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DIAGNOSTIC EXAMINATION IN CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 2hrs 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Finding out the location of the criminal suspects can be accomplished through the use of the following methods of surveillance. Among the following, which should be EXCLUDED?

a)

Surveillance of a place or stakeout

b)

Tailing or shadowing

c)

General surveillance

d)

Undercover operations

2.

Ordinarily, the identity of the criminal could be discovered in one or more following ways, EXCEPT –

a)

A. admission and confession

b)

B. surveillance and undercover assignment

c)

C. eyewitness testimony

d)

D. circumstantial evidence

3.

The tool of investigation, which may be useful in establishing the presence of the suspect at the crime scene due to physical evidence discovered therein, is

a)

Interrogation

b)

Information

c)

Interview

d)

Instrumentation

4.

The following questions are part of the cardinal points of criminal investigation, EXCEPT:

a)

How was the crime committed

b)

What is the offender’s marital status?

c)

Why was the crime committed?

d)

Where was the crime committed?

5.

Intel Officer Y obtained information concerning the rampant illegal gambling activities in one of the towns in Pampanga. The report was made by a member of the populace whose reliability cannot be judged but the info is probably true. The information could be rated –

a)

F-5

b)

F-2

c)

D-4

d)

D-3

6.

Process of critical appraisal of an item of information to determine its pertinence?

a)

I. Recording

b)

II. Judgment of Accuracy

c)

III. Dissemination

d)

IV. Interpretation

7.

Company records, police files and records from civic spirited citizens are classified as information –

a)

from paid informants

b)

from cultivated source

c)

from regular sources

d)

from grapevine sources

8.

Document security is classified as follows, EXCEPT –

a)

Top Secret

b)

Secret

c)

Confidential

d)

Limited

9.

Below are objectives of tailing and shadowing EXCEPT;

a)

Detect evidence of criminal activities and establish the association of a suspects

b)

Find the a wanted person

c)

Protect witness

d)

Gathering of evidence necessary for the prosecution of criminal case

10.

Is the requirement for a lawmen to have a copy of a warrant of arrest in his possession when executing the same absolute?

a)

Yes because the suspect is not likely to cooperate with the arresting officer unless a warrant is shown to him.

b)

No because jurisprudence established that the lawmen need not have a copy of the warrant in his possession at the time of the arrest.

c)

Yes because the suspect usually knows that it is a standard operating procedures for arresting officers to always bring the warrant and present it to the person to be arrested prior to effecting an arrest.

d)

No because the lawmen’s badge and uniform are more than enough to compensate for the absence of warrant of arrest while executing the same.

11.

Consider the following procedures in effecting warrantless arrests: 1. Freeze or restrain the suspect 2. Make proper introduction as to your identity and authority to arrest 3. Bring the arrested person to the police station for further investigation 4. Inform the arrested person of the circumstances of his arrest. 5. Recite to him the Miranda Warning and Anti-torture Warning 6. Conduct thorough search for weapons and other illegal materials and properly document confiscated materials Which of the following is the BEST sequential arrangement of the above procedures?

a)

A. 1 2 3 5 4

b)

B. 2 1 3 4 5

c)

C. 1 2 4 5 3

d)

D. 2 3 1 5 4

12.

PEMS Marilou Ching, prepared a rough sketch of a homicide scene and is now at her office. At this point it is important that –

a)

the proper scale be used

b)

this sketch must be refined and improved

c)

no changes be made on the sketch

d)

a high grade of paper and ink are used

13.

Under Republic Act 7438, when does the police 'custody' of suspect to a crime commence, hence the latter is entitled to be informed of his rights under the Miranda doctrine which cannot be waived?

a)

At the time of custodial investigation

b)

During the announcement that he is under arrest

c)

During the actual questioning

d)

At the moment that he is invited for questioning

14.

Which is NOT a form of physical torture?

a)

Electric shocking

b)

Exposure to extreme sunlight and cold

c)

Exposure to public humiliation

d)

Use of drugs to induce extreme pain

15.

What crime is committed when a step-father A killed step-son B ages 7 years while A was under the influence of illegal drugs?

a)

Homicide

b)

No crime

c)

Parricide

d)

Murder

16.

When a bullet is fired through a pane of glass, the side of the glass where the concentric fractures will MOST probably appear is the pane of glass?

a)

Both sides where the bullet entered

b)

Neither side

c)

The side where the bullet exited

d)

The side where the bullet entered

17.

