wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Cisco quiz

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 5hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The global configuration command ip default-gateway 172.16.100.1 is applied to a switch. What is the effect of this command?

a)

The switch can be remotely managed from a host on another network

b)

The switch enables Layer 3 routing of packets

c)

The switch automatically assigns an IP address to VLAN 1

d)

The switch starts DHCP services for connected hosts

2.

What is the broadcast address for network 172.16.16.0/21?

a)

172.16.16.255

b)

172.16.23.255

c)

172.16.31.255

d)

172.16.23.0

3.

What is the last usable host address for 172.16.20.10/21?

a)

172.16.23.254

b)

172.16.23.255

c)

172.16.16.1

d)

172.16.20.254

4.

Which protocol provides connection-oriented communication with guaranteed delivery?

a)

UDP

b)

TCP

c)

IP

d)

ICMP

5.

Which term describes the weakening of a signal as it travels through a medium?

a)

Attenuation

b)

Amplification

c)

Reflection

d)

Crosstalk

6.

What is the responsibility of the MAC sublayer?

a)

Providing the method to get frames on and off the media

b)

Routing packets between networks

c)

Encrypting application data

d)

Assigning IP addresses to hosts

7.

A site administrator has been told that a particular network at the site must accommodate 150 hosts. Which subnet mask would be used that contains the required number of host bits?

a)

/24 (255.255.255.0)

b)

/25 (255.255.255.128)

c)

/26 (255.255.255.192)

d)

/27 (255.255.255.224)

8.

Which command can be used to test connectivity between two devices using echo request and echo reply messages?

a)

ping

b)

traceroute

c)

show ip interface brief

d)

copy running-config startup-config

9.

A newly hired network technician is given the task of ordering new hardware for a small business with a large growth forecast. Which primary factor should the technician be concerned with when choosing the new devices?

a)

Devices with support for modularity

b)

Devices with the lowest initial cost

c)

Devices that only support current bandwidth

d)

Devices without expansion slots

10.

Which field in an IPv6 GUA is used for subnetting?

a)

Interface ID

b)

Subnet ID

c)

Global Routing Prefix

d)

Version field

11.

Which TCP/IP model layer is closest to the end user?

a)

Network access

b)

Internet

c)

Transport

d)

Application

12.

Jeremiah was browsing the internet from his personal computer when a random website offered a free program to clean his system. After the executable was downloaded and running, the operating system crashed. Crucial operating system related files had been corrupted and Jeremiah's computer required a full disk format and operating system re-installation. What type of attack is described in this scenario?

a)

Phishing

b)

Malware attack

c)

Brute force

d)

ARP spoofing

13.

Which type of password takes precedence if both enable password and enable secret are set?

a)

Enable password

b)

Console password

c)

Enable secret

d)

VTY password

14.

Which layer of the OSI model defines services to segment and reassemble data for individual communications between end devices?

a)

Physical

b)

Data link

c)

Transport

d)

Network

15.

Which OSI layer is responsible for converting data into electrical, optical, or radio signals?

a)

Physical layer (Layer 1)

b)

Data link layer (Layer 2)

c)

Network layer (Layer 3)

d)

Transport layer (Layer 4)

16.

What type of communication rule would best describe CSMA/CD?

a)

Routing protocol

b)

Access method

c)

Encryption standard

d)

WAN technology

17.

A Layer 2 switch is used to switch incoming frames from a 1000BASE‑T port to a port connected to a 100Base‑T network. Which method of memory buffering would work best for this task?

a)

Shared memory buffering

b)

Port-based buffering

c)

Store-and-forward only

d)

Cut-through only

18.

Which parameter does the router use to choose the path to the destination when there are multiple routes available?

a)

The higher metric value associated with the destination network

b)

The lower metric value associated with the destination network

c)

Alphabetical order of next-hop interface names

d)

The most recently learned route

19.

