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Doctopia.in Jan 02 Live Quiz 8Pm

Total questions: 41

Worksheet time: 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The Sciatic Nerve, the thickest nerve in the body, typically leaves the pelvis by passing:

a)

Above the Piriformis muscle

b)

Below the Piriformis muscle

c)

Through the Obturator foramen

d)

Through the Sciatic notch alone

2.

The Coronary Sinus, which drains the majority of the venous blood from the heart, empties into the:

a)

Superior Vena Cava

b)

Inferior Vena Cava

c)

Left Atrium

d)

Right Atrium

3.

According to the Frank-Starling Law of the heart, the force of ventricular contraction is directly proportional to:

a)

Heart rate

b)

Initial length of the muscle fibers (Preload/EDV)

c)

Afterload

d)

Thickness of the ventricular wall

4.

Gastrin, which stimulates gastric acid secretion, is produced by G-cells located primarily in the:

a)

Fundus of the stomach

b)

Body of the stomach

c)

Antrum of the stomach

d)

Esophagus

5.

In Aerobic Glycolysis, the end product of glucose metabolism is:

a)

Lactate

b)

Pyruvate

c)

Acetyl CoA

d)

Citrate

6.

A deficiency of Folic Acid (Vitamin B9) in early pregnancy is strongly associated with:

a)

Scurvy in the newborn

b)

Neural Tube Defects (e.g., Spina Bifida)

c)

Congenital Cataracts

d)

Cretinism

7.

Dystrophic Calcification occurs in:

a)

Normal tissue with high serum calcium

b)

Dead/dying tissue with normal serum calcium

c)

Normal tissue with normal serum calcium

d)

Dead tissue with low serum calcium

8.

Hypertrophy refers to an increase in the:

a)

Number of cells

b)

Size of cells

c)

Type of cells

d)

Arrangement of cells

9.

Rheumatic Fever is a post-infectious sequelae of pharyngitis caused by:

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Streptococcus viridans

c)

Group A Beta-Hemolytic Streptococcus (S. pyogenes)

d)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

10.

The most common route of transmission of Hepatitis C Virus (HCV) is:

a)

Fecal-oral

b)

Sexual contact

c)

Parenteral (Blood transfusion/IV drug use)

d)

Droplet infection

11.

Aspirin acts by irreversibly inhibiting which enzyme?

a)

Phospholipase A2

b)

Cyclooxygenase (COX)

c)

Lipoxygenase

d)

Thromboxane Synthase

12.

Which class of drugs is contraindicated in a patient with Bronchial Asthma?

a)

Calcium Channel Blockers

b)

Non-Selective Beta Blockers (e.g., Propranolol)

c)

ACE Inhibitors

d)

Diuretics

13.

Adipocere (Grave Wax) formation requires which environmental condition?

a)

Dry and hot environment

b)

Warm, moist, and humid environment

c)

Freezing temperature

d)

Moving water

14.

According to IPC Section 320, for an injury to be classified as 'Grievous Hurt,' the sufferer must be in severe bodily pain or unable to follow ordinary pursuits for a period of:

a)

10 days

b)

15 days

c)

20 days

d)

30 days

15.

The Epidemiological Triad of disease causation consists of:

a)

Agent, Host, Environment

b)

Source, Mode of transmission, Host

c)

Time, Place, Person

d)

Bacteria, Virus, Parasite

16.

Sensitivity of a screening test is defined as the ability to:

a)

Correctly identify those who do NOT have the disease (True Negatives)

b)

Correctly identify those who DO have the disease (True Positives)

c)

Predict the positive value

d)

Predict the negative value

17.

Cholesteatoma is considered an 'Unsafe' ear disease because it causes:

a)

Severe pain

b)

Bone erosion and intracranial complications

c)

Profuse bleeding

d)

Sclerosis of the mastoid

18.

Presbycusis is a sensorineural hearing loss associated with aging, characterized by the loss of:

a)

Low frequencies first

b)

High frequencies first

c)

Mid frequencies first

d)

All frequencies equally

19.

The most common type of Age-Related (Senile) Cataract is:

a)

Nuclear Cataract

b)

Cortical Cataract (Cuneiform)

c)

Posterior Subcapsular Cataract

d)

Morganian Cataract

20.