Safe Spaces Act or Republic Act No. 11313 aimed to expand the scope of the Anti-sexual Harassment Act of 1995 known as?

a)

Republic Act 8049

b)

Republic Act 8353

c)

Republic Act 7877

d)

Republic Act 9165

18.

When the gunshot wound of the victim is located in the area of the body that is relatively inaccessible to the victim, it is an indication of:

a)

homicidal death

b)

accidental death

c)

suicide

19.

In the following cases, defense wounds may be present, EXCEPT:

a)

Physical injury

b)

Infanticide

c)

Homicide

d)

Parricide

20.

Under Republic Act 8294 the use of unlicensed firearm in the commission of a crime is not considered as a separate crime but shall be appreciated as a –

a)

A. mere alternative circumstance

b)

B. qualifying circumstance

c)

C. mere aggravating circumstance

d)

D. generic aggravating circumstances.

21.

When we speak of intracranial hemorrhage, what part of the body are we referring to?

a)

brain

b)

lungs

c)

liver

d)

heart

22.

Sofia is only 10 years old but he gave consent to have carnal knowledge with a male tourist provided she is paid with money. Which is true?

a)

Sofia is a victim of statutory rape

b)

Sofia is a child prostitute and thus no rape occurred

c)

There is no rape since consent was given by Sofia

d)

Sofia must be 12 years old to be a victim of statutory rape

23.

Below are the situations which the Miranda rule does not apply EXCEPT:

a)

Interview of suspects who are not under custody and in custody but are not being questioned

b)

Questioning initiated by the police after a person has been taken into custody

c)

Volunteered statements of suspects in custody and general on-the-scene questioning

d)

Statements made by the suspect to a private party

24.

The principal psychological factor contributing to a successful interrogation is –

a)

A. privacy

b)

B. threat

c)

C. respect

d)

D. rapport

25.

Which tool used in criminal investigation performed through casual but systematic conversation with a victim, witness or informant who may have knowledge relevant to a crime under investigation?

a)

Interview

b)

Deposition

c)

interrogation

d)

Custodial Investigation

26.

What is best applied to a clumsy and nervous person, where the investigators choosing propitious moments to shout out a pertinent question and appears as though they themselves are in rage?

a)

Pretense

b)

Bluff

27.

If your objective is to associate suspect to the crime under investigation, you will formulate the question that will link to the crime known as –

a)

Sacrifice question

b)

Evidence connecting question

c)

Knowledge question

d)

Control question

28.

In general, the most important piece of evidence left at the scene of a robbery is –

a)

Weapons dropped by a robber

b)

The visual identification of the robber by any victims or witnesses

c)

Tire marks left by a getaway car

d)

Pieces of rope used by a robber to restrain victims

29.

Placement in money laundering process means –

a)

merging of money into legitimate economic and financial systems

b)

separating illicit proceeds from their source by creating complex layers of financial transactions designed to disguise the source of money, subvert the audit trail and provide anonymity

c)

disposal of cash proceeds derived from the unlawful activity

d)

investing dirty money to legitimate business

30.

Member of the organized criminal group who handles difficult assignments involving the use of violence in a crime is the –

a)

Money mover

b)

Fixer

c)

Enforcer

d)

Intelligence analyst

31.

Which one is the best tracing clues in a crime of robbery?

a)

One who bought the stolen item(s)

b)

Location of the robbery

c)

Dress of the suspect

d)

Object(s) stolen

32.

The application of the processes of planning, organizing, directing and controlling to traffic affairs is referred to as-

a)

Traffic Engineering

b)

Traffic Enforcement

c)

Traffic Management

d)

Traffic Education

33.

Traversing a highway with double yellow line with dotted line in between means that the motorist can

a)

Not to overtake under any circumstances

b)

Overtake as long as there is no traffic enforcers looking

c)

Overtake when the opposite direction is clear of incoming vehicle

d)

Not overtake when there is oncoming vehicles on the opposite lane

34.

Obstruction can cause traffic accidents and we attribute the same to-

a)

Unworthy vehicle

b)

Vehicle factors

c)

Human error

d)

Road factors

35.

Which of the following is the term used to describe the separation of traffic units involve in vehicular accidents?

a)

Physical reconstruction

b)

Disengagement

c)

Final position

d)

Mental reconstruction

36.

When the red light is on, motorists should observe the following, except;

a)

STOP at the designated line.

b)

Vehicles will be crossing from the other side.

c)

Expect pedestrians to cross at the pedestrian lane.

d)

Unless specified, you can TURN LEFT after a FULL STOP to clear traffic coming from the left.