What property of ARP allows MAC addresses of frequently used servers to be fixed in the ARP table?

a)

Dynamic entries cannot be modified

b)

A static IP‑to‑MAC address entry can be entered manually on an ARP table

c)

ARP always broadcasts to all hosts

d)

ARP caches entries permanently

20.

What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the switch vty lines?

a)

Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted

b)

Only Telnet access is allowed

c)

All console access is disabled

d)

The switch reloads immediately

21.

Which command can be used to view the routing table on a router?

a)

show ip route

b)

ping

c)

copy running-config startup-config

d)

debug arp

22.

Choose the binary equivalent for the address 209.165.200.229.

a)

11010001.10100101.11001000.11100101

b)

11010001.10100001.11001100.11100101

c)

10100001.10100101.11001000.11100101

d)

11010001.10100101.11101000.11000101

23.

What is the next network address for 192.208.112.166/27? (Write your answer in decimal format.)

a)

192.208.112.160

b)

192.208.112.192

c)

192.208.112.128

d)

192.208.112.224

24.

What is the number of hosts in the network of PC with address 192.208.112.166/27?

a)

14 hosts

b)

30 hosts

c)

62 hosts

d)

126 hosts

25.

A network administrator is testing network connectivity by issuing the ping command on a router. Which symbol will be displayed to indicate that a time expired during the wait for an ICMP echo reply message?

a)

!

b)

U

c)

.

d)

?

26.

The help desk technician asks the user to ping the IP address of the default gateway that is configured on the workstation. What is the purpose for this ping command?

a)

To test that the host can reach servers on its local subnet

b)

To test that the host has the capability to reach hosts on other networks

c)

To test DNS name resolution only

d)

To test the host’s ability to send email

27.

According to the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA), how many types of ports exist? Which two tasks can be performed by a local DNS server? (Choose two.)

a)

Three types of ports exist: well-known, registered, and dynamic; mapping name‑to‑IP addresses for internal hosts; forwarding name resolution requests between servers

b)

Two types of ports exist: private and public; mapping name‑to‑IP addresses for internal hosts; forwarding name resolution requests between servers

c)

Three types of ports exist: well-known, registered, and dynamic; mapping name‑to‑IP addresses for external hosts only; forwarding name resolution requests between servers

d)

Three types of ports exist: system, user, and dynamic; mapping name‑to‑IP addresses for internal hosts; forwarding DHCP requests between servers

28.

Some power outlets and switches in a wiring closet malfunctioned after an air conditioning unit failed. What type of threat does this situation describe?

a)

Configuration error

b)

Environmental

c)

Internal attack

d)

Social engineering

29.

A network engineer is analyzing reports from a recently performed network baseline. Which situation would depict a possible latency issue?

a)

A decrease in host‑to‑host ping response times

b)

An increase in host‑to‑host ping response times

c)

A reduction in CPU utilization on switches

d)

A drop in throughput measurements

30.

Which command should be used on a Cisco router or switch to allow log messages to be displayed on remotely connected sessions using Telnet or SSH?

a)

terminal monitor

b)

logging synchronous

c)

debug all

d)

service timestamps log datetime

31.

Which type of network would connect a smartphone to a laptop using Bluetooth?

a)

Local Area Network (LAN)

b)

Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)

c)

Personal Area Network (PAN)

d)

Wide Area Network (WAN)

32.

What happens if you configure login under the console line but no password is set?

a)

Console access is permitted with no password

b)

Console access is denied because no password is set

c)

VTY access is granted automatically

d)

The device reloads

33.

Which statement is true about copy running-config startup-config?

a)

Startup-config is stored in NVRAM

b)

Startup-config is stored in RAM

c)

Startup-config is stored on a TFTP server by default

d)

Startup-config is stored in flash only

34.

What process is used to receive transmitted data and convert it into a readable message?

a)

Encoding

b)

Decoding

c)

Encapsulation

d)

Segmentation

35.

What is contained in the trailer of a data-link frame?

a)

Source MAC address

b)

Destination MAC address

c)

Error detection

d)

IP header

36.