Presbyopia (difficulty reading near print after age 40) is due to:

a)

Clouding of the lens

b)

Loss of elasticity of the lens and capsule

c)

Elongation of the eyeball

d)

Corneal curvature changes

21.

The Jones Criteria are used for the diagnosis of:

a)

Infective Endocarditis

b)

Rheumatic Fever

c)

Rheumatoid Arthritis

d)

SLE

22.

'Caput Medusae' (dilated veins around the umbilicus) is a sign of:

a)

Superior Vena Cava obstruction

b)

Inferior Vena Cava obstruction

c)

Portal Hypertension

d)

Renal Vein Thrombosis

23.

A Keloid differs from a Hypertrophic Scar because a Keloid:

a)

Regresses spontaneously

b)

Is confined to the wound margins

c)

Extends beyond the margins of the original wound

d)

Does not recur after excision

24.

The most common benign breast tumor in young women (15–25 years), often called a 'Breast Mouse' because of its mobility, is:

a)

Fibroadenoma

b)

Phyllodes Tumor

c)

Intraductal Papilloma

d)

Galactocele

25.

The Pap Smear is a screening test used primarily for:

a)

Ovarian Cancer

b)

Endometrial Cancer

c)

Cervical Cancer

d)

Vaginal Infection

26.

The 'Physiological Anemia of Pregnancy' occurs because:

a)

RBC mass decreases

b)

Plasma volume increases more than RBC mass

c)

Iron absorption decreases

d)

Hemolysis increases

27.

The Moro Reflex normally disappears by:

a)

1 month

b)

3–4 months

c)

8–9 months

d)

1 year

28.

Night Blindness and Bitot's Spots are early clinical manifestations of:

a)

Vitamin D deficiency

b)

Vitamin C deficiency

c)

Vitamin A deficiency

d)

Vitamin B12 deficiency

29.

'Tennis Elbow' (Lateral Epicondylitis) involves inflammation of the origin of the:

a)

Common Flexor muscles

b)

Common Extensor muscles

c)

Pronator Teres

d)

Biceps Brachii

30.

The Investigation of Choice (Gold Standard) for measuring Bone Mineral Density (BMD) in Osteoporosis is:

a)

Serum Calcium levels

b)

X-ray

c)

DEXA Scan (Dual-Energy X-ray Absorptiometry)

d)

MRI

31.

Molluscum Contagiosum presents as:

a)

Vesicles on a red base

b)

Pearly, umbilicated papules

c)

Scaly plaques

d)

Target lesions

32.

The drug of choice for Scabies (Sarcoptes scabiei) is:

a)

5% Permethrin cream

b)

1% Lindane

c)

Benzyl Benzoate

d)

Clotrimazole

33.

Delirium Tremens (DTs) is a medical emergency occurring in:

a)

Opioid overdose

b)

Alcohol withdrawal

c)

Cannabis intoxication

d)

Cocaine withdrawal

34.

Bipolar Disorder Type I is defined by the presence of:

a)

Major Depression only

b)

At least one Manic Episode

c)

Hypomania and Depression

d)

Dysthymia

35.

On a standard X-ray, which of the following appears the Most Radiolucent (Blackest)?

a)

Bone

b)

Muscle/Fluid

c)

Fat

d)

Air/Gas

36.

A Barium Swallow is the investigation of choice for evaluating:

a)

Gastric Ulcers

b)

Dysphagia (Esophageal pathology)

c)

Small bowel obstruction

d)

Colonic polyps

37.

The standard anatomical level for performing a Lumbar Puncture (Spinal Anesthesia) in an adult is:

a)

T12-L1

b)

L1-L2

c)

L3-L4

d)

S1-S2

38.

Malignant Hyperthermia is a rare, life-threatening reaction triggered by Succinylcholine and:

a)

Propofol

b)

Thiopental

c)

Halothane (Inhalational agents)

d)

Fentanyl

39.

Hypovolemic Shock is characterized clinically by:

a)

Warm extremities and Bradycardia

b)

Cold, clammy extremities and Tachycardia

c)

Warm extremities and Tachycardia

d)

Bounding pulses

40.

Nitroglycerin relieves Angina Pectoris primarily by causing:

a)

Coronary vasoconstriction

b)

Venodilation (decreasing Preload)

c)

Arteriolodilation (decreasing Afterload)

d)

Increasing heart rate

41.

Any request or feedback ?

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