37.

The construction of an alternate route or road ease traffic in a particular area addresses the problem on-

a)

Human errors

b)

Physical Inadequacy

c)

Poor control measures

d)

Poor maintenance

38.

What is the enforcement action which does not contemplate possible assessment of penalty by the court or otherwise as a result of warning alone?

a)

Traffic warning

b)

Traffic accosting

c)

Traffic citation

d)

Written warning

39.

In using traffic signs, there are basic sign, shapes and colors. Which is NOT one of them?

a)

Round and red sign

b)

Round black and yellow signs

c)

Equilateral triangle red signs

d)

Eight-sided (octagonal) red and white stop sign

e)

Triangle red and green sign

40.

If a driver is involved in a traffic accident, he must report to the nearest police station-

a)

within forty-eight (48) hours

b)

at once

c)

within seventy-two (72) hours

d)

Never

41.

On a highway, a traffic sign reads 80 kph as the maximum speed. While the area is very foggy, a man drives at 80 kph. If you are a traffic patrol officer assigned at the area, you may apprehend the driver for:

a)

over speeding

b)

reckless driving

c)

under speeding

d)

traffic obstruction

42.

It is considered as the most effective deterrent to traffic accidents.

a)

Traffic education

b)

Increased fines

c)

More police patrols

d)

Public awareness campaigns

43.

Safe use of the streets by drivers and pedestrians is a matter of

a)

Adequate utilization of traffic resources

b)

Correct attitude and habit

c)

Effective traffic enforcement

d)

Sustained information campaign

44.

What do you call a person, possessing a driver's license, who is on board a motor vehicle:

a)

Driver

b)

Passenger

c)

Pedestrian

d)

Traffic unit

45.

While driving towards the accident scene, the motorist should

a)

Ignore incoming persons and motor vehicle

b)

Ascertain hazard to approaching traffic

c)

Ascertain possible situation at the scene

d)

Consider obstructions on approach so

46.

As a rule, maximum speed limits are necessary for the use of our streets. The following instances when these maximum speed limits may not be observed, EXCEPT:

a)

Drivers who are members of the PNP and AFP

b)

Any driver bringing a wounded or sick person for emergency treatment

c)

The drivers or his passengers who are in pursuit of a criminal

d)

A physician or his driver when responding to emergency calls

47.

The tool employed by an arsonist to delay the start of the fire and allow him to establish an alibi is

a)

Accelerant

b)

Timing device

c)

Stopper

d)

Delaying tactic

48.

The burning of a building used as offices of the government or any of its agencies was burned it is classified as

a)

Destructive arson

b)

None of these

c)

Malicious arson

d)

other cases of arson

49.

The dry chemical that is intended to be used for class “A”, “B” and “C” fire is

a)

Multi-purpose dry chemical

b)

CO2 dry chemical

c)

Ordinary and regular dry chemical

d)

All of these

50.

In most cases, the initial step for obtaining information to determine the origin and cause of fire IS –

a)

Evidence collection

b)

Interrogation of suspects

c)

Laboratory examination

d)

Interview witnesses

51.

Aside from reducing the temperature, fire in the flaming mode of combustion may be extinguished by any of the following methods. Which is not one of them?

a)

Inhibition of chain reaction

b)

Use of fire extinguisher

c)

Exclusion of flames

d)

Removal of fuel

52.

EXCEPT one, the following are indicators of criminal intent in the commission of arson:

a)

Valuables were removed before the fire

b)

Ill feeling between the accused and the occupants of the building burned

c)

Absence of effort to put out the fire

d)

Absence of the owner during the fire

53.

This phase of fire operations is equivalent to the “reconnaissance” phase of military operations.

a)

salvage

b)

rescue

c)

overhaul

d)

size-up

54.

Aside from heat, another product of combustion are:

a)

I. Light

b)

II. Smoke

c)

III. Gases

d)

IV. Oxygen

55.

Aside from burns, heat as product of combustion may endanger life by any of the following, EXCEPT -

a)

Dehydration

b)

Respiratory injury

c)

Exhaustion

d)

insanity

56.

Every fire should be thoroughly investigated to determine how it started. The primary reason for finding out how the fire started is to –

a)

evaluate the firefighting units

b)

collect statistics on the number and types of fires

c)

reduce the possibilities of future fires

d)

prove that the fire was arson

57.

Which statement is/are TRUE?

a)

1 only

b)

1, 2 and 3

c)

1 and 3 only

d)

None

58.