What are two examples of the cut‑through switching method? (Choose two.)

a)

Fast‑forward switching

b)

Fragment‑free switching

c)

Store‑and‑forward switching

d)

Buffered switching

37.

Under which two circumstances will a switch flood a frame out of every port except the port that the frame was received on? (Choose two.)

a)

The frame has the broadcast address as the destination address

b)

The destination address is unknown to the switch

c)

The frame is larger than the MTU

d)

The source address is multicast

38.

What property of ARP causes cached IP-to-MAC mappings to remain in memory longer?

a)

Entries are time-stamped and purged only after the timeout expires

b)

Mappings are stored permanently in NVRAM

c)

Entries are refreshed only when DNS updates occur

d)

Mappings persist until the device reboots

39.

A router prompt changes from Router(config)# to Router(config-if)#. What does this indicate?

a)

The router entered interface configuration mode

b)

The router switched to privileged EXEC mode

c)

The router started a firmware update

d)

The router began routing table recalculation

40.

What happens when you enter no shutdown on an interface?

a)

The interface is activated and can start passing traffic

b)

The interface is disabled until the next reboot

c)

The interface resets to default configuration

d)

The interface is placed into monitor-only mode

41.

What is the usable number of host IP addresses on a network that has a /30 mask?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

14

42.

When issuing the ping command on a Cisco router, which symbol indicates that an ICMP message of unreachability was received?

a)

U

b)

!

c)

.

d)

?

43.

Which statement about flow control is correct?

a)

It helps prevent network congestion and data loss

b)

It guarantees packet delivery without retransmissions

c)

It always increases throughput under load

d)

It eliminates the need for buffering on switches

44.

Which of the following examples commonly uses UDP?

a)

DNS queries

b)

HTTPS web browsing

c)

File transfer over FTP

d)

SMTP email delivery

45.

Which two characteristics describe the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)

a)

Closest to the end user

b)

Creation and maintenance of dialogue between source and destination applications

c)

Routing packets across internetworks

d)

Physical signaling on the medium

46.

Which example of malicious code would be classified as a Trojan horse?

a)

Malware written to look like a video game

b)

Self-replicating code that spreads via network shares

c)

Code that exploits a buffer overflow to elevate privileges

d)

Ransomware that encrypts files

47.

Which is appropriate for providing endpoint security?

a)

Antivirus software

b)

Cut-through switching

c)

Routing protocols

d)

DNS caching

48.

Which information about a Cisco router can be verified using the show version command?

a)

The value of the configuration register

b)

The current ARP table

c)

Interface error counters

d)

Active DHCP bindings

49.

Convert the IPv4 address 125.176.130.133 to binary format.

a)

01111101.10110000.10000010.10000101

b)

01111110.10101100.10000010.10000101

c)

01111101.10110000.10100010.10000101

d)

01111100.10110000.10000010.10000001

50.

Which device is responsible for selecting the best path for data across a network?

a)

Router

b)

Switch

c)

Firewall

d)

Access point

51.

Which characteristic is most important for supporting growth in a scalable network?

a)

Scalability

b)

Simplicity

c)

Static addressing

d)

Single-layer design

52.

Which two methods can a device use to generate its own IPv6 interface ID? (Choose two.)

a)

EUI-64

b)

Randomly generated

c)

Static IPv4 mapping

d)

DHCPv4-assigned

53.

Which dynamic addressing method for IPv6 GUAs relies solely on the contents of the RA message for addressing information?

a)

SLAAC

b)

Stateless DHCPv6

c)

Stateful DHCPv6

d)

Manual configuration

54.

Which three basic parts are common to all frame types supported by the data link layer? (Choose three.)

a)

Header

b)

Data

c)

Trailer

d)

Checksum field in the network layer

55.

