects of estrogen on the cancer cells.”

127.

A patient who is about to begin chemotherapy asks the nurse when the risk of infection is highest. The nurse will tell the patient that it is greatest at which point?

a)

A week to 10 days after each round

b)

During the 5 days immediately following chemotherapy

c)

Right before each round of chemotherapy

d)

When the patient’s temperature is elevated by 11^\circ F

128.

A nurse gets stuck with an unclean needle from an HIV-positive patient. The nurse should then

a)

wait 10 to 14 days (“window period”) to get tested.

b)

get a single dose of antiretroviral therapy within 72 hours.

c)

begin a 4-week course of antiretroviral therapy within 72 hours.

129.

The nurse is preparing to administer interferon beta 1a to a patient with multiple sclerosis. The nurse will explain that premedication with acetaminophen is recommended for which reason?

a)

Interferons may cause fever, chills, and headache

b)

Interferons suppress the immune system

c)

Interferons increase the risk of Reye’s syndrome

d)

Interferons can cause severe GI tract symptoms including nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain

130.

A child is being treated for pinworms, and the parent asks the nurse how to prevent spreading this to other family members. What will the nurse tell the parent?

a)

“Give your child baths every day.”

b)

“Obtain a stool specimen from your child.”

c)

“Wash all your child’s clothing in cold water.”

d)

“Your child should wash hands well after using the toilet.”

131.

A 25-year-old female presents with abnormal vaginal discharge. Microscopic examination reveals a protozoal infection. The nurse anticipates that which of the following drugs will be prescribed?

a)

fluconazole

b)

metronidazole

c)

vancomycin

d)

penicillin

132.

Match the drug with the indication: For interferon beta-1a, which indication is correct?

a)

multiple sclerosis (MS)

b)

HIV infection

c)

malaria

d)

trichomonas vaginitis

e)

cancer

133.

Match the drug with the indication: For tenofovir, which indication is correct?

a)

multiple sclerosis (MS)

b)

HIV infection

c)

malaria

d)

trichomonas vaginitis

e)

cancer

134.

Match the drug with the indication: For chloroquine, which indication is correct?

a)

multiple sclerosis (MS)

b)

HIV infection

c)

malaria

d)

trichomonas vaginitis

e)

cancer

135.

Match the drug with the indication: For metronidazole, which indication is correct?

a)

multiple sclerosis (MS)

b)

HIV infection

c)

malaria

d)

trichomonas vaginitis

e)

cancer

136.

Match the drug with the indication: For fluorouracil, which indication is correct?

a)

multiple sclerosis (MS)

b)

HIV infection

c)

malaria

d)

trichomonas vaginitis

e)

cancer