Which of the following drugs affects the sensation thinking, self-awareness and emotion of a person?

a)

Hallucinogens

b)

Stimulants

c)

Sedatives

d)

Narcotics

59.

Primarily RA 9165 is different from previous laws on illegal drugs because RA 9165

a)

Gives a single definition to dangerous drugs

b)

Included the definition of regulated drug the dangerous drugs

c)

Prefers the classification of dangerous drugs to prohibited drugs

d)

Did not remove the distinction between regulated and prohibited drugs

60.

Which of the following gives the feeling of a need for more and more of legal drugs to achieve the same level of effect?

a)

Physical dependency

b)

Addiction

c)

Psychological dependency

d)

Tolerance

61.

Mandatory drug testing is NOT required by RA 9165 for:

a)

Applicant for firearms license and for the permit to carry firearms outside residence

b)

All persons charge before the prosecutor’s office with a criminal offense having an impossible penalty of not less than six (6) years and one (1) day

c)

Officers and members of the military, police and other law enforcement agencies

d)

Officers and employee of public and private offices

62.

Pleasure or reward is that part of the brain affected by pain, thus the motivation why people used drugs and alcohol is to

a)

Forget their problems

b)

Get high

c)

Feel good

d)

Spend money

63.

Which of the following is NOT a condition precedent before an arrest person may be required undergo a laboratory examination within 24 hours

a)

The person is manifestly showing symptoms of drug abuse

b)

There is a clear showing that the suspect was under the influence of drugs

c)

The person is showing physical sign of drug abuse

d)

The person is showing psychological drug addiction

64.

Without a supply of illegal drugs, it will be difficult for drug addicts to

a)

Be happy and feel good

b)

Sustain their habit of drug abuse

c)

Undergo rehabilitation

d)

Have easy access to illegal drugs

65.

Which of the following is NOT correct regarding the treatment and rehabilitation of drug dependents?

a)

Charge can be filed against drug dependents who is not rehabilitated under the voluntary submission program

b)

The Dangerous Drug Board shall be order the confinement of drug dependent who refuses to apply under the voluntary submission program

c)

A drug dependent discharge as rehabilitated but does not qualify for exemption from criminal liability shall be placed on probation

d)

Temporary release of drug dependent subject to after-care and follow-up treatment from DOH shall be for a period of not exceeding 18 months

66.

Selling, distributing, supplying or transporting of legitimately imported, in transit, manufactured or procured controlled precursors and essential chemicals, by the manufacturer of medicine to the drug trafficker is called:

a)

Drug trafficking

b)

Sale

c)

Chemical diversion

d)

Chemical smuggling

67.

After the filing of criminal case, the court shall, conduct an ocular inspection of the confiscated, seized and/or surrendered dangerous drugs, within______.

a)

3 days

b)

24 hours

c)

12 hours

d)

18 hours

68.

This usually refers to men, and often in the context of cheating on a wife or girlfriend, which is called____.

a)

prostitution

b)

prostitute

c)

philandering

d)

concubinage

69.

The oldest and biggest criminal organization in the world that controls the Golden Triangle. This refers to which criminal organization?

a)

Medellin Cartel

b)

Chinese Mafia

c)

Cali Cartel

d)

La Cosa Nostra

70.

Which of the following is not untrue?

a)

The DDB shall have the custody of all dangerous drugs confiscated

b)

The DDB cause the filing of the appropriate civil action for violation of RA 9165 while the PDEA takes care to the criminal aspects

c)

The DDB promulgates rules and regulations related to drugs which are usually implemented by PDEA

d)

The DDB is the implementing arm of the PDEA in the enforcement of the prohibitory provisions of RA 9165

71.

A facility used for the illegal manufacture of dangerous drugs is called:

a)

drug den

b)

laboratory equipment

c)

drug laboratory

d)

clandestine laboratory

72.

When we speak of accuracy of the report it means that the said report should all be based on -

a)

Facts

b)

opinion

c)

eyewitness testimony

d)

observation

73.

The objective of investigation can be found in what specific part of investigation report?

a)

Conclusion

b)

Subject

c)

Recommendation

d)

Matters to be Investigated.

74.

Abbreviate the uniformed service rank “Police Lieutenant Colonel”.

a)

PLT. COL.

b)

PLTCOL

c)

Lt. Col.

d)

PLTCOL

75.

“REPRISAL” means –

a)

retaliation

b)

advantage

c)

warning

d)

denial

76.