A network administrator connects two modern switches using a straight-through cable. The switches are new and have never been configured. Which three statements describe the final result of the connection? (Choose three.)

a)

The link will work at the fastest speed supported by both switches

b)

The link will operate in full-duplex

c)

Auto-MDIX will configure the interfaces, eliminating the need for a crossover cable

d)

The link will require manual speed configuration

56.

Which advantage does the store-and-forward switching method have compared with the cut-through switching method?

a)

Frame error checking

b)

Lower latency for high-performance applications

c)

Reduced memory requirements

d)

Automatic VLAN tagging

57.

Which field in the IPv4 header is used to prevent a packet from traversing a network endlessly?

a)

Time-to-Live

b)

Identification

c)

Flags

d)

Fragment offset

58.

What property of ARP ensures that a reply is sent only to the source that sent an ARP request?

a)

The source MAC address appears in the Ethernet frame header

b)

ARP replies are multicast by default

c)

ARP uses TCP for reliable delivery

d)

Replies are sent to the broadcast address

59.

What is the last usable host address for the network 3.254.127.225/25?

a)

3.254.127.254

b)

3.254.127.255

c)

3.254.127.253

d)

3.254.127.128

60.

How many usable host addresses exist in the network of a PC with address 3.254.127.225/25?

a)

126

b)

128

c)

254

d)

62

61.

Which three types of ICMP messages are common to both ICMPv4 and ICMPv6? (Choose three.)

a)

Destination unreachable

b)

Time exceeded

c)

Echo request

d)

Router advertisement

62.

Which layer in the TCP/IP model is used for formatting, compressing, and encrypting data?

a)

Application

b)

Transport

c)

Internet

d)

Network access

63.

Which benefit does SSH offer over Telnet for remotely managing a router?

a)

Encryption of management traffic

b)

Higher packet throughput

c)

Automatic configuration backup

d)

Built-in routing functionality

64.

When should an administrator establish a network baseline?

a)

At regular intervals over a period of time

b)

Only after a major outage

c)

Only during peak traffic hours

d)

Only when new hardware is installed

65.

Which two traffic types require delay-sensitive delivery? (Choose two.)

a)

Voice

b)

Video

c)

Email

d)

File backup

66.

Convert the binary IPv4 address 01111010.10100001.10010001.00110101 to decimal format.

a)

122.161.145.53

b)

121.160.145.53

c)

122.160.145.52

d)

123.161.146.53

67.

Convert the binary IPv4 address 10110100.01110001.10001101.00101000 to decimal format.

a)

180.113.141.40

b)

180.112.141.40

c)

181.113.140.40

d)

180.113.142.32

68.

How does BYOD change the way in which businesses implement networks?

a)

It provides flexibility in where and how users can access network resources

b)

It eliminates the need for wireless security

c)

It requires all devices to be company-owned

d)

It reduces the number of access points required

69.

What is the primary benefit of a peer-to-peer network for small environments?

a)

Simplicity and low cost

b)

Centralized administration

c)

High scalability

d)

Guaranteed QoS

70.

Which address type is not supported in IPv6?

a)

Broadcast

b)

Multicast

c)

Anycast

d)

Unicast

71.

Which TCP/IP layer is responsible for determining the best path through a network?

a)

Internet layer

b)

Transport layer

c)

Application layer

d)

Network access layer

72.

Which statement correctly describes frame encoding?

a)

It converts bits into a predefined order to provide a predictable pattern that distinguishes data bits from control bits

b)

It encrypts frames to prevent eavesdropping

c)

It compresses payloads to reduce bandwidth usage

d)

It fragments packets to fit MTU limits

73.

What are three ways that media access control is used in networking? (Choose three.)

a)

Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD

b)

Media access control provides placement of data frames onto the media

c)

Data link layer protocols define rules for access to different media

d)

Routing protocols determine the path selection

74.

What is one advantage of using the cut-through switching method instead of the store-and-forward switching method?

a)

Lower latency appropriate for high-performance computing applications

b)

Improved error detection on corrupted frames

c)

Automatic QoS classification

d)

Simpler VLAN configuration

75.

Which IPv4 packet header field is used to detect corruption in the IPv4 header?

a)

Header checksum

b)

Identification

c)

Protocol

d)

DSCP

76.

Which important information in the Ethernet frame header is examined by a Layer 2 device to forward data onward?

a)

Destination MAC address

b)

Source IP address

c)

UDP port number

d)

TTL value

77.

An administrator wants to create four subnets from the network address 192.168.1.0/24. What are the network address and subnet mask of the third usable subnet?

a)

Network address 192.168.1.128, subnet mask 255.255.255.192

b)

Network address 192.168.1.64, subnet mask 255.255.255.192

c)

Network address 192.168.1.32, subnet mask 255.255.255.224

d)

Network address 192.168.1.192, subnet mask 255.255.255.192

78.

What is the network address for 245.143.83.86/28? (Write your answer in decimal format, octets must be divided with dot)

a)

245.143.83.80

b)

245.143.83.64

c)

245.143.83.96

d)

245.143.83.88

79.

What is the next network address for 187.249.199.72/22?

a)

187.249.200.0

b)

187.249.199.128

c)

187.249.196.0

d)

187.249.204.0

80.

Write your answer in decimal format; octets must be divided with dot. What is the next network address for 187.249.199.72/22?

a)

187.249.200.0

b)

187.249.196.0

c)

187.249.199.0

d)

187.249.201.0

81.

A network administrator is testing network connectivity by issuing the ping command on a router. Which symbol will be displayed to indicate receipt of an ICMP echo reply message?

a)

! (exclamation mark)

b)

. (dot)

c)

U

d)

? (question mark)

82.

Which command in the command line (cmd) is used to show the active connections?

a)

netstat

b)

ipconfig

c)

tracert

d)

nslookup

83.

What do client/server and peer-to-peer network models have in common?

a)

Both models support devices in server and client roles

b)

Both models require dedicated servers

c)

Both models eliminate client devices

d)

Both models use centralized authentication only

84.

For security reasons a network administrator needs to ensure that local computers cannot ping each other. Which settings can accomplish this task?

a)

Firewall settings

b)

DHCP settings

c)

Proxy settings

d)

NAT settings

85.

Convert the IPv6 address 0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0001 into short form.

a)

::1

b)

::0001

c)

0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1

d)

::

86.

What kind of network would use point-to-point, hub and spoke, or mesh topologies?

a)

WAN

b)

LAN

c)

PAN

d)

SAN

87.

Which duplex communication method is used in WLANs?

a)

Half-duplex

b)

Full-duplex

c)

Simplex

d)

Duplex disabled

88.

Which two statements describe features or functions of the logical link control sublayer in Ethernet standards? (Choose two.)

a)

Logical link control is implemented in software

b)

The data link layer uses LLC to communicate with the upper layers of the protocol suite

c)

Logical link control is implemented in hardware

d)

LLC provides Layer 3 routing services

89.

What is one advantage that the IPv6 simplified header offers over IPv4?

a)

More efficient packet handling

b)

Mandatory fragmentation

c)

Larger checksum field

d)

Per-flow NAT support

90.

Write your answer in decimal format; octets must be divided with dot. What is the next network address for 158.33.157.80/23?

a)

158.33.158.0

b)

158.33.157.0

c)

158.33.159.0

d)

158.33.156.0

91.

A technician suspects a defective node in the network and has only the IP address of the end point device. What command can the technician use to identify where the path is failing?

a)

tracert

b)

ipconfig

c)

nslookup

d)

arp

92.

Which commands are encapsulated by the ICMP protocol? (Choose two.)

a)

ping

b)

traceroute

c)

ipconfig

d)

nslookup

93.

What is true about the Server Message Block protocol?

a)

Clients establish a long-term connection to servers

b)

It only uses UDP

c)

It is primarily for routing updates

d)

Clients communicate without session establishment

94.