Action in the police report answers the following:

a)

1, 3 and 5

b)

1, 2, 3 and 4

c)

2 and 4

d)

1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

77.

Which of the following constitute a complete sentence that expresses a complete thought and conveys a sense of complete meaning?

a)

Interviewed the police officer

b)

Hoping this meets with your approval

c)

Will send your order soon

d)

Pat Jose was promoted

78.

A written matter submitted by a police officer to his superior concerning his responsibilities about a particular subject is ___

a)

police report

b)

police blotter

c)

investigation report

d)

report writing

79.

When a computer forensic expert makes a duplicate copy of the computer’s hard disk, the lawmen concerned must ensure that the original copy is kept by ___

a)

The judge

b)

Immediate supervisor

c)

The evidence custodian

d)

First responder

80.

Which act is NOT punishable under the Philippine Clean Air Act of 1999?

a)

Burning of municipal waste

b)

Burning of hazardous substances and wastes

c)

Burning papers containing classified matters

d)

Smoking in public places

81.

Permits to possess and use chainsaw issued to noncommercial orchard and fruit tree farmers is valid for a period of ___ years upon issuance.

a)

two

b)

ten

c)

three

d)

five

82.

To ensure that the technical nature of cybercrime is given focus, the NBI and the PNP are required to submit timely and regular reports including pre-operation, post-operation and investigation results to the ___ for review and monitoring.

a)

Department of Justice

b)

Department of Science and Technology

c)

Department of Information and Communication Technology

d)

Department of the Interior and Local Government

83.

EXCEPT one, all are not liable for the crime of cyber libel.

a)

those who like the post

b)

those who heart the post

c)

those who upload the post

d)

those who seen the post

84.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

I, II and III are correct

b)

I and II are correct

c)

Only I is correct

d)

I and III are correct

85.

To establish the prima facie evidence of arson, the total insurance carried on the building and/or goals is more than ___ of the value of such building and/or goods at the time of the fire.

a)

60%

b)

80%

c)

50%

d)

90%

86.

Application of technologies, processes, and controls to protect systems, networks, programs, devices and data from cyber attacks is known as –

a)

cybercrime

b)

electronic data protection system

c)

cyber protection

d)

cyber security

87.

Which of the following should be performed first in conducting fire investigation?

a)

Secure the fire scene

b)

Pacify the fire

c)

Photograph the facade

d)

Conduct search

88.

Which of the following will not cause the investigator to hypothesize that the series of fires are not performed by a serial arsonist?

a)

There is a significant difference in modus operandi in all series of fire

b)

There is significant variations as to the time of the commission of arson

c)

There is a significant similarity in manner of commission of offense

d)

Similar devices were used to propagate the fire

89.

Jessie is the step father of Jean. One day, Jessie and Jean quarreled. Because of anger, Jessie put the clothes of Jean in a luggage and burned them.

a)

Jessie committed malicious mischief and is liable

b)

Jessie committed malicious mischief but is exempt from criminal liability

c)

Jessie committed arson and is criminally liable

90.

Refers to the size of fire which is determined by the size of flame and the area of fuel that is burning.

a)

Temperature

b)

Intensity

c)

Heat

d)

Magnitude

91.

Ordinarily the identity of the criminal could be discovered in one or more following ways, EXCEPT –

a)

admission and confession

b)

surveillance and undercover assignment

c)

eyewitness testimony

d)

circumstantial evidence

92.

Hash value refers to the Mathematical algorithm produced against digital information such as file, physical disk or a logical disk. What is created by this process that is very important in the investigation of cybercrime?

a)

Digital fingerprint

b)

Forensic image

c)

Computer DNA

d)

Digital identifying information

93.

Process of collecting, analyzing and recovering critical forensic digital data from the networks involved in the attack in order to identify the authors of the digital crime and their true intentions is known as –

a)

forensic cybercrime

b)

cybercrime investigation

c)

cyber threat investigation

d)

cyber threat intelligence

94.

EXCEPT one, all are crimes punishable under Republic Act No. 9003, otherwise known as Ecological Solid Waste Management Act of 2000

a)

Open burning of solid waste

b)

Causing or permitting the collection of non-segregated or unsorted wastes

c)

Use of environmentally acceptable packaging materials

d)

Squatting in open dumps and landfills

95.

Who shall designate special prosecutors that will handle cases in violation of RA 9165?

a)

Supreme Court

b)

Court of Appeals

c)

DILG

d)

DOJ