Which application layer protocol is used to provide file-sharing and print services to Microsoft applications?

a)

SMB

b)

FTP

c)

HTTP

d)

NTP

95.

Convert the binary IPv4 address 01100000.00101111.00100111.00110001 to decimal format.

a)

96.47.39.49

b)

96.47.39.17

c)

60.47.39.49

d)

96.74.93.16

96.

What does the ICMPv6 Router Advertisement (RA) message include? (Choose three.)

a)

Router Lifetime

b)

Prefix Information

c)

MTU

d)

Port number assignments

e)

DHCPv4 lease time

97.

What kind of threat is described when a threat actor sends you a virus that can reformat your hard drive?

a)

Data loss or manipulation

b)

Identity theft

c)

Phishing

d)

Eavesdropping

98.

What factor should be considered in the design of a small network when devices are being chosen?

a)

Cost of devices

b)

MAC address format

c)

Use of coaxial cabling only

d)

Requirement for dial-up access

99.

Why would a network administrator use the tracert utility?

a)

To identify where a packet was lost or delayed on a network

b)

To clear the ARP cache

c)

To assign static IP addresses

d)

To test local disk performance

100.

Convert 156 in decimal to its hexadecimal equivalent.

a)

9C

b)

9E

c)

A0

d)

8F

101.

What does the static way of obtaining local IPv6 link addresses for a device mean?

a)

The IPv6 link-local address is manually configured, not via SLAAC or DHCPv6

b)

The address is learned through SLAAC only

c)

The address is assigned by DHCPv4

d)

The device derives its address from NAT

102.

Your organization is issued the IPv6 prefix 2001:db8:130f::/48 by your service provider. With this prefix, how many bits are available for your organization to create /64 subnetworks if interface ID bits are not borrowed?

a)

16

b)

8

c)

32

d)

64

103.

Which functionality is provided by DHCP?

a)

Automatic assignment of an IP address to each host

b)

Compression of application data

c)

Routing between autonomous systems

d)

Generation of encryption keys

104.

Which memory location on a Cisco router or switch stores the startup configuration file?

a)

NVRAM

b)

RAM

c)

Flash

d)

ROM

105.

Which of the following is a PDU at the Physical layer?

a)

Bits

b)

Frames

c)

Packets

d)

Segments

106.

Which two statements describe the services provided by the data link layer? (Choose two.)

a)

It manages the access of frames to the network media

b)

It packages various Layer 3 PDUs into a frame format compatible with the network interface

c)

It routes packets between different networks

d)

It encrypts application-layer data by default

107.

Which switching method uses the CRC value in a frame?

a)

Store-and-forward

b)

Cut-through

c)

Fragment-free

d)

Fast switching

108.

What information does the loopback test provide?

a)

The TCP/IP stack on the device is working correctly

b)

The WAN provider link is operational

c)

The remote host firewall allows ICMP

d)

The DNS server is reachable

109.

Within a production network, what is the purpose of configuring a switch with a default gateway address?

a)

It is used to forward packets originating from the switch to remote networks

b)

It provides NAT for all connected hosts

c)

It enables VLAN trunking on the switch

d)

It encrypts management traffic by default

110.

What property of ARP causes the NICs receiving an ARP request to pass the data portion of the Ethernet frame to the ARP process?

a)

The type field 0x806 appears in the header of the Ethernet frame

b)

The destination MAC is FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF only

c)

The IP header contains protocol number 17

d)

The VLAN tag is set to 0

111.

Which statement describes the treatment of ARP requests on the local link?

a)

They are received and processed by every device on the local network

b)

They are sent only to routers

c)

They are discarded by all hosts except servers

d)

They are encrypted and sent to a single host

112.

What is the usable number of host IP addresses on a network that has a /29 mask?

a)

6

b)

8

c)

14

d)

30

113.

Write your answer in decimal format; octets must be divided with dot. What is the network address for 174.184.244.16/29?

a)

174.184.244.16

b)

174.184.244.8

c)

174.184.244.24

d)

174.184.244.0

114.

Write your answer in decimal format; octets must be divided with dot. What is the next network address for 249.149.83.86/28?

a)

249.149.83.96

b)

249.149.83.80

c)

249.149.83.112

d)

249.149.83.64

115.

Which two things can be determined by using the ping command? (Choose two.)

a)

Whether the destination device is reachable

b)

The average round-trip time for packets

c)

The destination device’s open TCP ports

d)

The remote device’s CPU utilization

116.

What is the main advantage of TCP over UDP?

a)

TCP provides reliable, ordered, and error-checked delivery of data, unlike UDP

b)

TCP uses fewer headers and offers faster transmission than UDP

c)

TCP supports broadcast messages natively

d)

TCP operates only at Layer 2

117.

How many subnets will be created if you borrow 4 bits from the host portion of an address?

a)

16

b)

8

c)

32

d)

4

118.

Write your answer in decimal format; octets must be divided with dot. What is the first usable host address for 192.208.112.166/27?

a)

192.208.112.161

b)

192.208.112.160

c)

192.208.112.166

d)

192.208.112.191

119.

Which port number is associated with the originating application on the local host, and which port number is associated with the application on the remote host?

a)

Source port on the local host; destination port on the remote host

b)

Destination port on the local host; source port on the remote host

c)

Dynamic port on both hosts

d)

Well-known port on both hosts

120.

When retrieving email messages, which protocol allows for easy, centralized storage and backup of emails desirable for a small-to-medium-sized business?

a)

IMAP

b)

POP3

c)

SMTP

d)

FTP

121.

A network administrator establishes a connection to a switch via SSH. What characteristic uniquely describes the SSH connection?

a)

Remote access to a switch where data is encrypted during the session

b)

Unauthenticated terminal access that is in plain text

c)

Local console access only using a rollover cable

d)

Remote access using broadcast packets

122.

What kind of threat is described when a threat actor impersonates another person to obtain credit information about that person?

a)

Identity theft

b)

Pharming

c)

Tailgating

d)

Watering hole attack

123.

What kind of threat is described when a threat actor impersonates another person to obtain credit information about that person?

a)

Identity theft

b)

Phishing

c)

Malware infection

d)

Shoulder surfing

124.

A technician has established a remote connection to router R1 to observe debug output. After entering the command debug ip icmp and pinging a remote destination, no output is displayed. Which command should be entered to display log messages on the remote connection?

a)

terminal monitor

b)

logging console

c)

show logging

d)

debug all

125.

Which statement describes the function of the SVI on a switch?

a)

It provides a virtual interface for remote access to the switch.

b)

It provides wireless access for hosts.

c)

It is used to configure physical port speeds.

d)

It forwards frames based on MAC addresses.

126.

Which TCP/IP model layer combines the OSI Data Link and Physical layers?

a)

Network Interface (Link) layer

b)

Transport layer

c)

Internet layer

d)

Application layer

127.

Which type of fiber is used for long-distance, high-bandwidth communication with minimal modal dispersion?

a)

Single-mode fiber (SMF)

b)

Multimode fiber (MMF)

c)

Plastic optical fiber (POF)

d)

Coaxial fiber

128.

Which of the following is a multicast MAC address?

a)

01:00:5E:00:00:FB

b)

FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF

c)

00:50:56:E0:00:01

d)

00:1C:42:2E:3F:4B

129.

Which routing table entry has a next hop address associated with a destination network?

a)

Remote route

b)

Local route

c)

Directly connected network

d)

Default gateway

130.

Which three characteristics are defined by the Physical layer? (Choose three.)

a)

Encoding

b)

Physical components

c)

Signaling

d)

IP addressing

e)

Routing metrics

131.

Which OSI layer uses MAC addresses for communication?

a)

Data Link layer (Layer 2)

b)

Network layer (Layer 3)

c)

Transport layer (Layer 4)

d)

Physical layer (Layer 1)

132.

A router boots and the configuration file in NVRAM has an enable secret password but no console password. When the router boots up, which mode will display?

a)

user EXEC mode

b)

privileged EXEC mode

c)

global configuration mode

d)

ROM monitor mode

133.

What is the usable number of host IP addresses on a network that has a /27 mask?

a)

30

b)

32

c)

62

d)

14

134.

What is the purpose of the FCS field in a frame?

a)

To determine if errors occurred in the transmission and reception

b)

To identify the sender’s MAC address

c)

To prioritize real-time traffic

d)

To indicate the frame’s payload type

135.

Why is NAT not needed in IPv6?

a)

The number of available IPv6 addresses is extremely large, so public addresses are available for hosts and users.

b)

IPv6 does not use private addressing.

c)

IPv6 routers do not support NAT.

d)

IPv6 packets are always encrypted.

136.

Which frame forwarding method receives the entire frame and performs a CRC check to detect errors before forwarding the frame?

a)

Store-and-forward switching

b)

Cut-through switching

c)

Fragment-free switching

d)

Fast-forward switching

137.

How many usable host addresses are available on the 192.168.10.128/27 network?

a)

30

b)

32

c)

16

d)

62

138.

What is the broadcast address for 149.218.25.148/26? (Write your answer in decimal format, octets must be divided with dot)

a)

149.218.25.191

b)

149.218.25.255

c)

149.218.25.159

d)

149.218.25.128

139.

Arianna found a flash drive lying on a parking lot pavement and plugged it into her laptop. Afterwards she noticed that her laptop camera was active. What type of attack is described in this scenario?

a)

Malware attack

b)

Phishing attack

c)

Password brute force

d)

Denial-of-service attack

140.

George needed to share a large video file with a co-worker and set up a simple FTP server using an account with a simple password. The IT staff later found the workstation compromised and attempting to upload work documents to the internet. What type of attack is described in this scenario?

a)

Access attack

b)

Social engineering

c)

DoS attack

d)

Physical attack

141.

Convert 184 decimal to its hexadecimal equivalent.

a)

B8

b)

A4

c)

D0

d)

BC

142.

Which network feature is designed to protect data confidentiality during transmission?

a)

Encryption

b)

Compression

c)

Address translation

d)

Load balancing

143.

What is indicated by the term throughput?

a)

The measure of the bits transferred across the media over a given period of time

b)

The maximum theoretical bandwidth of a medium

c)

The number of devices on a network segment

d)

The latency between two endpoints

144.

Which two characteristics are typically true for a fiber-optic link? (Choose two.)

a)

It is not affected by EMI or RFI.

b)

It is more expensive than UTP cabling.

c)

It uses electrical signals to carry data.

d)

It has high crosstalk compared to copper.

e)

It requires RJ-45 connectors.

145.

Which two features does Ethernet examine to determine if a received frame is passed to the data link layer or discarded by the NIC? (Choose two.)

a)

Frame Check Sequence (FCS)

b)

Minimum frame size

c)

Source IP address

d)

TCP port number

e)

SSID

146.

Which protocol is connectionless and does not provide error recovery?

a)

UDP

b)

TCP

c)

ICMP

d)

HTTP

147.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the Application layer in the TCP/IP model?

a)

Routing

b)

Email services

c)

File transfer

d)

Web browsing

148.

Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in copper cables?

a)

Twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together

b)

Shielding pairs with aluminum foil

c)

Increasing cable length

d)

Using higher voltage signals

149.

Which cable type is most commonly used for Ethernet LAN connections?

a)

UTP

b)

Coaxial

c)

Fiber-optic

d)

Twinax

150.

Which is the binary equivalent of the IP address 192.168.11.10?

a)

11000000.10101000.00001011.00001010

b)

11000000.10101000.00001111.00001010

c)

11000000.10101000.00001011.00001001

d)

11100000.10101000.00001011.00001010